ESAME ERASMUS Flashcards
The incidence of head and neck cancers in recent years:
a) It increased
b) It decreased
c) It did not change significantly
c) It did not change significantly
The five year survival of patients with papillary thyroid cancer is:
a) comparable to the survival of patients with cutaneous melanoma
b) significantly better than the survival of patients with cutaneous melanoma
c) significantly worse than the survival of patients with cutaneous melanoma
d) due to the small number of patients, it cannot be assessed
a) comparable to the survival of patients with cutaneous melanoma
Standard treatment for patients with glioblastoma is:
a) surgery, radiochemotherapy with temozolomide and adjuvant therapy with temozolomide
b) surgery with radiotherapy and adjuvant POV therapy
c) radiochemotherapy with temozolomide and bevacizumab and adjuvant therapy with temozolomide
d) radiochemotherapy with temozolomide and adiuvant therapy with temozolomide
a) surgery, radiochemotherapy with temozolomide and adjuvant therapy with temozolomide
In modern times extensive local resection or excision means:
a) Remove the tumour according to the principle of “no touch” technique
b) Remove only the tumour, with healthy tissue sparing
c) Remove part of the tumour, with a strip of healthy tissue
d) Remove the tumour with as much healthy tissue as possible
a) Remove the tumour according to the principle of “no touch” technique
Which of the following statements is false?
a) In case of severe adverse event the anti-cancer drug has to be discontinued and supportive therapy initiated
b) Severe adverse events to anti-cancer drugs are observed frequently
c) In case of severe adverse event the dosage of anti-cancer drug has to be modified if the treatment continues after resolution of adverse event
d) In case of severe adverse event the treatment with anti-cancer drugs has to be permanently discontinued
d) In case of severe adverse event the treatment with anti-cancer drugs has to be permanently discontinued
The characteristics of initial (T1N0M0) vocal cord cancer are:
a) Systemic drugs are an important component of treatment
b) High probability of micro metastases in regional lymph nodes
c) Shortness of breath
d) Hoarseness
e) Early lung metastases
d) Hoarseness
What does not apply to ionizing radiation:
a) Fractionation increases the therapeutic index between effects on tumor and normal tissue.
b) Hypoxia reduces the possibility of cell damage by ionizing radiation.
c) In X-ray irradiation the predominant DNA damage is indirect.
d) Rapidly dividing nerve cells are highly sensitive to ionizing radiation
d) Rapidly dividing nerve cells are highly sensitive to ionizing radiation
Risk of developing secondary malignant neoplasm 20 years after the diagnosis of primary cancer:
a) is less than twice the risk of cancer in human in the general population
b) is at least 20 higher than the risk of cancer in humans in the general population
c) is approximately equal to the risk of developing cancer in humans in the general population
d) is about 3 to 10 times higher compared to the risk of cancer in humans in the general population
d) is about 3 to 10 times higher compared to the risk of cancer in humans in the general population
For systemic treatment for GIST we use:
a) inhibitors of angiogenesis
b) monoclonal antibodies
c) tyrozin kynase inhibitors
d) chemotherapy
c) tyrozin kynase inhibitors
The most common histological subtype of lymphoma is:
a) Burkitt lymphoma
b) peripheral T cell lymphoma, not otherwise specified
c) fungoid mycosis
d) diffuse large cell B lymphoma, not otherwise specified
d) diffuse large cell B lymphoma, not otherwise specified
A cytopathological examination can identify:
a) the relationship between the neoplasm and surrounding healthy tissue
b) biological potential of the neoplasm (benign, malignant)
c) lymph node capsule overgrowth
d) whether resection of the neoplasm was margin-negative
b) biological potential of the neoplasm (benign, malignant)
In childhood (choose the correct answer):
a) Approximately 30% of cancer cases are carcinomas.
b) Carcinomas are the most common type of cancer.
c) Leukaemia is the most common type of cancer.
c) Leukaemia is the most common type of cancer.
