Essay stuff to know III Flashcards

1
Q

Liability of the partners

A

Partners are jointly and severally liable for obligations of the partnership meaning that each partner can be held liable to a third party for the entire obligation of the partnership. It is up to the partners to allocate losses among themselves.
However, a partner cannot be held liable for a partnership obligation unless the partner was personally served in the lawsuit in addition to the partnership and the judgement against the partnership was not fully satisfied out of the partnership’s assets.

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2
Q

How to start an agency question

A

The issue with respect to each contract is whether Taster acted with authority. Generally, an agency relationship is created when one person (the principla) manifests an intent that another person (the agent) act on his behalf and both parties consent to the agreement. A principal is contractually bound to the acts of the agent if the agent acted with actual or apparent authority.

Actual authority is authority that the agent reasonably thinks he possesses based on the principal’s dealings with him. Actual authority can be express (contained within the agreement between the aprties) or implied from the actions of the principal.
Apparent authority arises when the principal “holds out” the agent as having certain authority, causing third parties to reasonably believe the agent has such authority.

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3
Q

General partnership statement

A

A general partnership is created when two or more people associate themselves to have a business for profits. To determine whether the general partnership was formed we do not look at the subjective intent of the parties in forming the partnership. To create a general partnership the partners do not have to file any documents, do not need a writing nor any consideration. To determine whether someone is a partner in the partnership the court looks at factors such as whether they share the profits and the losses and whether they have some management rights.

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4
Q

Effect of an ultra vires act by the corporation

A

Common law an ultra vires contract was said to be illegal and unenforceable. Today, however, by statute in the vast majority of jurisdictions, the ultra vires doctrine is quite limited. It may be raised only by: a) a shareholder seeking to enjoin a proposed ultra vires action, b) the corporation seeking damages against the officers or directors who authorized the ultra vires act, c) or the state seeking to dissolve the corporation for engaging in an ultra vires act.

Injunction
Nothing in the facts indicate that any shareholder is seeking to enjoin the deal with GP. The facts only state that A and B would like to get out of the deal, and they are not shareholders.

This is because injunctions are equitable actions, and an equitable court would not enjoin an action that would harm an innocent third party, such as a third party who entered into an ultra vires contract with a corporation not knowing that the contract was ultra vires.

Action for Damages:
A shareholder could bring an action against the three directors for breach of the duty of care for authorizing the ultra vires act. Directors are fiduciaries and owe the corporation the duty to act with the care that an ordinary person would exercise in his own affairs. Taking on business outside the scope of the corporation’s stated purpose violates this duty.

Dissolution by State
It also is doubtful that the3 third exception to the ultra vires doctrine would result in avoiding the contract. The state likely would not seek to dissolve the corporation for entering into the ultra vires contract. Usually, the state seeks dissolution only when the ultra vires act violates regulatory laws.

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5
Q

Duty of loyalty in relation of corporations

A

As discussed above, directors are fiduciaries of their corporations. One of their fiduciary duties is the duty of loyalty. This duty prohibits a directors from competing with his corporation. It also bars a directors from usurping corporate opportunities – a director cannot take for himself a business opportunity in which his corporation might have an interest unless he first offers the opportunity to the corporation and the corporation rejects the opportunity.

A corporation’s interest does not extend to every conceivable business opportunity, but neither does the opportunity have to be necessary to the corporation’s current business. The closer the opportunity is to the corporation’s line of business, the more likely a court will find it to be a corporate opportunity. The corporation’s lack of financial ability to take advantage of the opportunity typically is not a defense. The director should still present the opportunity to the corporation and allow the corporation to decide whether it can take advantage of the opportunity. If a director does not give the corporation an opportunity to act but rather usurps the opportunity, the corporation can recover the profits that the director made from the transaction or may force the director to convey the opportunity to the corporation, under a constructive trust theory, for whatever consideration the director purchased the opportunity.

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6
Q

How to remove directors

A

Generally only the shareholders have the power to remove directors. The directors have no power to remove fellow directors unless the corporation’s articles or bylaws provide otherwise. The shareholders may remove a director with or without cause.

Thus the only way A and B could remove C is by calling a special shareholder meeting to vote on C’s removal. The meeting must have at least 10 but no more than 60 days notice to the shareholders and must specify the time, place, and purpose of the meeting. However if C was elected through cumulative voting, he may not be removed if the votes cast against removal would be sufficient to elect him if cumulatively voted at an election of the board. While no grounds for removal are necessary, A and B can raise their suspicions of C’s skimming corporate funds as a reason to remove him.

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7
Q

Corporation and pre-incorporation contracts.

A

As a general rule, corporations are legal entities separate and apart from their shareholders. One consequence of his status is that corporations are not liable for contracts made prior to incorporation. Generally, only the promoters (the people who undertake to form the corporation) are liable on pre-incorporation contracts. The corporation may become liable on pre-incorporation contract only if it adopts the contracts. Adoption may be explicit (ex. resolution of the board of directors) or implicit (by accepting the benefits of the contract).

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8
Q

Can shareholders be creditors of the corporation?

A

Another consequence of a corporation being an entity separate and apart from its shareholders is that the shareholders may become creditors of the corporation by lending the corporation money.

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9
Q

Deep Rock doctrine or equitable subordination.

A

Corporation Essay 2
As a general rule shareholders who are unsecured creditors are not subordinate to other, outwise unsecured creditors. Thus, if the general rule is followed, EC, M and R each would be entitled to a pro rata share of D’s 50,000.

Since EC is owed 90,000 of the total 120,000 debt it would be entitled to ¾ of the 50,000 (37,500), and M and R each would be entitled to 1/8th share (6250). However, a court might subordinate M and R’s claims if any kind of wrongdoing is attributable to them. This is known as the Deep Rock doctrine or equitable subordination. In such a case, Dryco would receive the entire 50,000 and M and R each would receive nothing.

