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2015 > ET VOL 4 CH 3,4 > Flashcards

ET VOL 4 CH 3,4 Flashcards

1
Q
A
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2
Q

Of the following information, which could be provided by modern IFF systems?

A
  1. Mission of the target 2. What squadron the target belongs to 3. The altitude of an aircraft (side number)?
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3
Q

What are the three basic steps of the IFF identification process

A

Challenge, reply, and recognition

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4
Q

The spacing between IFF interrogation pulse pairs is determined by which of the following factors?

A

Mode of IFF operation

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5
Q

When you use IFF, a dashed line just beyond the target on your radar screen indicates which of the following craft?

A

A friendly craft

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6
Q

The Mark XII IFF aystem is capable of how many modes of operation?

A

5

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7
Q

Which IFF unit provides the control signals that determine the MK XII mode of operation?

A

Video decoder

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8
Q

Which of the following modes of IFF operation is NOT a selective identification feature (SIF) mode?

A

C

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9
Q

The transponder of a pilotless aircraft, responding to a SIF mode interrogation, would send which of the following replies?

A

X-pulse

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10
Q

Which of the following codes could be selected as an IFF transponder reply code for mode 1 operation?

A

4300 (first 0-7) (second 0-3) (remaining 2 digits 0’s)

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11
Q

A major failure in your radio room has knocked your communications off the air. Which of the following codes should you set in the IFF transponder for mode 3/A replies?

A

7600

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12
Q

What reply code in IFF is 7700?

A

civilian emergency

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13
Q

what reply code in IFF is 7777?

A

interceptors on active ait defense missions

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14
Q

what reply code in 3/A mode withh trigger FAA towers?

A

7500,7600,7700,7777

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15
Q

Which of the following IFF mode 3/A reply codes may your ship use in U.S. national air space?

A

5011, (50XX, 54XX,61XX,64XX

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16
Q

Which of the following IFF mode C reply codes will your ship use?

A

0000

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17
Q

A commercial airliner using TCAS could mistake your ship’s IFF mode C reply for which of the following structures?

A

A small aircraft flying at about 10,000 feet

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18
Q

general aircaft fly below how many feet

A

12,500?

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19
Q

Under which of the following circumstances may you operate IFF in mode C when your ship is in or near port?

A

When testing with the antenna disconnected

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20
Q

The MK XII IFF system requires triggers to initiate interro– gations. Where do they come from?

A

The pulse generator of the IFF interrogator

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21
Q

You would find direct altitude readouts for IFF mode C replies on which of the following displays?

A

Intratarget data indicator

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22
Q

All the indicators on your ship that are interfaced with IFF have ring-around. Which of the following places will the problem most likely be found?

A

Primary radar antenna

23
Q

The antenna pedestal assembly is being rotated at 21 rpm. To what mode of operation is your IFF manual pedestal set?

A

Slave (2-30 rpm)

24
Q

What are the different Mode of operations for the manual pedestal set?

A
  1. Free-Run (15RPM) 2.Slave(2-30RPM) 3.Manual (any Azimuth)
25
Q

Which of the following modes of IFF operation does/do NOT require that reply codes be set by thumbwheel switches?

A

4

26
Q

You would need written permission from the Skipper to work on which of the following units without formal training?

A

KIT–1A/TSEC, ,KIR-1,KIK-18

27
Q

Which of the following agencies is/are involved in agreements made under the AIMS program?

A
  1. The Air Force 2. The Navy 3. The FAA
28
Q

You are at a shore installation and your DAIR system alarms when the target strays ±300 feet from the controller–assigned altitude. What type of DAIR system do you have?

A

type-10 radar

29
Q

What are the different types of DAIR(direst altitude and identify readout)

A

Type 8 CArrier Type 10 Radar Type 12 Amphibous

30
Q

A controller using a CATCC DAIR system has which of the following information available at his/her console?

A
  1. Flight identity 2. Flight altitude 3. Ship’s barometric pressure
31
Q

As an aircraft leaves the CATCC controller’s area of respon– sibility, it is passed to which of the following controllers?

A
  1. Another CATCC control position 2. CIC 3. ACLS/PALS
32
Q

Which type of DAIR system would be used for amphibious operations?

A

Type 12

33
Q

Each DAIR system provides information to allow control of aircraft within a given area. Which type has a responsibility area of 50 nautical miles surrounding the ship?

A

Type 8 catcc pair cv18

34
Q

Which type of DAIR system has the AOA as its responsibility area?

A

Type 12 AATC (V)12

35
Q

On board your carrier you have just updated your AN/TPX–42A(V)8 to a (V)12. Which additional system can now interface with your DAIR?

A

ITAWDS (Integrated Tactical Amphibous Warfare Data System) SDMS(Shipboard Data Muliplex System)

36
Q

A technician trained to maintain a RATCF DAIR system will have what NEC?

A

ET-1578

37
Q

A technician trained to maintain an AIMS Mk XII IFF system will have what NEC?

A

ET–1572

38
Q

A technician trained to maintain an AATC DAIR system will have what NEC?

A

ET-1576

39
Q

Which of the following systems, if any, integrates other systems and subsystems to perform detection and entry functions?

A

NTDS(Naval Tactical Data Systems)

40
Q

What are combat system functions controlled by NTDS?

A
  1. Tracking and identification 2. Threat evaluation and weapon assignment 3. Engagement and engagement assessment
41
Q

As an ET you are responsible for maintenance on which of the following NTDS-related equipment?

A

Video and sync amps, Radar, Antenna, Radar Switch Boards

42
Q

What publication, if any, provides information on radar and NTDS as an integrated system on your ship?

A

CSTOM Combat Systems Technical Operation Manual

43
Q

The Combat Systems Technical Operations Manual provides information required to take which of the following actions?

A
  1. Define the limitations of the NTDS system 2. Operate the NTDS system 3. Maintain the material readiness of the NTDS system
44
Q

Which of the following are CRT safety hazards?

A
  1. Violent implosion if broken 2. Toxic phosphor coating 3. Very high voltage
45
Q

what are the electrical safety rubber gloves ratings?

A

Class 0 (750 Watts) Class I (3000 watts) Class II (4000 Watts) Class III (5000 watts)

46
Q

In which section of the tag-out log would you place a tag-out record sheet that has been cleared after completion of radar PMS

A

section 5

47
Q

RADHAZ labels indicate an RF electromagnetic field intense enough to do which of the following damage?

A
  1. Cause spark ignition of fuel 2. Produce harmful biological effects in humans 3. Actuate electroexplosive devices
48
Q

When you are in port, who must give you permission to test operate your radar system?

A

The supervisor in charge of operations

49
Q

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during a refueling operation?

A

HERF (Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuels)

50
Q

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical when a person is working aloft?

A

HERP (Hazards of Electromagnetic Personal)

51
Q

Which of the following hazard conditions is most critical during an ammunition off–loading operation?

A

HERO (Hazards of Electromagnetic of Ordnance)

52
Q

What parameter(s) is/are used to determine safe limits associated with electronic equipment?

A
  1. Power density of the radiation beam 2. Exposure time of the human body
53
Q

Which of the following requirements pertain(s) to a safety observer for a technician working on energized equipment?

A
  1. Must be CPR qualified 2. Must know the location of all cut–off switches 3. Must have a nonconductive device to pull the technician from a circuit
54
Q

How often is the required PMS performed on a safety harness?

A

Each time it is used

2015 (12 decks)

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