ETHICO-MORAL CONSIDERATIONS Flashcards

1
Q

These are systematic guides for developing ethical behavior. They answer normative questions of what beliefs and values should be normally accepted.

A

Code of Ethics

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2
Q

A nursing instructor who composed the Nurses Code of Ethics in 1893. The one who also wrote the words that best describes the code of ethics in the oath of nurses:

“to abstain from whatever is deleterious and mischievous and will not take or knowingly administer any harmful drug.”

A

Lystra Gretter

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3
Q

It is known as the Philippines Nursing Law

A

Sec 3 RA No 877

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4
Q

It is the ammended code of Ethics for Nurses recomenneded and endorsed by the PNA was adopted to govern the nursing practice in the Philippines.

A

Sec 6 PD No 223

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5
Q

It implies a commitment to a life of sacrifice and genuine selflessness.

A

Service to others

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6
Q

It perform the responsibilities with the highest sense of integrity and imbued with nationalism and spiritual values.

A

Integrity and Objectivity

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7
Q

A certain level of competence is necessary, i.e knowledge, technical skills, attitudes, and experience.

A

Professional Competence

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8
Q

It maintains and support professional organization.

A

Solidarity and Teamwork

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9
Q

It is consistent with their responsibilities to society and as Filipinos contribute to the attainment of the country’s national objectives.

A

Social and Civic Responsibility

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10
Q

Professionals shall remain open to the challenges of a dynamic and interconnected world.

A

Global Competetiveness

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11
Q

All professionals shall their colleagues with respect and strive to be fair in their dealings with one another.

A

Equality for All Professions

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12
Q

It is an act providing for a more responsive nursing profession repealing for the purpose republic act no 7164 otherwise known as “The Philippine Nursing Act of 1991”

A

RA No 9173

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13
Q

It refers to the commission of omission of an act, pursuant to a duty, that a reasonably prudent person in the same or similar circumstance would or would not do, and acting or the non-acting of which is the proximate cause of injury to another person or his property.

Ex: Burns, objects left inside the patients body, falls.

A

Professional Negligence

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14
Q

It means “the thing speaks for itself”

This means that the injury could not have happened if someone was not negligent that no further proof is required.

Ex: Fracture on a newly delivered baby born by breech presentation

A

Res Ipsa Loquitor

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15
Q

It implies the idea of improper or unskillful care of a patient by a nurse.

It also denotes that stepping beyond one’s authority with serious consequences.

Example: Giving anesthesia by a nurse or prescribing medicines.

A

Malpractice

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16
Q

It is lack of ability, or legal qualifications and being unfit to discharge the required duty.

A

Incompetence

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17
Q

It means an irresistible force, one that is unforeseen or inevitable.

Ex: Circumstances such as flood, fie, earthquakes, nurses who fail to render service during these circumstances are not held negligent.

A

Doctrine of Force Majeure

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18
Q

It means “let the master answer for the acts of the subordinate”. Under this doctrine, the liability is expanded to include the master as well as the employee.

Ex: The surgeon will be held responsible in case a laparotomy pack is left in a patient’s abdomen.

A

Doctrine of Respondeat Superior

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19
Q

It is a legal wrong, commited against a person on property independent of a contract which renders the person who commits it liable for damages in a civil action.

A

Intentional Wrong Torts

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20
Q

It is imminent threat of harmful or offensive bodily contact.

A

Assault

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21
Q

It is an intentional, unconsented touching of another person.

A

Battery

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22
Q

It means unjustifiable detention of a person without a legal warrant within the boundaries fixed by the defendant by an act or violation of duty intended to result in such confinement.

A

False Imprisonment or Illegal Detention

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23
Q

The right of privacy is the right to be left alone, the right to be free from unwarranted publicity and exposure to public view.

A

Confidentiality

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24
Q

Character assasination, be it written or spoken, constitute defamation.

A

Defamation

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25
Q

It is an oral defamation of a person by speaking unprivileged or false words by which reputation is damaged.

A

Slander

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26
Q

It is a defamation by written words, or such representations that caused a person to be avoided or tend to injure him in his work.

