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Delta A350 > eSV-app > Flashcards

eSV-app Flashcards

1
Q

True or False: The fixed cabin oxygen system provides 22 minutes of oxygen for the passengers, cabin crew, and crew rest facilities.

A

True

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2
Q

True or False: The flight deck contains one fire extinguisher and one Portable Breathing Equipment (PBE) for fighting fires.

A

True

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3
Q

Ture or False: The tail swings the largest arc during a turn.

A

False

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4
Q

The EMER position of the oxygen mask provides:

A

100% oxygen under continuous and positive pressure.

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5
Q

According to the DOOR/OXY page, what is the status of door 2L?

A

The door is not locked and slide is armed.

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6
Q

According to the DOOR/OXY page what does the amber numeric value indicate?
(CAPT 320 PSI in Amber)

A

The CAPT cylinder pressure is less than 350 psi.

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7
Q

True or False: Logo lights are mounted on the horizontal stabilizer, and illuminate the company logo on the vertical stabilizer / rudder area.

A

True

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8
Q

True or False: Selecting the EMER LT switch to ON will arm the emergency lights to illuminate if certain electrical system power failures occur.

A

False

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9
Q

True or False: There is a decompression and evacuation panel on the flight deck door for the flight crew to evacuate the flight deck if needed.

A

True

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10
Q

According to the Bleed page, what is the pack outlet temperature of pack 1?

A

14°C

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11
Q

True or False: With the pressurization panel in the normal (lights out) mode, rotating the CABIN V/S TRGT knob towards UP or DN will manually change the cabin vertical speed.

A

False

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12
Q

According to the CAB PRESS system display page shown here, which system is controlling the pressurization system?

A

System 2

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13
Q

Which answer best describes the pack system of the A350?

A

The A350 has two packs that operate independently. Each pack has two heat exchangers, one cooling unit, or Air Cycle Machine (ACM), and one pack controller.

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14
Q

How is the BULK cargo compartment heated?

A

An electric heating element heats the air that is ventilated into the bulk cargo compartment.

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15
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the climb phase of the cabin pressurization schedule?

A

The cabin vertical speed is determined in order to reach the scheduled cabin altitude at the top of climb, defined by the FMS cruise level.

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16
Q

True or False: The temperature in each zone of the cabin and cockpit is optimized by individual trim air valves, one for each zone.

A

True

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17
Q

On the ground, or when the differential pressure is less than a predetermined value:

A

An extraction fan discharges the air overboard via the aft outflow valve.

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18
Q

True or false: APU air can be used for air conditioning and pressurization on the ground and in flight up to 22,500’ with both packs operating, and up to 25,000’ with a single pack operating

A

True

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19
Q

True or False: The PACK indications on the COND system display page indicate that PACK 1 is supplying air, but PACK 2 has failed or is not supplied with bleed air.

A

True

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20
Q

True or False: Lifting the guard and selecting the RAM AIR pb to ON will open the RAM air inlet in flight, which provides an alternate method of pressurizing the aircraft in the event both engine bleed valves fail.

A

False

(Provides Ventilation Only)

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21
Q

Which area is NOT monitored for a bleed leak by the Bleed and Overheat Monitoring Units (BOMUs)?

A

Bulk Cargo

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22
Q

What will display on the ECAM BLEED page if abnormal pressure is detected in the wing anti-ice system?

A
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23
Q

True or False: The only way a pilot can tell that wing anti-ice has been selected to ON is to observe the wing anti-ice pb on the overhead panel, and verify the blue ON light is illuminated.

A

False

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24
Q

True or False: The amber “A-ICE SEVERE ICING DETECTED” caution indicates that the probes detect severe icing, and directs the crew to select wing anti-ice ON.

A

True

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25
Q

If needed, the flight crew can manually force windshield defogging using the WINDSHIELD DEFOG pb on the AIR panel.

A

True

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26
Q

What happens when the ENG 1(2) engine anti-ice pb is selected to ON?

A

A blue ON light illuminates in the respective pb.
A green ENG A-Ice memo is displayed on the PFD and the warning display.
The engine anti-ice valves on the respective engine open and regulate high pressure bleed air to prevent ice formation on the engine necelle.
The respective engine’s idle speed increases.

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27
Q

True or False: LAND 1 or LAND 2 in column 4 indicates that the system is fail passive and autoland is not possible in the event of a failure.

A

True

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28
Q

True or False: To compute FD guidance commands, FD1 normally uses data from the captain’s side (FMS1 and MMR1), and FD2 uses data from the first officers side (FMS2 and MMR2).

A

True

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29
Q

What is the status of the autothrust when the thrust levers are not in the active autothrust range?

A

Thrust is set manually using the thrust levers.

