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ET1 SWE - RPQ > ET3 RPQ > Flashcards

ET3 RPQ Flashcards

1
Q

What option do you choose on the Functional Area to create an INITIAL REQUEST?

A

INVENTORY/TAV —> INITIAL REQUEST

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2
Q

When entering the data into the INITIAL REQUEST what 4 fields are mandatory?

A

Requestors Name, E-Mail, Purpose, and Cancel IR Group After

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3
Q

What form is used to transfer/issue material to another unit?

A

DD-1149

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4
Q

How do you fill out the requisition date on a DD-1149?

A

DODAAC, Julian Date, and requistion serial number

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5
Q

What two priorities do you use on a DD-1149

A

Routine and Priority

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6
Q

What are the minimum safety tools used for a safety board or safety bag?

A
  1. Non-conductive wooden cane with all varnish and rubber tip removed or a 15-foot length of rope preferably one-half or five-eights inch hemp rope.
  2. Rubber electrical gloves with leather protection gloves.
  3. Insulated fuse pullers
  4. Shorting probe (rating minimum 25,000 volts)
  5. Flashlight
  6. Wool blankets
  7. Current method CPR instructional diagrams.
  8. Folder with diagrams for safety cut off switches and breakers.
  9. Remote site - roll-up ECSD mat and document listing GPS coordinates and local emergency contact numbers
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7
Q

How often are electrical rubber gloves tested?

A

every 6 months

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8
Q

Technicians must wear electrically insulated shoes when working on live electrical circuits of what voltage or more?

A

30 volts or more

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9
Q

At an eye wash station what should the tepid water temperature be?

A

between 60-100 Fahrenheit (16-28 Celsius)

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10
Q

An eye station must be accessible within how many seconds or feet?

A

10 seconds or 55 feet

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11
Q

What are the minimum water supply line flow requirements for an ANSI eye station?

A

30-90 PSI

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12
Q

When is single hearing protection required?

A

Areas or sound equipment where the sound pressure levels are 85 bB(A) or greater, but less than 96 dB(A). 140 dB(P), but not greater than 165 dB(P).

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13
Q

When is double hearing protection required?

A

Areas or sound equipment where the sound pressure levels are 96 dB(A) or greater. 165 dB(P) or greater.

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14
Q

At what radius from the height of the tower is a safety helmet required when conducting a climb?

A

½ the radius

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15
Q

What is the job of a safety observer when climbing a tower?

A

Stay within 150ft of the climber at all times and be dressed out in climbing gear.

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16
Q

Who administers the Tower Climber Certification program for future climbers?

A

The servicing CEU in your AOR

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17
Q

At a minimum, the prospective climber shall have adequate knowledge of what following subjects?

A
  • Recognition and avoidance of dangers relating to encounters with harmful substances and animal, insect, or plant life.
  • Use and inspection of personal fall-arrest equipment
  • Procedure to be followed in emergency situations
  • Rescue procedures
  • First aid training including CPR
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18
Q

What are the minimum requirements to qualify an individual to climb elevated structures?

A
  • The climber must be a responsible volunteer
  • The climber must be physically qualified and physically capable
  • The unit commander must recommend the climber
  • The climber must compete climbing certifications training, which includes a written test and a practical field test
  • On the first climb the climber must be accompanied by a qualified Coast Guard military or civilian engineer who has been certified to instruct tower climbing and who is familiar with the safety requirements and hazards outlined in the Manual
  • The climber shall be issued a written qualification letter from the servicing CEU. The letter specify maximum height that the individual is authorized to climb. The letter remains in effect as long as the individual remains within their AOR.
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19
Q

All connecting hardware on a climbing harness must have a minimum tensile strength of how many pounds?

A

5000 pounds and shall be proof tested to a minimum of 3600 pounds

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20
Q

Deceleration lanyards on climbing gear are limited to how many feet to prevent free fall?