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10
Q

“Piercing the corporate veil”

A

As a general rule, shareholders in a properly formed corporation are not personally liable for the obligations of their corporation. This is another consequence of the corporation being an entity separate and apart from the shareholders. However, a court will ignore this separateness – and pierce the corporate veil to hold shareholders personally liable for the corporation’s obligations – if the privilege of conducting business as a corporation has been abused. The corporate veil usually will not be pierced unless one of the following is present: a) corporate formalities have been ignored and injustice has resulted, b) the corporation was inadequately capitalized at the time of formation or c) the corporate form is being used to perpetrate fraud.

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11
Q

S16 of the Securities of Exchanges Act

A

Section 16(b) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 provides that any profit realized by a director, officer, or shareholder owning more than 10% of the outstanding shares of the corporation from any purchase and sale, or sale and purchase, of any equity security of his corporation within a period of less than six months must be returned to the corporation. The section applies to a publicly held corporation whose shares are traded on a national exchange or that have a) at least 2000 shareholder (or 500 nonaccredited shareholders) and b) more than 10 million in assets. The purpose of section 16(b) is to prevent unfair use of inside information and internal manipulation of price. This is accomplished by imposing strict liability for recovered transactions whether or not there is any material fact that should or could have been disclosed – no proof of use of inside information is required.

To be considered a 10% owner for purpose of section 16(b) the shareholder must have owned 10% of the corporation’s stock immediately before both the purchase and the sale of the stock. In other words, the purchase that brings a shareholder over the 10% threshold is not within the scope of section 16(b)

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12
Q

Section 10-b-5

A

Under rule 10 b5 it is unlawful for any person directly or indirectly by the use of any means of interstate commerce to in connection with the purchase o rsale of any security: a) employ any device, scheme, or artifice to defraud, b) make any untrue statement of a material fact or omit to state a material act, or c) engage in any act, practice or course of business that would operate as a fraud.

A prima facie case for breach of the rule requires proof of: a) fraudulent conduct, b) in connection with the purchase or sale of a security, c) use of a means of interstate commerce, and in some cases, d) reliance and e) damages in private causes of action.

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13
Q

Insider Trading Action

A

A fact will be considered material under rule 10b5 if a reasonable investor would consider it important when making an investment decision. Conduct will be considered fraudulent only on proof of scienter (intent to deceive).

One of the most common forms of fraudulent conduct under rule 10b5 arises from insider trading. The Supreme Court has held that a corporate insider who breaches a duty not to use inside information for personal benefit can be held liable under rule 10b5. Typical securities insiders such as directors, officers, controlling shareholders, and employees of the issuer are deemed to owe a duty of trust and confidence to their corporation that is breached by trading on inside information. Moreover, the Court has found that the duty is breached by trading on inside information, but also when the insider gives a tip of inside information to someone else who trades on the basis of the information fi the tip was made for an improper purpose.

Where an insider gives a tip of inside information to a frined or a relative whotrades on the basis of the inside information, the tipper can be liable under 10b5. By making a gift of confidential information to a trading friend or relative a benefit to the tipper is inferred by the relationship
[look at corporation 3]

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14
Q

Claims that shareholders can bring

A

Shareholders may bring both direct and derivative actions. Direct actions seek to redress injuries to the personal rights of the plaintiff. Derivative actions seek to redress injuries to the corporation. Generally remedies in direct actions inure to the shareholder directly. Remedies in derivative actions generally inure to the benefit of the corporation.

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15
Q

Can a shareholder argue that three directors owed them fiduciary duties?

A

Personal Claims against shareholders:
P does not have any personal claims against A,b, or E sinve none of these people owed P any duties personally. All three are directors. Directors owe their corporation fiduciary duties (as will be discussed below), but as general rule they do not owe duties to the corporation shareholders.

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16
Q

Shareholders personal action again corporation?

A

Personal Claim against Sellco:
As a general rule, shareholders are not fiduciaries of the corporation and do not owe the corporation or fellow shareholder any duties. However, many courts hold that majority shareholders have a duty to refrain from using their control to obtain a special advantage or to cause the corporation a duty to refrain from using their control to obtain a special advantage or to cause the corporation to take action that unfairly prejudices the minority shareholders.

Some courts have also held that in a close corporation (owned by only a few persons), each shareholder owed the others the same duty of loyalty and good faith as are owed by partners to each other.

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17
Q

Bringing a derivative action

A

If a shareholder believes that the corporation has been harmed, but the corporation does nothing to vindicate the harm, the shareholder may try to bring a derivative action if the following pre-requisites are satisfied: a) the shareholder bringing the action was a shareholder at the time of the act or omission complained of (or obtained his shares by operation of law from one who was), b) the shareholder makes written demand on the board to take suitable action, c) the shareholder remains a shareholder throughout the pendency of the suit, and d) the shareholder can fairly and adequately represent the interests of the corporation.

A derivative proceeding may not be brought until 90 days after the demand is made unless the shareholder is notified earlier that the corporation will not take action or irreparable injury will occur. Moreover, if a majority of directors (but at least two) who do not have a personal interest in the transaction find in good faith after reasonable inquiry that the suit is not in the corporation’s best interest, a derivative action cannot be brought. In some states, demand will be excused if it is futile (such as where the shareholder is seeking damages from the entire board). However, the Revised Model Business Corporation Act does not provide for such an exception so that the directors accused of wrongdoing have the opportunity to resolve the issue through means other than litigation.

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18
Q

Paid repairs and taxes:
We are told that B remained in charge of paying “house related bills, cost of repairs and taxes”.
Joint tenants have a right to compel contribution from other cotenants for the cost of necessary repairs, taxes and payments due on mortgages, she does not have the right to compel contribution for the cost of improvements”.

A

A’s estate may try to argue that because B was in sole possession, he should be the only one in charge for these payments. However, this argument would be unsuccessful since all joint tenants have equal access to the entire property. Therefore B will be able to ask contribution to A for the house related bills, cost of repairs and taxes”.
However, a co-tenant in sole possession will receive reimbursement only for the amount that exceeds the rental value of the property. Therefore B will be reimbursed only if he paid more that the rental value of the property.