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30
Q

What knob arms managed lateral navigation when pushed?

A

MAG HDG

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31
Q

Is autothrust fixed or variable in the SPEED mode?

A

Variable

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32
Q

True or False: The aircraft is in flight with the autopilot and flight directors off. If you turn on the FDs they will come on in heading or track, and vertical speed or flight path angle.

A

True

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33
Q

Which statement is correct about alpha floor?

A

Alpha floor is available in normal law shortly after liftoff until 100’ RA on approach.

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34
Q

True or False: With autothrust enganged, the thrust levers in the CL detent enables the autothrust to use any setting up to climb thrust to meet autoflight system demands.

A

True

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35
Q

What does the “AP IN PROT” annunciation on the FMA indicate?

A

The aircraft has entered the protected envelope with the autopilot engaged, or the crew has selected the autopilot on while in the protected envelope.

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36
Q

True or False: The autopilot may be disengaged manually or automatically.

A

True

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37
Q

True or False: When the ELT is transmitting on the ground a yellow light appears on the ELT Panel and an external horn is sound.

A

True

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38
Q

When the RCDR GND CTL pb is lights out, when are the CVR and the DFDR energized?

A

When the first engine is started.

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39
Q

How can you cancel the buzzer sound on incoming SELCAL or telephone calls?

A

Select the RST key.

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40
Q

True or False: The amber light indicates the ELT is either ON or running self-test.

A

True

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41
Q

Which button on the CALLS panel should you press to initiate a call with the purser?

A

PURS

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42
Q

True or False: Raising the guard and selecting the STBY RAD/NAV pb illuminates the green light, indicating that NORMAL navigation aid tuning is active.

A

False

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43
Q

True or False: In airspace where CPDLC is available, the connection is initiated by ATC automatically; no action by pilot or ATC is required.

A

False

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44
Q

What does the green arrow on this ELEC DC page indicate regarding BAT1?

A

Bat 1 charging

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45
Q

How can the Circuit Breaker C/B page be accessed?

A

Pressing the ALL pb or rotating the SD knob on the ECAM Control Panel (ECP).

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46
Q

In reference to the static inverter, what does the green traingle mean?

A

The STAT INV is connected to the AC EMER bushar.

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47
Q

What does the amber “RAT OUT” ECAM memo mean?

A

The RAT is deployed on the ground before takeoff.

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48
Q

Which battery voltage is currently being displayed?

A

BAT 1

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49
Q

True or False: An amber fault light in the GEN pushbutton means that the generator has failed or is not running.

A

True

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50
Q

How will the system reconfigure if the APU is selected ON with EXT 1 and EXT 2 in use?

A

The APU will take over powering AC 1A and AC 1B, while EXT 2 will continue to power AC 2B and AC 2A.

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51
Q

What does this indication mean?

A

GEN 1A has been selected off and a generator low pressure warning occured.

52
Q

In the event of a dual engine failure when will the APU Bleed valve open?

A

When the ENG MASTER lever is set to ON and below 25,000 feet.

53
Q

True or False: The blue ON light in the APU START pb means that the APU has successfully started, and it is providing electrical power and bleed air to the aircraft systems.

A

False

54
Q

True or False: Autothrust functions normally if both engines are in degraded mode.

A

False

55
Q

What does this engine display indicate?

A

ENG 2 reverser doors are fully deployed

56
Q

APU capabilities for the electrical power include:

A

One APU Generator, which can replace up to two engine driven generators on the same engine throughout the operating envelope.

57
Q

True or False: While the thrust levers do NOT move in response to auto thrust commands, the thrust lever position will limit the maximum thrust available when autothrust is on and working. The only exception to this is if alpha floor is activated, in which case TOGA thrust will be commmanded, regardless of thrust lever position

A

True

58
Q

On the engine system display page shown here, what does the amber number 198 mean?

A

The air and fuel used for engine oil cooling have not been able to keep the temperature below the upper oil temperature limit.

59
Q

True or False: An APU fire is indicated to the ground personnel by an external horn and a light on the maintenance nose gear panel.

A

True

60
Q

True or False: The A350 has protections to prevent the deployment of a thrust reverser in flight?

A

True

61
Q

What does the APU system display page indicate?

A

The APU bleed valve is closed and available for use.

62
Q

What happens during an automatic engine start when you move an ENG MASTER lever to ON?

A

The start valve opens, and FADEC adds fuel and ignition at the appropriate N3 speed.

63
Q

When are crew members required to select continuous ignition?

A

Moderate or greater rain, turbulence, or standing water or slush on the runway.

64
Q

True or False: If both engine fire detection loops fail within five seconds of each other, an engine fire warning will be activated.