A

6 feet

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21
Q

When climbing a tower what part of your body do you use to effectively ascend?

A

Use your legs, not your arms

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22
Q

What is the working load limit for a full body harness?

A

310 pounds

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23
Q

Personal fall arrest systems consist at a minimum of what 4 items?

A

Anchorage, full body harness, deceleration lanyard, and connecting device

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24
Q

Who has the authority to sign tags/labels to be issued or cleared when tagging out a system?

A

The Authorizing Officer who is designated by the CO in writing.

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25
Q

How many tag-out logs are required for WHEC, WMEC, and WAGB cutter classes?

A

Two – Operations and Engineering

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26
Q

Who is responsible for the tag-out log if there is only one?

A

Engineering Department

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27
Q

When filling out a DANGER/CAUTION tag what serial number is used to identify the difference between Engineering and Operations? And what would the serial number look like on a tag if there were multiple tags being used for the same system?

A

Engineering: E-001, Operations: O-001 Multiple tags: E-001-1, E-001-2, E-001-3

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28
Q

In the rare instance the one who attached the tags isn’t available to remove the tags what would be the solution?

A

The Commanding Officer may grant the Engineering or Operations Officer permission the clear the tags.

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29
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that checks and audits of all tag-outs are being performed and how often?

A

The cognizant department head is responsible to check the logs every 2 weeks.

30
Q

When using a shorting probe to dissipate the stored energy on a capacitor how long do you hold the shorting probe to the component?

A

Approximately 30 seconds

31
Q

Additional safety precautions are taken when measuring voltage in excess of many volts?

A

300+ Volts

32
Q

Rubber matting around electrical and electronic equipment is used as safety measure in what voltage range?

A

Up to 3000 volts but not exceeding

33
Q

What system is scheduled maintenance recorded in for shore side?

A

FLS

34
Q

What system is used for scheduled maintenance for small boats and patrol boats?

A

ACMS

35
Q

Define ACMS in ALMIS

A

Asset Computerized Maintenance System – ACMS tracks scheduled maintenance

36
Q

Define DSS in ALMIS

A

Decision Support System – DSS runs reports using data from other modules

37
Q

Define EAL in ALMIS

A

Electronic Asset Logbook – EAL tracks asset status and contains maintenance

38
Q

What are the responsibilities of the ESD Maintenance Supervisor in ALMIS?

A
  • Monitor EAL daily
  • Ensure no overdue maintenance
  • Ensure that all MDL timelines are followed and the most current MPCs are being used
  • Sign all completed MPCs and retain copies for at least 1 year
39
Q

An EAL entry is automatically flagged with “!” after how many business days if no corrective action has been taken?

A

1 business day

40
Q

Define CF in EAL

A

Carried Forward

41
Q

Define CFD in EAL

A

Indicates maintenance discrepancy will be addressed during next availability (Generally found during an Electronic Technical Assessment and requires extensive work)

42
Q

Define PP in EAL

A

Parts Pending – Changing PP to any other status will erase the document number

43
Q

Man hours are calculated how on ALMIS entries and MDL reports?

A

In increments of 0.5MH

44
Q

Explain the difference between overdue and extension on an MDL report

A
  • Maintenance tasks that have exceeded 30 days in an extension are considered overdue
  • Maintenance tasks that hasn’t exceeded 30 days is considered in extension
45
Q

In what status would an Asset need to be in to defer maintenance?

A

Suspended status – Assets suspended will appear with a yellow background on an MDL report.

46
Q

The CG uses an operational risk management process. What are the 7 steps in order?

A 
Identify Mission Tasks
Identify Hazards
Assess Risks
Identify Options
Evaluate Risk vs Gain
Execute Decision 
Monitor Situation
47
Q

A C02 fire extinguisher is normally located within how many feet of a high potential electrical fire?

A

30 feet

48
Q

What are 3 characteristics of a C02 fire extinguisher?