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19
Q

Rent when there has been ouster

A

An ouster occurs if one tenant wrongfully excludes another from possession of the premises. An ousted cotenant is entitled to receive his share of the fair rental value of the property for the time he was wrongfully deprived of possession.
However, because they agreed here, there is no need for B to pay A for the rental value that T gave B.

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20
Q

Implied covenant of quiet enjoyment

A

Implied in every lease is a covenant that neither the landlord nor someone with paramount title will interfere with tenants quiet enjoyment and possession of the premises. Under the implied covenant of quiet enjoyment, the landlord cannot constructively evict the tenant. A constructive eviction occurs when a landlord caused the injury, that substantially and materially deprived the tenant of use and enjoyment of premises, the tenant gives landlord notice and reasonable time to repair and the tenant vacated the premises.

However, note that landlord has not common law duty to repair or maintain the premises, the duty must be provided for in the lease or required by statute or by the implied warranty of habitability. Therefore, if T can prove that B had to fix the toilet, then there might be constructive eviction.

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21
Q

What is a deed of trust

A

A deed of trust is a security interest in real estate, which may secure a loan represented by a promissory note. If the loan is not paid when due, the holder of the security interest amy take title to the real estate or have it sold and used the proceeds to pay the debt. In that way, a deed of trust operates similarly to a mortgage.

Deed of trust is executed differently from a mortgage. Debtor gives a deed of trust to a third party trustee (ex. lender’s lawyer). In the event of default, the lender (the beneficiary) instructs the trustee to foreclose the deed of trust by sale. Generally the sale may be either judicial as with a mortgage or nonjudicial under a power of sale clause that authorizes the trustee to advertise give appropriate notices and conduct the sale personally.

[note here the race notice statute did not actually mention beneficiaries under deeds of trust that had NO notice. “every conveyance shall be good….. or beneficiary under a deed of trust who provides valuable consideration and who interest is firstly duly recorded.” Yet here person is not a bona fide purchaser. I guess stick to the definition of race notice statute – BFP who records first wins-]

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22
Q

What are the covenants for the general warranty deed and what remedies are there?

A

A generally warranty deed is one in which the grantor covenants against title defects created by himself and all prior title holders.

When someone gives away property through a warranty deed, there are six covenants that they make. Three present covenants: seisin (met here), right to convey (met here), and no encumbrances. This is present covenant which means that the grantor is in breach if the property is encumbered when it is conveyed and a cause of action arises at that time.

This third aspect would be breached since here there was a clear easement which was not disclosed. The remedy here can be either the cost of repair or the diminished market value.

The covenant of warranty is a covenant wherein the grantor agrees to defend on behalf of the grantee any lawful or reasonable claims of title by a third party, and to compensate the grantee for any loss ustained by the claim of superiod title. This covenant generally is considered to be similar to the covenant for queit enjoyment which assures that the grantee will not be disturbed in her possession or enjoyment of the property by a third party’s lawful claim of title. The covenant for further assurances is a covenant to perform whatever acts are reasonable necessary to perfect title conveyed if it turned out to be imperfect.

Future covenants are not breached until third party interferes with possession + party claiming breach must give notice.

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23
Q

What do you say in relation to covenants?

A

A real covenant, normally found in deeds, is a written promise to do or not to do something on the land. Real covenants run with the land at law, which means that subsequent owners of the land may enforce or be burdened by the covenant.

If all requirements are met for the burden to run, the successor in interest to the burdened estate will be bound by the arrangement entered into by her predecessor as effectively as if she had herself expressly agreed to be bound.

For the burden to run with the land, a) the original parties must have intended successors to be able to enforce the covenant, b) the successor must have notice under the relevant recording act, c) horizontal privity must exist between the original covenanting parties, d) vertical privity must exist between the successor and her predecessor and e) the covenant must touch and concern the land.

Intent:
Intent can be inferred from circumstances surrounding creation of the covenant or evidenced by language in the conveyance creating the covenant.

Notice:
Under the common law, a subsequent purchaser of land subject to a covenant was burdened by the covenant whether or not she had notice. However, under modern recording statutes, a bona fide purchaser who has no notice of the covenant and who records her own deed will take free of the covenant.

Notice may be acquired through either actual notice (direct knowledge of the covenant), inquiry notice ( notice from the appearance of the neighborhood), or record notice (notice charged under the recording acts if the prior deeds are in the grantee’s chain of title

Horizontal Privity
Horizontal privity requires that at the time the promisor entered into the covenant with the promise, the two shared some interest in the land independent of the covenant. This is satisfied if they had a grantor grantee relationship.

Vertical Privity
To be bound, the successor in interest to the covenanting party must hold the entire durational interest held by the covenantor at the time she made the covenant.

Touch and Concern
A covenant touches and concerns land when it affects the legal relationship of the parties as landowners and not merely as members of the community at large.

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24
Q

what do you say in relation to equitable servitudes?

A

An equitable servitude is a covenant that regardless of whether it runs with the land at law, equity will enforce against the assignees of the burdened land who have notice of it. The usual remedy is an injunction against violation of the covenant. Generally, equitable servitudes are creates by covenants contained in a writing that satisfied SOF. As with real covenants acceptance of a deed signed only by the grantor is sufficient to bind the grantee as promisor.

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25
Q

So, what about the general scheme?

A

The issue here is whether Buyer was obligated to pay the security deposit. One such doctrine that would oblige Buyer to pay is the doctrine of a general scheme doctrine.

This doctrine a developer that intends to create an equitable servitude for ALL subdivision in the land. If this intent can be proven, then any subsequent purchaser with notice is bound by the equitable servitude. Notably there are three types of notices: actual notice, constructive notice and record notice).

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26
Q

Assignment and delegation of duties

A

Generally, all contractual rights may be assigned, and all duties delegated. However, if an assignment of rights would substantially change the obligor’s duty, the assignment will be barred. This is the case when an assignment would result in the obligor having to perform personal services for someone other than the original oblige. What constitutes personal services is determined by whether the performance so involves the personality or personal characteristics of the obligor that it would be unfair to require the obligor to perform for a third person.