Stage IV or metastatic cancer is rarely curable, except in patients who have:
a) If patients are treated aggressively
b) Malignant melanoma, kidney cancer
c) Lymphoma; testicular cancer; oligometastatic form of the disease
d) Breast cancer, colorectal cancer
c) Lymphoma; testicular cancer; oligometastatic form of the disease
Most thyroid cancers are detected:
a) at random ultrasound examination of the neck
b) because of dysphonia
c) with palpable metastases in the cervical lymph nodes
d) because of dysphagia
a) at random ultrasound examination of the neck
Basic work up in patients with cancer of unknown primary includes:
a) Comprehensive history, detailed clinical examination, basic laboratory tests including tumor markers, urinary analyses, thoracic and abdominal CT scan, mammogram in women
b) Basic laboratory tests, chest X-ray and abdominal US, mammogram in women
c) CT scan of chest and abdomen, bone scan, basic laboratory tests including tumor markers
d) Comprehensive history, detailed clinical examination, basic laboratory tests, urinary analyses, chest X-ray and abdominal US
a) Comprehensive history, detailed clinical examination, basic laboratory tests including tumor markers, urinary analyses, thoracic and abdominal CT scan, mammogram in women
Before surgery of soft tissue sarcomas we must perform:
a) CT
b) MRI
c) X-ray
d) Ultrasound
b) MRI
What Is not an early or late side effect of treatment with adjuvant chemotherapy in women with breast cancer?
a) febrile neutropenia
b) infertility
c) alopecia
d) hypothyrodism
e) myelodysplastic syndrome
d o b
“Gli effetti collaterali acuti più comuni durante il trattamento chemioterapico sono perdita di capelli (alopecia), nausea e vomito, affaticamento, infiammazione della mucosa orale e intestinale (mucosite), comparsa di febbre con diminuzione dei granulociti neutrofili (neutropenia febbrile), pelle e alterazioni delle unghie e neuropatia sensoriale. Gravi complicanze tardive associate ai citostatici delle antracicline sono il danno miocardico, la sindrome mielodisplastica o la leucemia leucoblastica acuta e si verificano molto raramente. La complicanza tardiva più comune del trattamento con questi xan citostatici è la neuropatia sensoriale.”
In phase III clinical trial:
a) We only evaluate the side effects of the treatment.
b) We evaluate the effectiveness of the new treatment and at the same time carefully monitor its side effects.
c) We compare effectiveness and toxicity of the standard treatment and the experimental treatment with random selection of patients.
d) We determine the maximum tolerated dose of drugs or radiation or combination therapy
c) We compare effectiveness and toxicity of the standard treatment and the experimental treatment with random selection of patients.
Which statement about mammography is incorrect?
a) The images are taken in two projections
b) It is the only method to show microcalcifications
c) The radiation dose is comparable to 2 weeks of natural background radiation
d) It distinguishes well between solid and cystic changes
d) It distinguishes well between solid and cystic changes
The signs of hypercalcaemia are:
a) thirst, diarrhoea, shortness of breath, abdominal pain
b) thirst, increased urination, vomiting, constipation, disturbances of consciousness
c) diarrhoea, vomiting, headache, increased urine output
d) thirst, hunger, vomiting, abdominal pain, headache, disturbances of consciousness
b) thirst, increased urination, vomiting, constipation, disturbances of consciousness
Indicate the incorrect statement:
a) Palliative medicine is only part of palliative care and is provided by a physician
b) Palliative care includes palliative medicine, palliative treatment as well as other parts of the entire treatment of terminally ill patients
c) Palliative care is a form of euthanasia, which is also allowed in some EU countries
d) Palliative care is a part of care provided by nursing staff
c) Palliative care is a form of euthanasia, which is also allowed in some EU countries
Which cell is the cell of origin of GIST?
a) Schwann cell
b) Merckel cell
c) Cajal cell
c) Cajal cell
What does not apply to HPV-induced squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx:
a) The probability of its occurrence depends on the number of sexual partners.
b) It occurs in younger patients.
c) Most patients are treated with primary (chemo) radiotherapy.
d) The prognosis in these patients is worse than in patients with smoking/alcohol-induced cancers of the same area
e) It is a disease of non-smokers.
d) The prognosis in these patients is worse than in patients with smoking/alcohol-induced cancers of the same area
Choose the correct answer that applies to stochastic effects of radiation.
a) Stochastic effects are never passed on to offspring.
b) Stochastic effects occur with a shorter latent period than deterministic radiation effects.
c) Stochastic effects of whole-body irradiation are manifested by the development of cerebrovascular syndrome.
d) The relationship between the probability of mutation and radiation dose can be described by the sigmoid curve.
e) Stochastic effects of radiation are due to mutations in the DNA molecule that lead to malignant transformation of damaged cells.
e) Stochastic effects of radiation are due to mutations in the DNA molecule that lead to malignant transformation of damaged cells.