A

Libel

27
Q

It is an act committed or omitted in violation of law.

A

Crimes

28
Q

Criminal Offenses are composed of two elements

A

Criminal Act
Evil/Criminal Intent

29
Q

It is when two or more persons agree to commit felony and decide to do it.

A

Conspiracy

30
Q

Those who take direct part in the execution of the act.

A

Principals

31
Q

Those persons who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous act.

A

Accomplices

32
Q

Those who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, either principals or accomplices.

A

Accessories

33
Q

It deals with the acts or offenses against the public welfare.

A

Criminal Actions

34
Q

General name for criminal offense which does not in law amount to felony.

A

Misdemeanor

35
Q

It is a public offense for which a convicted person is liable to be sentenced to death or to be imprisoned.

A

Felony

36
Q

It maybe classified into reckless imprudence and simple imprudence.

A

Criminal Negligence

37
Q

When a person does an act or fails to do it voluntarily but without malice, from which material damage results immediately.

A

Reckless Imprudence

38
Q

When a person or nurse did not use precaution and the damage was not immediate or impending danger was not evident or manifest.

A

Simple Imprudence

39
Q

The state of mind of a person at the time the criminal act is committed, that is, he knows that an act is not lawful and still decided to do it anyway.

A

Criminal Intent

40
Q

It is when all elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.

A

Consummated Felony

41
Q

It is when the offender performs all the acts or execution which will produce the felony as a consequence but which nevertheless, do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the one will of the perpetrator.

A

Frustrated Felony

42
Q

It is an act of baseness, vileness, or depravity, in social or private duties which a man owes to his fellow man or to society in general.

A

Moral Turpitude

43
Q

It is an unlawful killing of a human being with intent to kill. It is a very serious crime.

A

Murder

44
Q

It is a killing of a human being by another

A

Homicide

45
Q

It is any person who, with the intention. of prematurely ending a pregnancy, willfully, and unlawfully does any act to cause the same guilty of producing abortion.

A

Abortion

46
Q

It is the killing of the child less than 3 days of age.

A

Infanticide

47
Q

It is the crime committed by one who kills his/her father, mother and child whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his/her ascendants or descendants or his/her spouse.

A

Parricide

48
Q

The crime against a person or property.

A

Robbery

49
Q

It is known as the Dangerous Act of 1972. It covers the administration and regulation of the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled drugs.

Nurses who violate this are in danger of having their license revoked aside from the imposed fine and/or imprisonment.

A

RA 6425

50
Q

It is a legal declaration of a person’s intentions upon death. It is called testamentary document because it takes effect after the death of its maker.

A

Wills

51
Q

A person whose property is transmitted through succession whether or not he will left a will, he is also called a TESTATOR

A

Decedent

52
Q

A person called to succession either by the provision of the will or by operation of law.

A

Heir

53
Q

It is a meeting of minds between two persons whereby one bind himself with respect to the other to give something or render some service.

A

Contract

54
Q

It refers to an agreement among parties involved and is required to be in writing by some special laws.

A

Formal Contract

55
Q

One which is included as the result of a written document or correspondence where the law does not require the same to be in writing, or as a result of oral and open discussion between the parties.

A

Informal Contract

56
Q

It is one in which the conditions and terms of the contract are given orally or in writing by parties concerned. Facio ut des - “I do that you may give”

A

Express Contract

57
Q

It is one that is concluded as the result of acts of conduct of the parties to which the law ascribes an objective intention to enter into a contract.

A

Implied Contract

58
Q

It is one that is inexistent from the very beginning and therefore may not be enforced.

A

Void Contract

59
Q

The one that is expressly prohibited by law. Obtained through use of fraud (deception and trickery), undue (unlawful) in securing such, and those that are expressly prohibited by law are illegal.

A

Illegal Contract

60
Q

The failure to perform an agreement, whether expressed or implied without cause.

A

Breach of Contract

61
Q

It is the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers

A

RA 7305

62
Q

Magna Carta is approved by who?

A

Former President Corazon C. Aquino

63
Q

Magna Carta is authored by who?

A

Sen. Edgardo Angara