Delegation of Duties:
ASI delegated its duties to MPI.

Duties generally may be delegated unless they involve personal judgement or skill, the relationship between obligor and oblige requires special trust, or performance by the delegate will materially change the obligee’s expectancy under the contract.

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27
Q

Anti-assignments cluases

A

Absent an express restriction in the lease, a tenant may freely transfer her leasehold interest in whole or in part. If she makes a complete transfer of the entire remaining term, she has made an assignment. If she retains any part of the remaining term, the transfer is a sublease. However, many leases contain covenants on the part of the tenant not to assign or sublease without the landlord’s consent. These covenants are strictly construed against the landlord. Thus a covenant prohibiting assignment does not prohibiting subleasing and vice versa

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28
Q

What do you start by saying in easements

A

The holder of an easement has the right to use a tract of law for a special purpose but has no right to possess and enjoy the trace of land.

An easement in gross is created where the holder of the easement acquires that right independent of his ownership or possession of another tract of land.
An easement by reservation arises when a landowner conveys land but reserves the right to continue to use the tract for a special purpose after the conveyance. (in effect, the grantor passes title to the land but reserves for himself an easement interest.

TRANSFER OF THE BURDEN
when a servient parcel is transferred, its new owner takes it subject to the burden of the easement unless she is a bona fide purchaser with no notice of the easement. There are three ways the person who acquires the servient land might have notice of the easement: a) actual knowledge, b) notice from the visible appearance of the easement on the land, c) notice from the fact that the document creating the easement is recorded in the public records

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29
Q

remedies for failure to pay rent

A

At common law, a breach such as failure to pay rent resulted only in a cause of action for money damages and not in a right to terminate the lease. However nearly all states have enacted an unlawful detainer statute, which permits the landlord to evict a defaulting tenant. In some states a commercial landlord who does not receive rent when due can assert a lien on the personal property found on the leased premises. Nonetheless most states statutorily prohibit forcible entry and prevent a landlord from using self-help to remove a tenant. Furthermore, some states also bar the landlord from mores subtle methods of regaining possession such as changing the locks.

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30
Q

So what do you write in relation to private and public nuisance?

A

Private and public nuisance
Private nuisance occurs when the land is invaded by intangibles such as odors or noises, that substantially and unreasonable interfere with a private individual’s use or enjoyment of her property.

In contrast, a public nuisance is an invasion by intangibles that unreasonably interfere with the health, safety, or property rights of a broad segment of the community, rather than one or a few individuals. However recovery is available for public nuisance only if a private party has suffered some unique damage not suffered by the public at large.

Substantial and unreasonable interference
Interference is substantial when it would be offensive, inconvenient, or annoying to an average person in the community, as opposed to merely the result of the plaintiff’s hypersensitivity. Interference is unreasonable when the severity of the inflicted injury outweighs the utility of the defendant’s conduct.

To make this balancing determination, courts take into account that every person is entitled to use his own land in a reasonable way, considering the neighborhood, land values, and existence of any alternative courses of conduct open to the defendant.

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31
Q

What do you say in relation to total taking

A

The Fifth Amendment to the United States Constitution, which is applicable to the states through the Due Process Clause of the 14th Amendment, provides that government shall not take private property for public use without just compensation. The Fifth Amendment limits the power by prohibiting a taking unless it is for a public purpose. The Fifth Amendment also requires payment of just compensation for the property taken.

Preserving land would surely be found to be public purpose that would allow a taking, but that does not mean that what County did actually amounted to a taking.

Physical Appropriation
The clearest cases of taking arise when the government physically appropriates a person’s property. A taking will almost always be found in such a case. This is true even where the appropriation is of only a part of a person’s property.

Regulatory taking:
A taking can also be found when a regulation affects the value or use of a person’s property. In such a case, a property owner may bring an inverse condemnation action seeking to recover just compensation for the property taken.

In an inverse condemnation proceeding, the court will first look to see if a regulation has deprived an owner of ALL economic value of the property. If so, the regulation is considered to be equivalent to a physical appropriation and the government will be required to pay just compensation.

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32
Q

What do you say in relation to partial takings?

A

Partial taking
Regulations that merely decrease the value of property (prohibit its most beneficial use) do NOT constitute a taking if they leave an economically liable use for the property. The Supreme Court would consider the economic impact of the regulation and whether the regulation substantially interferes with distinct, investment backed expectations of the claimant.

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33
Q

What do you say about delegation?

A
  • talk about standard of having enoguh details

- then talk whether the delegate acted within its scope

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34
Q

Slapdown for due process?

A

Finally, the State Driving Academy could argue that Regulation A violates the Due Process Clause. The Due Process Clause requires government action to be reasonable. What is required for reasonableness depends on the circumstances. A law affecting fundamental rights will be held to be reasonable only if it passes strict scrutiny –the government must prove that the action is necessary to achieve a compelling government interest. In all other cases, the rational basis test applies – the challenger must prove that the governmental action is not reasonably related to a legitimate government interest.

35
Q

Imposition a spending clause restriction

A

The Spending Clause of the US Constitution gives Congress the power to spend for the general welfare. The Supreme Court has held that when exercising this power, Congress generally is free to condition its grants. Moreover, the conditions that may be imposed are not limited only to those that are otherwise within Congress’s enumerated powers.

A conditions will be found to be valid if it a) it is clearly states, b) relates to the purpose of the spending program and c) is not unduly coercive.

Clearly stated: uncertain
One the one hand regulation states that states must implement “adequate” measures. On the other hand, how much is adequate.

36
Q

Free Excercise Clause

A

Free Exercise Clause:
The Free Exercise Clause provides that government shall not interfere with the free exercise of religion. A number of issues can arise under a free exercise claim: whether a religious belief or practice is involved, whether that belief or practice is sincerely held and whether the government is interfering with the religious belief.