Mortality of lung cancer worldwide is ranked:
a) Second
b) Third
c) First
d) Fifth
c) First
To classify lymphoma according to the WHO classification:
a) Core needle biopsy of a node is sufficient.
b) An excision biopsy of a lymph node, which is examined by an experienced pathologist is mandatory
c) Fine needle aspiration biopsy of a node is sufficient.
d) Clinical diagnosis is sufficient.
b) An excision biopsy of a lymph node, which is examined by an experienced pathologist is mandatory
Tumour marker in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is:
a) Ca 15-3
b) Ca 125
c) beta HCG
d) alpha fetoprotein
d) alpha fetoprotein
With oncological treatment we can achieve:
a) Cure
b) Cure; prolonging survival until disease recurrence or progression; reduction of the symptoms of disease; we can improve the quality of life
c) Cure; prolonging survival until disease recurrence or progression
d) Cure; prolonging survival until disease recurrence or progression; we can reduction of the symptoms of disease
b) Cure; prolonging survival until disease recurrence or progression; reduction of the symptoms of disease; we can improve the quality of life
Which of the following statement is incorrect about breast ultrasound?
a) Ultrasound is suitable for examination of dense areas of the breast
b) Ultrasound is not the best method to show microcalcifications
c) Ultrasound distinguishes between solid and cystic changes
d) Ultrasound is suitable for examining fatty tissue of the breast
d) Ultrasound is suitable for examining fatty tissue of the breast
What is the most common histologic subtype of bladder cancer?
a) Small cell carcinoma
b) Sarcoma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Urothelial carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Urothelial carcinoma
People whose relatives have been diagnosed with colorectal cancer (CRC) have:
a) 2x higher risk of CRC
b) the same risk for CRC
c) 10x higher risk of CRC
d) 100x higher risk of CRC
a) 2x higher risk of CRC
A small proportion of patients with cancer of unknown primary have favorable prognosis. Which of the following is not included in the favorable prognostic group?
a) Patients with lymphomas and germ cell tumors
b) Men with lung and supraclavicular metastases
c) Women with axillary lymphadenopathy
d) Patients with actionable mutation identified in tumor cells
b) Men with lung and supraclavicular metastases
Find the correct statement about dyspnoea in cancer patients:
a) Dyspnoea is an objective feeling of shortness of breath.
b) Non-pharmacological approaches in the treatment of dyspnoea have no effect in relieving the feeling of shortness of breath.
c) When identifying an irreversible cause of dyspnoea in a cancer patient, morphine is an effective drug to reduce the sensation of respiratory difficulty.
d) The causes of dyspnoea in cancer patients are always irreversible.
c) When identifying an irreversible cause of dyspnoea in a cancer patient, morphine is an effective drug to reduce the sensation of respiratory difficulty.
Preoperative radiochemotherapy for rectal cancer can achieve: 1) reduction of the tumor stage; 2) higher rate of RO resections; 3) better local control; 4) more sphincter preservation; 5) less sexual dysfunction.
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2,3,4,5
c) 1,2,3,4
d) 2,3,4,5
c) 1,2,3,4
(non sicura)
“Chemotherapy advantages: tumor gets smaller, sparing of the sphincter, WORSE sexual function because of fibrosis. Nella domanda fatta in classe c’erano solo due risposte giuste ma direi che a seconda delle opzioni che ci sono si dovrebbe capire.”