A
  • weigh about 15lbs
  • range of 4-6 feet
  • expended in approximately 40 seconds
49
Q

Effects of Shock Current Levels for 1mA, 10mA, and 100mA?

A
  • 1 mA = Shock is felt
  • 10 mA = a person may be unable to let go
  • 100 mA = shock may be fatal if lasts for one second or more.
  • Fun Fact: The resistance of the human body is typically around 500 ohms. When the skin is damp body resistance can drop below 300 ohms.
50
Q

Symptoms of Shock?

A
  • Pale or “bluish”
  • Victims pulse and breathing may be extremely weak or entirely absent
  • Unconscious
  • Burns may be present
  • Victims body may be rigid or stiff as a result of muscular reaction to the shock
51
Q

What is the Flash Protection Boundary when around circuits with rated voltages between 30-1000 volts, 1000-5000 volts, and 5000+ volts?

A
  • 30-1000 volts = 4 feet
  • 1000-5000 volts = 11 feet
  • 5000+ volts = 13 feet
52
Q

Electrical coating should be applied within what temperature range?

A

32-95 F

53
Q

2-2-1 method recommended maximum life is approximately how many months?

A

12 months

54
Q

What are the two approved roll-on sleeve protection in the Coast Guard for weatherproofing?

A

Gel-In-The-Middle Connector Protector (GIMCP) and RayOLOn Sealing Sleeve

55
Q

What are best practices when wrapping a connector for weatherproofing?

A

Start in the middle, overlap each successive wrap by 50% at a 45 degree angle.

56
Q

How far should weatherproofing extend past the connector?

A
  • 1 inch for vulcanizing tape and electrical tape (combined total of 2 inches once 2-2-1 method is complete)
  • 2 inches for cold shrink and heat shrink
57
Q

How long does electrical coating take to dry?

A

10 minutes

58
Q

What should be your power output when testing a XTL-5000 transceiver on LOW Power?

A

10W +/- 1W

59
Q

What should be your power output when testing a XTL-5000 transceiver on HIGH Power?

A

20-25W – Program transceiver first before replacing if power output is bad

60
Q

What is a good deviation range when testing the mic?

A

3.8 KHz to 5 KHz – anything less or greater mic should be replaced

61
Q

What is a good SINAD reading when testing the transceiver?

A

12dB or higher – If less than the transceiver needs to be replaced

62
Q

What test cable is used for connecting to the speaker during the XTL-5000 transceiver check?

A

Male BNC to female 3 pin Molex

63
Q

When megging the HF antenna what impedance reading should you get for a satisfactory check?

A

200 M Ohms or greater - Challenge this question

64
Q

What steps should you take if you get an impedance reading of less than 100 M Ohms on an HF antenna?

A

Ground megger leads to discharge residual voltage and check again – replace if no change

65
Q

When verifying forward power on AIS what range should it be in for a good reading?

A

8.9-17.8 Watt – 12.5 Watt is the sweet spot

66
Q

When testing the accuracy of TD-1550A DF antenna the relative bearing should be within how many degrees?

A

+/- 30 degrees

67
Q

What is the optimum output level for the DF when using the communication analyzer?

A

Anything less than 0.5uV – Replace if output level is above 0.5uV

68
Q

The antenna elements on the DF antenna should read a resistance of what for a known good?

A

Less than 10M Ohms – Clean and Replace if Greater than 10M Ohms

69
Q

What are the six troubleshooting steps?

A
  • Symptom Recognition
  • Symptom Elaboration
  • Listing Probable Faulty Functions
  • Localizing the Faulty Function
  • Localizing Trouble To The Circuit
  • Failure Analysis.
70
Q 
Fuse Speed:
F	
M	
T	
TT
A

F Fast Acting Fuse (Flink)
M Medium Acting Fuse (Mitteltrage)
T Slow Acting Fuse (Trage)
TT Very Slow Acting Fuse (Trage Trage)

ET1 SWE - RPQ (3 decks)

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