To determine whether the government breached this clause charging C for his refusal to deploy in Country A, it must be determined a) whether there is a genuine belief, b) whether the law is generally applicable, and c) if the law was not generally applicable whether it was motivated by intent to interfere with religion.

Whether C’s belief is religious:
In determining whether this Clause was breached by government, the Court may look at whether the person actually holds those beliefs that are parallel to orthodox religious beliefs and cannot be purely political or philosophical. Notably the Court has made clear that the Free Exercise Clause does not protect only the traditional, established and organized religions.
The Free Exercise Clause prohibits the courts from determining the validity of a religious belief, and the Supreme Court has never found an asserted religious belief to be nonreligious.

Whether C’s sincerely holds his belief
While a court may not assess the validity of an asserted religious belief a court can assess the sincerity of the person asserting the belief. Naturally a belief that is not sincerely held is not protected by the Free Exercise Clause. The court would look to the same kind of factors to which it would look to determine whether a person is lying about any issue.

However, there is an important exception which has been established through case-law. If person quits job for sincere religious reason the government cannot refuse unemployment benefits.

37
Q

Law is not generally applicable and was motivated by intent to interfere with religion:

A

Strict Scrutiny Standard:
Even if C could prove that the accept any assignment policy was adopted specifically to interfere with religious practice, it might be found to be valid When governmental action interferes with a fundamental right, the action can be upheld if the government can prove that the action is necessary to achieve a compelling interest.

38
Q

Establishment Clause

A

The Lemon Test
Under the “lemon test” the government may impose a law that a) has a secular purpose, that b) whose effect must be neither to advance not to inhibit religion, c) and that is NOT have an excessive entanglement with religion.

Secular purpose:
- Arguably the law has a secular purpose since it aims to maintain order and structure in the Army

Effect must neither advance nor inhibit religion:

Must not be excessive entanglement with religion:
Little information showing that the practice of deployment soldiers exceedingly interferes with people’s religious practices.

Strict Scrutiny:
Note that on the other hand if the law had a religious opt-out provision, such a provision might cause excessive entanglements while government agents try to sort through whether a person’s religious belief requires the person to refuse to deploy (ex. the government might have to ask the person’s priest, rabbi, minister etc.) for an official explanation of objections to specific deployments.

39
Q

Duty of Loyalty and Conflict of Interest (PR)

A

Under the ABA Rules, a lawyer may still undertake the representation if: a) the lawyer reasonably believes that she can competently and diligently represent each affected client despite the conflict, b) the representation is not prohibited by law, c) the representation does not involve asserting a claim by one client against another client represented by the lawyer in the same proceedings and d) each affected client gives informed consent, confirmed in writing. The California Rule is the same, except that it requires “informed written consent” (that is both the lawyer’s disclosure of the conflict and the client’s consent must be in writing).

The California Rules include additional provisions regarding a lawyer’s personal relationship. If a lawyer has a personal, legal business, financial or professional relationship with a party or witness in the client’s matter, the lawyer must provide written disclosure to the client even if there is no significant risk that the relationship would materially limit the representation. If there is a significant risk of material limitation, the usual informed written consent is required.

40
Q

Conflict of interest based on personal interest

A

There is also a significant rusk that Anne’s representation of Hap and F will be material limited by Anne’s prior professional relationship with Owen. Her loyalty to Owen may be stronger because she represented him before and given how he is the wealthiest member.

Thus if Anne did proceed with the representation despite the conflict posed by the joint representation she also would be required to obtain F and F’s informed consent regarding the conflict relating to her work as O’s tax lawyer. Even if her professional relationship with O would not materially limit her representation of the others, the California Rules would still require Anne to provide F and H with written disclosure of the relationship. Anne did NOT obtain informed consent from F and H nor provide them with written disclosure, A violated AVA and California Rules.

41
Q

Accepting compensation from third people

A

Under the ABA Rules, a lawyer must not accept compensation for representing. A client from someone other than the client unless, a) the client gives informed consent, b) there is no interference with the lawyer’s independence of professional judgement or with the lawyer-client relationship and c) information relating to the representation of a client remains confidential. CA further requires that the client’s informed consent to be in writing.

42
Q

What do you say in relation to fee agreements (PR)

A

CA requires a written fee agreement if the fee will exceed 1000 except in the following situations: a) the client is a corporation, b) the client states in writing that she does not want a written fee agreement, c) the legal services are the same kind of services that the client has previously received and paid for, d) the lawyer acted in an emergency to protect the client’s rights, or e) a writing is impractical for other reasons. The ABA Rules do not requires a noncontingent fee agreement to be in writing although it is recommended.

43
Q

Duty of competency to handle the matter

A

In representing a client, the ABA Rules provide that a lawyer must act competently, that is , with the legal knowledge, skill, thoroughness and preparation reasonably necessary for the representation. A lawyer may become competent in a certain field though adequate preparation. In CA, a lawyer is subject to discipline if she intentionally, recklessly, with gross negligence, or repeatedly fails to perform legal services with competence

Here:

  • She is a tax lawyer and it is unclear whether she would be competent for a tort case
  • If not she would have to educate herself. If she does not do that, she also breached the duty of competence.
44
Q

Conflict of interest

A

A lawyer owed his client a duty of loyalty and must avoid conflicts of interests. A lawyer generally must not represent a client when there is a significant risk that the representation will be materially limited by the lawyer’s personal interests.

Under the ABA Rules, a lawyer may still undertake the representation if: a) the lawyer reasonably believes that he can competently and diligently represent each affected client despite the conflict, b) the representation is not prohibited by law, c) the representation does not involve asserting a claim by one client against another client represented by the lawyer in the same proceeding, and d) each affected client gives informed consent, confirmed in writing. The California Rule is the same, except that it requires “informed written consent” (that is, both the lawyer’s disclosure of the conflict and the client’s consent must be in writing).