How does the burden of cancer change over time and why?
a) The burden of cancer is increasing all the time, as more and more cases are discovered.
b) The burden of cancer is increasing, mainly due to the aging population.
c) The burden of cancer is decreasing, mainly due to the reduction of risk factors, that most influence the development of cancer.
d) The burden of cancer is stable, due to technological and medical advances.
b) The burden of cancer is increasing, mainly due to the aging population.
Diagnostic category of atypia means:
a) most likely non-neoplastic changes or benign neoplasms with mild cellular and nuclear atypia
b) specific oncological treatment is required
c) the pathological process cannot be identified because there are no cells in the sample or there are too few to make a diagnosis.
d) most likely a malignant neoplasm
a) most likely non-neoplastic changes or benign neoplasms with mild cellular and nuclear atypia
Decreased growth of the child after cancer treatment:
a) is only due to reduced secretion of growth hormone
b) is not the result of radiation therapy
c) is only due to chemotherapy
d) It can be caused by several causes - reduced secretion of growth hormone, radiation of the spine during growth, premature puberty and / or intensive systemic treatment
d) It can be caused by several causes - reduced secretion of growth hormone, radiation of the spine during growth, premature puberty and / or intensive systemic treatment
The purpose of surgical treatment of primary brain tumors is:
a) only obtaining a biopsy sample
b) obtaining a biopsy sample, alleviating symptoms, and in some cases cure
c) only alleviation of symptoms caused by tumor mass
d) always the cure
b) obtaining a biopsy sample, alleviating symptoms, and in some cases cure
Indicate the incorrect statement about pain in cancer patients:
a) Pain in cancer patients is usually combined - chronic with occasional breakthrough peak episodes.
b) Normal pain is assessed with a visual analog scale of 0-7.
c) In the treatment of pain, we follow the three-step WHO scale.
d) The most common causes of pain in cancer patients are tumour growth in bones, hollow organs, nerves and nerve roots, the pressure of the cancer on surrounding tissue, pathological fractures, inflammation, or a combination of several causes.
b) Normal pain is assessed with a visual analog scale of 0-7.
(0-10)
Which cancers are among those with prognostically poor survival?
a) Skin melanoma, lung cancer, colon and rectal cancer, prostate cancer.
b) Testicular cancer, prostate cancer, head and neck cancer.
c) Breast cancer, liver cancer, lung cancer.
d) Cancers of the esophagus, pancreas, liver, lungs, stomach.
d) Cancers of the esophagus, pancreas, liver, lungs, stomach.
The purpose of genetic counselling in oncologic patients is:
a) all the answers are correct
b) to estimate the likelihood of a hereditary cancer syndrome in the family
c) to estimate cancer risks based on the results of genetic testing
d) to inform the patients of the benefits and limitations of genetic testing
a) all the answers are correct
Acute side effects of radiotherapy:
a) They appear immediately after the completion of radiotherapy and last from 6 to 12 months
b) They develop immediately after receiving the first fraction of radiation, especially in tissues with slow regeneration
c) They develop soon after the start of radiotherapy and usually resolve after the end of treatment
d) They develop in rapidly regenerating tissues and resolve immediately after cessation of radiotherapy
e) They appear immediately after the completion of radiotherapy in rapidly regenerating tissues
c) They develop soon after the start of radiotherapy and usually resolve after the end of treatment
Adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus usually occurs
a) In the middle third of the oosophagun
b) Anywhere in the esophagus
c) In the upper third of the oesophagus
d) In the lower third of the esophagus
d) In the lower third of the esophagus
Klatskin’s tumor is
a) none of the above
b) extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma
c) intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma
d) intra- and extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma
b) extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma
Which statement related to metastatic breast cancer is correct?
a) Metastatic breast cancer can be cured with chemotherapy.
b) Systemic treatment is a cornerstone of treatment of metastatic breast cancer.
c) Radiation therapy should never be used in metastatic breast cancer.
d) Metastases in visceral organs should be treated with surgery.
e) Median survival of women with metastatic breast cancer is approximately 2 years.
b) Systemic treatment is a cornerstone of treatment of metastatic breast cancer.
In squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus, paraneoplastic syndrome may occur and is manifested as:
a) thrombocytopenia
b) syndrome of inadequate ADH secretion
c) B-symptoms
d) hypercalcaemia
d) hypercalcaemia
Which are the most frequently observed adverse events of targeted anti-cancer drugs?
a) Allergic reactions and skin toxicity
b) Skin toxicity and diarrhoea
c) Febrile neutropenia and diarrhoea
d) Nausea/emesis and diarrhoea
b) Skin toxicity and diarrhoea
Tumors of the vagina:
a) Are usually benign
b) Are most commonly metastases of ovarian cancer
c) Are most commonly the result of direct spread of rectal and/or anal cancer
d) Are most commonly metastases of uterine carcinoma
e) Are most commonly primary tumors
d) Are most commonly metastases of uterine carcinoma
What is prevalence?
a) The number of all living cancer patients, who became ill in one year.
b) The number of all residents who have ever been diagnosed with cancer.
c) The number of sick people in the observed year, taking into account the age structure of the population.
d) The number of all living cancer patients on a given date, regardless of when cancer was diagnosed.
d) The number of all living cancer patients on a given date, regardless of when cancer was diagnosed.
What is not true when we consider Li-Fraumeni syndrome?
a) it is associated with high risk of both breast and ovarian cancer
b) it was first described by Frederick Li and Joseph Fraument
c) due to a pathogenic variant in a tumour suppressor gene
d) autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance
a) it is associated with high risk of both breast and ovarian cancer
(l’alto rischio è solo per il breast, non per l’ovarian)
Which definition applies to cancer of unknown primary?
a) It is a malignant disease that progresses rapidly. At presentation metastases are usually found in more than one organ.
b) It is a malignant disease in which based on the characteristics of tumor specimen or core needle biopsy the origin of the disease cannot be identified.
c) It is a malignant disease in which based on the characteristics of tumor cells obtained by FNA biopsy the origin of the disease cannot be identified.
d) It is a disease in which the pathological examination of the tumor or tumor specimen cannot define whether it is a metastasis or the primary tumor.
b) It is a malignant disease in which based on the characteristics of tumor specimen or core needle biopsy the origin of the disease cannot be identified.
Treatment of early breast cancer should always involve:
a) hormonal therapy
b) chemo scrapy
c) immunotherapy
d) radiotherapy
e) surgery
e) surgery
Interstitial brachytherapy technique is NOT used for:
a) curative treatment of anal cancer
b) curative treatment of head and neck cancer
c) postoperative treatment of endometrial cancer
d) curative treatment of prostate cancer
e) postoperative treatment of breast cancer
c) postoperative treatment of endometrial cancer
Cytopathological examination of urine can reliably diagnose:
a) Kidney stones
b) Urothelial papilloma
c) High-grade urothelial carcinoma
d) Low-grade urothelial carcinoma
c) High-grade urothelial carcinoma
Based on the pathohistological examination of the biopsy sample, most cancers of unknown primary are defined as
a) Embryonic cancers
b) Lymphomas
c) Malignant melanomas
d) Adenocarcinomas
d) Adenocarcinomas
Prophylactic surgical procedures are performed on the basis of:
a) Suspicion for high risk for malignant disease
b) Data on malignant diseases in the family
c) Confirmed high risk for malignant disease
d) Previous malignant history of the patient
c) Confirmed high risk for malignant disease
What is not true for hereditary cancer?
a) Patients have a high risk of developing multiple primary tumours.
b) Earlier age of onset than with sporadic cancers
c) 5-10% of all cancers are hereditary.
d) Preventive measures have no impact on early detection and better treatment outcomes in these cases
d) Preventive measures have no impact on early detection and better treatment outcomes in these cases
Symptomatic measures in superior vena cava syndrome are:
a) Semi-sitting position, oxygen, diuretic, corticosteroid
b) Semi-sitting position, oxygen, inhalations, bronchodilator
c) Semi sitting position, oxygen, bronchodilator, mannitol
d) Semi-sitting position, oxygen, inhalations, mannitol
a) Semi-sitting position, oxygen, diuretic, corticosteroid
Heart failure due to ionizing radiation:
a) manifests itself only in the form of cardiomyopathy.
b) it may manifest itself in the form of cardiomyopathy, constrictive pericarditis, conduction disorders, valve dysfunction and / or ischemic heart disease.
c) does not depend on the size of the received dose of ionizing radiation to the heart.
d) it can occur only in the first year after irradiation.
b) it may manifest itself in the form of cardiomyopathy, constrictive pericarditis, conduction disorders, valve dysfunction and / or ischemic heart disease.