A

True

65
Q

What happens if both loops in the Main Landing Gear (MLG) bay fail in rapid succession (within five seconds of each other)?

A

A “MLG BAY FIRE” warning is generated.

66
Q

True or False: The cockpit lavatory SMOKE warning will indicate which lavatory is sensing smoke.

A

False

67
Q

What does this fire panel indicate?

A

An engine fire has been detected in ENG 1 and both engine fire bottles are now armed and ready to be discharged.

68
Q

Air in the avionics ventilation system is monitored for:

A

Smoke Particles

69
Q

True or False: If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment, the Smoke Detection Function (SDF) computers will automatically increase ventilation into the cargo compartment to help clear the smoke.

A

False

70
Q

True or False: It would take a failure of six flight computers to encounter backup control.

A

True

71
Q

True or False: In normal law, if the aircraft continues to pitch up to a 30° nose up pitch attitude, further aft sidestick displacement produces no effect,

A

True

72
Q

You request a pitch change by slightly pulling aft on the sidestick to establish a 10° pitch-up climb, and then release the stick, what do you expect to happen to your pitch with regards to load factor demand?

A

The current pitch attitude will be maintained.

73
Q

True or False: All primary flight control surfaces have a single hydraulic servo, each of which is controlled by only one flight control computer?

A

False

74
Q

When is pitch trim automatically set for takeoff?

A

When the first engine has been started.
or
When the flight crew arms the ground spoilers

75
Q

Along with an associated ECAM alert, the PRIM 2 indication has turned amber, as shown here. What does this mean?

A

PRIM 2 has failed.

76
Q

How are the slats operated?

A

Hydraulically and electrically

77
Q

The speedbrakes retract automatically when the angle of attack protection is activated. Can they be used after you return to normal flight conditions?

A

Yes, but only after the SPEED BRAKE lever has been moved to the RET position for 5 seconds or more.

78
Q

True or False: If the ground spoilers are not armed, they will automatically extend if the reversers are selected.

A

True

79
Q

True or False: The inner and outer flaps can operate independently of each other.

A

True

80
Q

What do these priority lights indicate?

A

The captain has taken priority.

81
Q

True or false: The green hash marks highlighted on the PFD represents the maximum achievable bank angle in normal law.

A

True

82
Q

What does the DIFF FLAP message along with an associated ECAM alert mean?

A

The differential flap setting function has failed due to a failure of one or both of the active differential gear boxes, and FLAP CTL is not able to realign the inner and outer flaps.

83
Q

The ENG system display page displays, and you note that the oil quantity on the left side is pulsing in green. What does that indicate?

A

This is an advisory. The oil quantity is still within limits, but degrading and should be monitored by the crew.

84
Q

Pressing the F/O OIS ON CENTER pb displays the first officer’s OIS on which DU?

A

Lower Center DU

85
Q

According tot he graphic shown here, what aircraft system has experienced a primary failure leading to secondary system failures or degradations?

A

Hydraulic

86
Q

You observe the following indications on your PFD and warning display. What does it mean?

A

Engine anti-ice is on

87
Q

True or False: If the condition that triggered an alert is no longer active, the RCL LAST pb has no effect.

A

True

88
Q

Which information is normally displayed on the center lower DU?

A

The Multifunction display (MFD)

89
Q

What does the amber AUTOLAND indication shown on this status page mean?

A

The autoland system is not operational.

90
Q

The Integrated Standy Instrument System (ISIS) can display localizer and glideslope information, which enables the pilot to fly an ILS approach.

A

True

91
Q

True or False: If the captains or first officers inner DU fails, the pilot must press the DISPLAY CYCLE pb in order to display the EFIS on his/her respective outer DU.

A

False

92
Q

What is the difference between the two types of dispatch messages shown here?

A

The HYD G SYS occurred before takeoff. The COND HOT AIR VLV 1 message occurred after takeoff.

93
Q

Where do you find information on the navigation accuracy and Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?

A

On the MFD POSITION/MONITOR page

94
Q

True or False: When the AIR DATA selector is placed to F/O ON BKUP, the speed and altitude data on the first officer’s PFD is repeated from the captains display.

A

False.

95
Q

What happens if you fly into a polar zone with the MAG reference still selected?

A
  • The IRs will automatically revert to TRUE.
    -The TRUE label appears on the ND and PFD heading scales
    -The NAC EXTREME LATITUDE alert is triggered.
    -The autopilot may disconnect if all three IRs do NOT switch simultaneously.
96
Q

True or False: When the GNSS data is available, each ADIRU uses the GNSS and the IR sources to compute a hybrid position referred to as the GPIRS position.

A

True

97
Q

True or False: It is possible to tune NAVAIDS if all three FMCs fail.