The California Rules include additional provisions regarding a lawyer’s personal relationship. If a lawyer has a personal, legal, business, financial, or professional relationship with a party or witness in the client’s matter, the lawyer must provide written disclosure to the client even if there is no significant risk that the relationship would materially limit the representation. If there is a significant risk of material limitation, the usual informed written consent is required.]

45
Q

Can a lawyer be part of another organization affecting clients interests?

A

According to the ABA rules a lawyer may be part of an organization that conducts advocacy whose interests might be misaligned with the client as long as the attorney is not involved in the decision making themselves.

46
Q

Failure to report an ethical violation?

A

Under the ABA Rules, a lawyer who knows that another lawyer has committed a violation of the Rules that raises a substantial question as to that lawyer’s honesty, trustworthiness, or fitness as lawyer in other respects must inform the appropriate professional authority. There is no corresponding CA rule

47
Q

Providing financial assistance to clients

A

The ABA Rule prohibit a lawyer from providing financial assistance to a client in connection with pending or contemplated litigation, except that: a) a lawyer may advance court costs and expenses of litigation, the repayment of which may be contingent on the outcome of the matter, and b) a lawyer representing an indigent client may pay the client’s court costs and expenses outright.

The CA rule is mode detailed: a) it applies in all contexts, not just litigation, b) it prohibits a lawyer from “buying” a potential client with a promise to pay the potential client’s personal or business debts, and c) it provides that after the lawyer is hired he may lend the client money for any purpose if the client gives him a written promise to repay the loan

48
Q

Duty to keep client reasonably informed

A

a lawyer must keep a client reasonably informed about the status of a matter and promptly comply with reasonable requests for information. The lawyer also must explain a matter to the extent reasonably necessary to permit the client to make informed decisions regarding the representation. Furthermore, the CA Rules specifically provide that a lawyer must obtain a client ‘s consent before agreeing to pay the client’s expenses to third persons from funds collected or to be collected for the client as a result of the representation.]

49
Q

What must a contingent fee agreement?

A

Any contingent fee agreement must indicate litigation and other expenses to be deducted from the recovery and whether such expenses are to be deducted before or after the contingent fee is calculated.

50
Q

If there is a lot of disparity what ethical duty could you have breached?

A

Duty of competence.

The ABA Rules provide that a lawyer must provide competent representation. Competent representation requires that legal knowledge, skill, thoroughness, and preparation reasonably necessary for the representation. In California, a lawyer is subject to discipline only if he intentionally , recklessly, with gross negligence, or repeatedly fails to perform legal services with competence.

51
Q

Can a lawyer just stop providing services until he has been paid for?

A

Under the ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct and under the California Rules of Professional Conduct (CA rules) a lawyer has a duty to. Act on behlf of a client with reasonable diligence and promptness and must see the matter through to completion. However, the lawyer may withdraw from the case if the client fails substantially to fulfill an obligation to the lawyer regarding the lawyer’s services (eg. Failing to pay legal fees) and has been given reasonable warning that the lawyer will withdraw unless the obligation is fulfilled.

[application from PR 4]
Here:
- A will argue that W did not meet her obligation of paying 5000
- However A was not really trying to withdraw given how later on he refused to do so
o Therefore merely attempting to force W to pay her bills/
- A should have given her reasonable notice that he had no choice but to withdraw and urged her to seek other counsel. If she refused to meet her obligation, he could then file a motion to withdraw.

52
Q

Can a lawyer acquire a property interest in the cause of action he or she is involved?

A

Under the ABA Rules a lawyer must not acquire a proprietary interest in the cause of action or subject matter of litigation the lawyer is conducting for a client. There is no equivalent California Rule.

53
Q

When is it not ok to have a contingency fee agreement?

A

As stated above, a lawyer may contract with the client for a reasonable contingent fee in a civil case. However, a lawyer is subject to discipline for using a contingent fee in a domestic relations case where the contingency is the securing of a divorce or the amount of the property settlement

54
Q

Fair fees in ABA and CEC?

A

the ABA Rules state that an attorney’s fee must be reasonable. Many factors are considered in determining the reasonableness of a fee, including: the time and labor required, the novelty and difficulty of the question involved, the skill required the legal service, and the experience, ability, and reputation of the attorney. The CA Rules similarly prohibit “unconscionable” fees.]

55
Q

I know I already put it, but here is some stuff on duty of confidentiality and duty conflict of interest [since they like aways come up]

A

A lawyer who formerly represented a client in a matter may not thereafter represent another person in the same or a substantially related matter if that person’s interest are materially adverse to those of the former client unless the former client gives informed consent confirmed in writing.

Two matters are “substantially related” if they involve the same transaction or legal dispute, or if there is a substantial risk that confidential factual information that would have normally been obtained in the prior representation would materially advance the client’s position in the subsequent matter.

Furthermore, a lawyer who formerly represented a client in a matter must not use information relating ot the representation to the former client’s disadvantage except as permitted or required by the RPC or when the information has become generally known, and must not reveal information relating to the representation except as permitted or required by the RPC.

56
Q

What is an acceptance:

A

An acceptance is a manifestation of assent to the terms of the offer

the common law requires unequivocal acceptance of every term of the offer (mirror image rule) any different or additional terms in the acceptance make the response a rejection and counteroffer (NOT UCC)

57
Q

What do you say for breach?

A

If a promisor is under an absolute duty to perform that has not been discharged, failure to perform in accordance with the contract terms is a breach of contract.

The nonbreaching party must show that he is willing and able to perform but for the breaching party’s failure to perform

if the ofligee has not received the substantial benefit of his bargain, the breach is considered material

if the breach is material the nonbreaching party may treat the contract as at an end and may sue immediately for remedies for breach.

58
Q

What do you need for a modification at common law?

A

A modification of a common law contract must be a) agreed to both parties and b) supported by consideration

59
Q

How do you satisfy SOF for real estate contract? (NOT UCC?)