Ultrasound examination of the breast - which statement Is incorrect?
a) It distinguishes between solid and cystic changes
b) It is investigator dependant
c) It is used to guide fine needle aspiration biopsy
d) It is suitable for assessing the fatty tissue of the breast
d) It is suitable for assessing the fatty tissue of the breast
Which argument is correct?
a) Genetic factors are more important in etiopathogenesis of childhood cancer than environmental factors.
b) Environmental factors are more important than genetic factors in etiopathogenesis of childhood cancer.
c) Genetic factors are equally important as environmental factors in etiopathogenesis of childhood cancer.
a) Genetic factors are more important in etiopathogenesis of childhood cancer than environmental factors.
The correct sequence of treatment for differentiated thyroid cancer is:
a) surgical treatment, radioactive iodine therapy, hormone therapy
b) surgical treatment, radiotherapy, hormone therapy
c) radioactive iodine therapy, surgical treatment, hormone therapy
d) hormone therapy, surgical treatment, radioactive iodine therapy
a) surgical treatment, radioactive iodine therapy, hormone therapy
Risk factors for squamous cell skin carcinoma also include:
a) Alcohol consumption
b) Working with asbestos
c) Dry skin
d) Immunosuppression
d) Immunosuppression
Most patients with malignant lymphomas are treated with basic treatment modalities during the course of the disease:
a) radiotherapy and targeted therapy
b) virostatics and antibiotics
c) surgery and peripheral blood stem cell transplant
d) systemic therapy (chemotherapy and/or biological drugs / targeted therapy)
d) systemic therapy (chemotherapy and/or biological drugs / targeted therapy)
Which statement is correct regarding the RECIST criteria?
a) They are only suitable for clinical studies
b) We use them for newly discovered cancer staging
c) They unify the interpretation of the response to therapy
d) They are used to assess changes in the breast
c) They unify the interpretation of the response to therapy
Among tumours of the central nervous system in children:
a) Craniopharyngioma is the most common.
b) Glioblastoma is in the group of tumours with the worse survival.
c) Medulloblastoma is rare.
b) Glioblastoma is in the group of tumours with the worse survival.
The definition of hemoptoe is
a) Patient coughs up more than 400 ml of blood in 24 hours
b) Patient coughs up more than 1000 ml of blood in 24 hours
c) Patient coughs up more than 600 ml of blood in 24 hours
d) Patient coughs up more than 200 ml of blood in 24 hours.
c) Patient coughs up more than 600 ml of blood in 24 hours
What is the definition of precision oncology?
a) Systemic anti-cancer therapy tailored to patients general condition, comorbidities and preferences
b) Systemic anti-cancer therapy based on molecular profile of tumour at primary diagnosis and during the treatment
c) Systemic anti-cancer therapy tailored to pathohistological type of cancer
d) Systemic anti-cancer therapy based on molecular profile of tumour at primary diagnosis
b) Systemic anti-cancer therapy based on molecular profile of tumour at primary diagnosis and during the treatment
Before starting treatment for brain tumors, it is necessary to perform:
a) Clinical examination, CT and MR, laboratory tests, cytological examination
b) CT and MR
c) Clinical examination, CT and MR, laboratory tests
d) CT and MR, laboratory tests, EEG
a) Clinical examination, CT and MR, laboratory tests, cytological examination
Multidisciplinary counseling is included in the process of surgical treatment.