A

True

98
Q

True or False: The green IR IN ALIGN 6 MIN memo indicates the remaining time to finish the alignment of the IRs.

A

True

99
Q

True or False: With the aircraft powered for normal operations, the normal position for the IR mode selectors is the ATT position.

A

False

100
Q

True or False: The flashing greem IRS IN ALIGN memo (e.g., IR IN ALIGN 6 MIN) is a normal indication during the IR alignment process

A

False

101
Q

If the desired fuel load is 140,000 lbs, but the aircraft has been fueled to 160,000 lbs, what option is available?

A

Using the external refuel panel, have the fueler defuel the extra 20,000 lbs.

102
Q

Referencing the FUEL system display shown here, what do you know about the fuel pumps?

A

The left tank MAIN and STBY pumps have been selected OFF or have failed.

103
Q

What conditions trigger the amber LEAK indication on the FUEL system display page?

A

An excessive difference exists between the current FOB + FU and the original block fuel.

104
Q

When is the wing tank fuel normally used?

A

During takeoff, the center tank pumps turn off automatically, and each engine is fed by its respective wing tank until the slats retract. Once the center tank is empty, both the main and standby pumps in each wing tank will feed their respective engines

105
Q

What happens to the fuel system when you extend the slats in the emergency electrical configuration?

A

The main fuel pumps in each wing tank shut off, and fuel flows to the engines via gravity feed from their respective wing tanks.

106
Q

Referencing the fuel panel shown here, what does the FAULT light in the CTR TK FEEK pb mean?

A

The fuel distribution is incorrect between the center and wing tanks or a low level of fuel is detected in both wing tanks. Selecting this pb to MAN will extinguish the FAULT light, and the center tank pumps can then be controlled manually.

107
Q

In cruise, you observe the ECAM memos GW AND GWCG FROM WBBC. What do they mean?

A

The fuel quantity management system is unable to compute GW and GWCG, so the values are provided by the weight and balance backup computation, which uses aerodynamic data, but the accuracy is degraded.

108
Q

What does the green GND XFR IN PROGRESS memo mean?

A

Fuel is being transferred between tanks using the MODE SELECT selector on the external refueling panel.

109
Q

In the event of a hydralic system failure (green or yellow) what backup system (s) are available?

A

Engine Driven pump on the opposite side
Electro-Hydrostatic Actuator (EHA)
Electrical backup hydraulic actuator (EBHA)

110
Q

True or False: Electric Hydraulic pumps provide backup hydraulics on the ground and airborne.

A

False

111
Q

True or False: On the ground, an amber LO indication in the Engine Driven Pump (EDP) indicates the associated engine is not running.

A

True

112
Q

What does OFF indicate in the GREEN or YELLOW PUMP pb

A

The respective pump is depressurized

113
Q

Selecting the ACCU REINFLATE pb on the PARK BRK panel:

A

Causes the electric HYD pump(s) to run automatically to pressurize the respective brake accumulator

114
Q

Which statement is true about the fire shut off valves (FSOV)?

A

FSOV’s close when the ENG FIRE pb or ENG SUPPLY pb is pressed.

115
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the nosewheel steering system?

A

Yellow

116
Q

What does this brake indication mean on the WHEEL system display page?

A

Brake Released

117
Q

Which of the following is correct if the ANTI SKID switch has been selected off?

A

Anti-skid is not available.

118
Q

What does this parking brake indication mean on the lower part of the PFD?

A

The parking brake is set to ON, and the pressure is effective on the brakes.

119
Q

Which of these conditions will prevent the arming of basic (MED) autobrakes?

A

Brake to vacate has been selected.

120
Q

True or False: It is possible for one wheel group (forward or aft main wheels) to be in normal braking mode while another is in alternate mode?

A

True

121
Q

What is the maximum turn angle provided by the handwheels in either direction?

A

Up to 72°

122
Q

How do the transponder and the Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) work in relation to each other?

A

The transponder supports the TCAS functions and uses the same antennas as the TCAS system. If the transponder is selected to STBY or fails, TCAS will be unavailable.

123
Q

True or False: During normal operations, weather radar is automatically turned on at takeoff and turned off at landing?

A

True

124
Q

What do you know about the aircraft displayed on this ND?

A

The two aircraft are proximate traffic, and they are NOT considered a potential threat at this time. One is 500’ above and the other 1,500’ below. Both aircraft are descending.

125
Q

True or False: SYS 1 is the primary controller for surveillance functions. Some predictive functions will be lost if the system reverts to SYS 2.

A

False

126
Q

What happens if you turn the FLAP MODE to OFF on the SURV CONTROLS page?

A

The TOO LOW FLAPS GPWS alerts are inhibited, but all other GPWS alerts are still active.

Delta A350 (3 decks)

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