A

Agreement within the SOG include promises that by their terms cannot be completed within one year and agreements concerning an interest in land

There must be one or more writing signed by the party to be bound

The writing must evidence that there is a contract and state the essential terms with reasonable certainty

Which terms are essential depends on the circumstances including the nature of the dispute between the partes

In the case of a land sale contract, a description of the land the parties and the price are required

If the writing does not include the essential terms ti does not satisfy the SOF and extrinsic evidence cannor be submitted to supply the missing terms.

NOTE: full performance of a contract that cannot be operfirned within one year will usually take the contract out of SOF

There is also an exception for part performance of l;and sale contract if i) the performance unequivocally indicates a contract for the sale of land and ii) two of the following are present: payment (in whole or part) possession and valuable improvements

60
Q

Where does estoppel apply?

A

If a defendant’s conduct or promise foreseably induces a plaintiff to change position in reliance on an oral agreement courts may use the doctrine of estoppel to remove the contract completely from the SOF

equitable estopeel is also available when there has been fraudulent misrepresentation, b) A fraudulent misrepresentation requires that, at the time the statement was mad,e the speaker intended to induce the other party to enter the agreement and knew the assertion was untrue.

61
Q

Damages for breach by an employer of an employment contract

A

For breach by an employer of an employment contract, the standard measure for the meployee’s damages is the full contract price.

The standard measure of damages for breach of a land sale contract is the difference between the contract price and the fair market value of land.

A nonbreaching party cannot recover avoidable damages.

62
Q

Is there a 6th Amendment right to have counsel for a photo identification?

A

NOPE

63
Q

Due Process and formal lineups (apply them also for informal lineups although likely not going to work)

A

A lineup or showup violates due process when the identification is

i) unnecessarily suggestive and
ii) there is a substantial likelihood of misidentification
iii) the identification must be shown to have been extremely suggestive

Although remember that despite an illegal lineup a witness may make an in court identification if the identification has an independent source.

64
Q

W said something in court in his case but not while being a witness. Is that hearsay?

A

YUP still hearsay since it was not made by a witness testifying on the stand at the current trial.

65
Q

So, second degree murder

A

i) second degree murder is generally defined as all murders that do not fit into the definition of first degree murder and is similar to common law murder, ii) conno law murder is the unlawgul killing of a human being with malice aforethought

Malice aforethought exists where the defendant has any of the following states of mind, i) intent to kill, ii) intent to commit great bodily harm, iii) reckless indifference to an unjustifiable high risk of human life or iv) intent to commit a felony.

Second degree murder is one in which the defendant ahs the intent to kill (but with no premeditation or deliberation), the intent to commit great bodily harm, a reckless indifference to an unjustifiable high risk to human life, or the intent to commit an unenumerated felony that is inherently dangerous (BARRK)

66
Q

M’Naghten Rule

A

Under the traditional M rule an accused is entitled to an acquittal i the proof establishes that a disease of the mind caused a defect of reason such that the defendant lacked the ability at the time of his actions to either know the wrongfulness of his actions or understand the nature and quality of his actions

67
Q

Irrestibility Impulse Test

A

D entitled to acquittal if he can show that he was unable to control his impulse to kill V or to conform his conduct to the law

68
Q

American Law INstitute Test

A

Holds that D is entitle dto an acquittal if the proof shows he suffered from a mental disease or defect and as a result lacked substantial capacity to either appreciate the criminality of his conduct or conform his conduct to the requirements of the law

69
Q

Diminished capacity

A

D could also raise the partial defense of diminished capacity which holds that mental illness short of insanity may be asserted to a specific intent crime to mitigate the accused’s culpability or reduce the charge to a lesser offense

70
Q

Damages where a buyer sues a seller for breach of a land sale contract

A

Where a buyer sues a seller for breach of a land sale contract, damages are measured either by ii) out of pocket loss or ii) the benefit of the bargain (the difference between the contract price and the fair market value of the land).

71
Q

When do you give rescission

A

i) rescission allows a plaintiff to wipe out the contract and restore the status quo prior to the contract so long as the defendant does to have any legitimate edefneses oo_ both gradulent misrepresentation and iii) innocent misrepresentation are grounds for rescission if misrepresentation occurred at or before the time the contract was entered into
i) if the defendant makes a fraudulent misrepresentation the plaintiff has the option of either rescinding the contract and seeking restitution for any unfair benefit the defendant received or affirming the contract and seeking damages, ii) a fraudulent misrepresentation is the misrepresentation of a material fact part or present, made with knowledge of falsity and with the intent to deceive upon which the plaintiff actually relies
i) where the defendant makes an innocent misrepresentation the contract can only be rescinded, ii) an innocent misrepresentation occurs when the defendant honestly and in good faith asserts a material fact that is not true and the plaintiff actually relies on it

72
Q

Contract, election of remedies

A

i) under the defense of election of remedies the general rule is that the remedy of damages for fraud and that of rescission of the contract based on fraud are inconsistent since any election to seek damages in effect affirms the existence of the contract whereas the rescission suit seeks to have the contract set aside, ii)if the plaintiff first seeks to rescind the contract that action is not a bar to a subsequent suit for damages, but, iii) if the plaintiff even files a suit for damages, it is an affirmance of the contract and a bar to any later suit for rescission.

73
Q

Let’s talk First Amendment freedom of speech

A

The First Amendment guarantees the freedom of speech. Generally, the government may regulate the content of speech if the regulation is necessary to achieve a compelling state interest. The government may regulate the conduct of speech the time, place and manner in which speech may take place.

PUBLIC FORUM are government properties historicallyopen for speech activities such as sidewalks and public parks.

DESIGNATED PUBLIC FORUM are government propertiesnot historically open for speech activities but which the government has thrown open for such activities generally.

  • Test: in public forums and designated public forums, TPM regulations must, a) be content neutral, b) be narrowly tailored to achieve an important government interest, and iii)leave open alternative channels of communication.’
  • A regulation is content neutral if it is subject matter neutral.
  • A regulation is narrowly tailored if it does not burden substantially more speech than is necessary to achieve an important government interest.
  • the regulation need not be the least restrictive means for achieving the government’ goal.
  • A regulation will be deemed to leave open alternative channels of communication if other reasonable means for communicating the idea are available.