a) in all oncological patients
b) in some patients, based on the discretion of the oncologist surgeon
c) in some patients, where surgical treatment does not give the desired result
d) upon recurrence of the disease after surgical treatment
a) in all oncological patients
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Systemic anti-cancer therapy is always used only as a standalone therapy
b) Systemic anti-cancer therapy can be incorporated into multidisciplinary treatment of all stages of cancer
c) Systemic anti-cancer therapy is incorporated into multidisciplinary treatment of only advanced cancers
d) Systemic anti-cancer therapy is incorporated muldisciplinary treatment of only early stages of cancer
b) Systemic anti-cancer therapy can be incorporated into multidisciplinary treatment of all stages of cancer
Thyroid cancer is present in multicystic nodular goiter:
a) diseases are exclusive
b) rarely, in <5%
c) almost always, in > 80%
d) often, in up to 50%
b) rarely, in <5%
Lymphoid neoplasms are divided into Hodgkin and non-Hodgkin lymphomas (choose the correct answer):
a) There are only mature subtypes of Hodgkin lymphoma.
b) Non-Hodgkin lymphomas are divided to B-cell and T-cell / natural killer cell lymphomas, which are further divided to immature and mature subtypes.
c) There is only one type of Hodgkin lymphoma
d) Acute lymphoblastic Ieukemias are not a type of lymphoproliferative disorder.
b) Non-Hodgkin lymphomas are divided to B-cell and T-cell / natural killer cell lymphomas, which are further divided to immature and mature subtypes.
Which statement is correct for prostate cancer?
a) Prostate cancer is never diagnosed in men younger than 60 years old.
b) Metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer is not curable.
c) Castration can only be achieved by bilateral orchiectomy.
d) High risk localized prostate cancer is not curable.
e) Smoking is a risk factor for the development of prostate cancer.
b) Metastatic castration-resistant prostate cancer is not curable.
Significant progress in the treatment of metastatic cutaneous melanoma was made by the discovery of
a) dacarbazine DTIC
b) BRAF and MEK inhibitors
c) cisplatin and carboplatin
d) treatment with IFN alpha
b) BRAF and MEK inhibitors
What applies to gonadal damage after cancer treatment?
a) The ovaries are less susceptible to the damage by cytostatic therapy and ionizing radiation than the spermatogonia in the testes, which are responsible for spermatogenesis.
b) Cytostatic therapy does not cause gonadal damage
c) It always occurs several years after oncological treatment is completed
d) The ovaries are more sensitive to the damage by cytostatic therapy and ionizing radiation than the spermatogonia in the testes, which are responsible for spermatogenesis
a) The ovaries are less susceptible to the damage by cytostatic therapy and ionizing radiation than the spermatogonia in the testes, which are responsible for spermatogenesis.
What are the most important indicators for assessing the burden of cancer?
a) Incidence by type of cancer, number of oncology health professionals, number of beds to treat patients.
b) Incidence, prevalence, mortality and survival.
c) The cost of treating patients, the severity of the disease, the duration of treatment, palliative care.
d) Mortality and severity of disease, organization of health system.
b) Incidence, prevalence, mortality and survival.
[chatgpt]
Which answer gives the best definition of multimodality treatment:
a) Any combination of oncological treatments, where we use different treatment modalities such as surgery, radiation, systemic cancer treatment
b) Irradiation with simultaneous or sequential chemotherapy
c) Surgical treatment to which systemic therapy is added before or after surgery
d) Postoperative irradiation
a) Any combination of oncological treatments, where we use different treatment modalities such as surgery, radiation, systemic cancer treatment
The most common form of skin cancer in the world is:
a) melanoma
b) basal cell carcinoma
c) Merkel’s cell carcinoma
d) squamous cell carcinoma
b) basal cell carcinoma
What is linitis plastica?
a) diffuse growth of gastric cancer
b) a balloon in the stomach
c) a new, artificial stomach
d) a larger polyp
a) diffuse growth of gastric cancer
Sarcomas represent:
a) 1% of all malignancies
b) 5% of all malignancies
c) 50% of all malignancies
a) 40% of all malignancies
a) 1% of all malignancies
Survival of patients with cutaneous melanoma is affected by Breslow thickness, the presence of viceration and the presence of regional metastases
a) all three statements are incorrect
b) all statements are correct
c) only thickness and lymph nodes affect survival
d) only ulceration and lymph nodes affect survival
b) all statements are correct
Indicate the correct statement describing the period of dying:
a) The period of dying marks the last 3 months of life
b) During the period of dying, the patient is diagnosed with immobility, narrowed consciousness, inability to take oral medication and drinking fluids in sips.
c) The period of dying is officially also called the terminal phase in medicine
d) During the period of dying, needed drugs are administered intravenously or intramuscularly.
b) During the period of dying, the patient is diagnosed with immobility, narrowed consciousness, inability to take oral medication and drinking fluids in sips.