LIMITED PUBLIC FORUMS are government properties not historically open for speech activities but which the government has opened for a particular purpose

NONPUBLIC FORUMS are government properties not historically open for speech activities and not held open for speech activities in any way
- Test: in limited public forums and nonpublic forums, TPM regulations must be i) viewpoint neutral, and b) reasonably related to a legitimate government purpose

NOTE: bus stations are not traditional public forums

74
Q

Government’s regulation of commercial speech

A

In determining the validity of a regulation of commercial speech, the Court first determines whether the speech concerns a lawful activity and is not misleading or fraudulent.
If the speech clears this hurdle it may be limited by a regulation that: a) serves a substantial government interest, ii) directly advances that interest, and iii) is narrowly tailored to achieve that interest.

The mere fact that money is involved does not make the speech commercial.

75
Q

Association rights

A

There is no clera test for determining whether the freedom of association has bene violated. Groups are generally held to have a right to limit their memberships as they see fit.
[sure there is more to it]

76
Q

Rules of Standing

A

A federal court will not hear a case unless the party bringing the suit has standing.

To have standing a litigant must have a concrete stake in the outcome of the controversy.

A litigant will have a concrete stake if the litigant can show, i) that it has suffered an injury in fact, ii) that is caused by the conduct complained of and iii) that can be remedied by a decision in the litigant’s favor

i) the injury must be specific and more than theoretical, ii) but it need not be economic

An organization will have standing to challenge government action that injures the organization itself

An organization will also have standing to challenge government action that causes injury to its members if the organization can show, i) an inury to individual members that would give the individuals a right to sue on their own behalf, ii) that the injury is related to the organization’s purpose, and iii) that netierh the nature of the claim nor the relief requested requires participation of the individual members in the lawsuit.

Usually injuries in fact involve a violation of a common law right a constitutional right or a statutory right.

77
Q

Dorment Commerce Clause

A

When no federal law is on point, state laws that discriminate against interstate commerce will usually be held to violate the negative implications of the Commerice Clause unless the state can prove that the laws are necessary to achieve an important state interest. State laws that do not discriminate against interstate commerce will be upheld unless they unduly burden interstate commerce. In determining whether there is an undue burden on interstate commerce the court will balance the legitimate (nondiscriminatory) state interest against the burden placed on interstate commerce.
Court may consider whether there are less restrictive means to accomplish the state’s goals and whether the state law conflicts with other state laws.

78
Q

Supremacy Clause

A

The Supremacy Clause makes federal law the supreme law of the land.

Under the Supremacy Clause state laws can be preempted by federal law expressly or impliedly.

There are three ways a federal law may impliedly preempt a state law: i) conflict preemption (i.e. where a state law conflicts with the requirements of a valid federal law), ii) object preemption (where a state law interferes with the objective of a valid federal law), and iii) field preemption )i.e. where Congress has evidenced an intent to occupy the entire field over which it has power).

In fields traditionally within the power of the states - such as health, safety, and welfare - there is a presumption that preemption was not intended unless preemption was the clear an dmanigest purpose of COngress.

79
Q

Lapse and anti-lapse

A

i) if a trust fails for lack of a beneficiary a resulting trust arises in favor of the settlor or his successors, ii) the trustee’s only duty is to convey title back to the settlro or his estate

ANTI-LAPSE: i) kaosed gifts may be saved by anti-lapse statute, which provides that the issue of the beneficiary who predecased the testator take in her place, ii)California’s anti-lapse statute applies only if the predeceased beneficiary was kindred (a bloof relative) of the settlor or kindred of the settlor’s surviving, deceased,, or former spouse or domestic partner.

80
Q

Intergration, Accts of independent significance and incorporation by reference

A

INTERGRATION:
i) a will consists of all papers actually present at the time of execution that the testator intended to constitute his will, ii) extrinsic evidence is admissible to show the requisite presence and intent

ACTS OF INDEPENDENT SIGNIFICANCE
A will may dispose of property by referee to acts that have significance apart from their effect on the will.

INCORPORATION BY REFERENCE
If a writing is: i) in existence at the will’s execution, ii) sufficiently described in the will, and iii) proved to be the writing described in the will courts, will infer that the testator intended to incorporate the writing into his will,.

81
Q

Authentication of a telephone call

A
  • Statements made during a telephone call may be authenticated by testimony as to one of the following a) the listener recognizes the speaker’s voice, b) the speaker has knowledge of certain facts that only a particular person would have or c) the speaker has identified himself.
82
Q

Impeachment of a hearsay declarant

A

Vic is deceased and therefore unavailable to testify. However, a party may impeach a hearsay declarant as if he testified as a witness at trial. The CEC provides that a witness may be impeached with a felony conviction subject to three qualifications: a) the conviction has not been expunged nor the witness pardoned, b) the felony must involve moral turpitude and c) the conviction impeachment value is not substantially outweighed by its dangers.

83
Q

Authenticating a paper written by helper from mechanic

A
  • Additionally the authenticity of the record must be established for this exception to apply. The usual method of authentication is to have the custodian or other qualified witness testify to the identity of the record and the mode of its preparation. (Also under the FRE the record will be self-authenticating if the custodian or other qualified person certifies in writing that the record meets the requirements of the business records exception).
84
Q

Can you admit both a business record as well as what is inside

A

 A writing that is made as a memorandum or record of an act is admissible in evidence as proof of that act if it was made in the regular course of business and if it was the regular course of such busine ss to take it at the time of the act or within a reasonable time thereafter.
 TO fall within this exception, statements within the business record must consist of matters within the personal knowledge of either the recorder or of someone with a business duty to transmit the matters to the record. Thus the record’ contents do not have to be within the personal knowledge of the recorder if both the recorder and the transmitter of the record’s contents are employees of the same business. If this personal knowledge requirement is met both the record itself and the recorded statements therein are enveloped within the business records exception.