Which statement regarding pathogenic variants in BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes is false?
a) pathogenic variants in BRCA1/BRCA2 are associated with high risk of breast cancer
b) they can affect breast cancer risks in both female and male carriers
c) preventive screening in carriers includes clinical breast examination, mammography, and breast MRI
d) BRCA1/BRCA2 pathogenic variants can only be inherited from the mother
d) BRCA1/BRCA2 pathogenic variants can only be inherited from the mother
5-year survival of patients with metastatic NSCIC treated with mono-immunotherapy is:
a) 75%
6) 5%
c) 50%
d) 30%
d) 30%
What is Krukenberg’s tumour:
a) metastases to the ovary
b) metastases to lymph node in the left axilla
c) metasteses to lymph node in the left supraclavicular cavity
d) metasteses to lymph node in the umbilicus
a) metastases to the ovary
Cervical smear:
a) is used in screening programs, to detect precancerous and cancerous changes in the cervix
b) is performed with a cotton swab
c) is used in screening programs, to detect infection with the human Papilloma virus
d) is a new screening test yet to come into clinical use
a) is used in screening programs, to detect precancerous and cancerous changes in the cervix
Which is the most common gynecological cancer in the developing countries?
a) Ovarian cancer
b) Cervical cancer
c) Uterine sarcoma
d) Vulvar carcinoma
e) Uterine carcinoma
b) Cervical cancer
Which factors influence cancer development?
a) Environmental factors, hereditary predisposition, diet
b) Lifestyle, coincidence
c) Reproductive factors, occupational exposure, smoking and alcohol
d) Factors from the environment (work, living), lifestyle, hereditary predisposition, coincidence
d) Factors from the environment (work, living), lifestyle, hereditary predisposition, coincidence
mportant factors that can influence the outcome of the disease are:
a) Performance status, comorbidities, extent of the disease
b) Performance status only
c) Extent of the disease only
d) Performance status and comorbidities
a) Performance status, comorbidities, extent of the disease
The most important etiological factor for the development of head and neck cancers is:
a) gastroesophageal reflux disease
b) smoking
c) Epstein-Barr virus
d) Recurrent angina (pharyngitis)
e) Human papilloma virus
b) smoking
Primary treatment for locally advanced lung cancers is
a) ?erapy
b) ?
c) ?diotherapy
d) ?erapy
Treatment of choice for locally advanced cervical carcinoma is:
a) liochemotherapy and brachytherapy
b) ? curative treatment
c) chemotherapy followed by surgery
d) uding radical hysterectomy, pelvic lymphadenectomy and omentectomy
e) ding radical hysterectomy, pelvic lymphadenectomy and oophorectomy
a) liochemotherapy and brachytherapy
https://www.uptodate.com/contents/management-of-locally-advanced-cervical-cancer?search=locally%20advanced%20cervical%20carcinoma%20&source=search_result&selectedTitle=1~150&usage_type=default&display_rank=1#H24941777
Mestases most often originate from:
a) cancer, lymphoma and kidney cancer
b) 1st cancer and melanoma
c) colon and rectum, lung and bladder
d) pancreas, breast and myeloma
Because we do not have an effective screening test for anal cancer, most cancers are widespread at diagnosis
what would you give? They are in two files
a. The first statement is false, the second is correct
b. Both statements are correct and causally related
c. Both statements are incorrect
d The first statement is correct, the second is incorrect
e. Both statements are correct and not causally related
d The first statement is correct, the second is incorrect
Squamous cell skin cancer spreads to regional lymph nodes:
a. No sun?
b. As common as cutaneous melanoma, in 2%
c. More common than cutaneous melanoma
d. Less common than cutaneous melanoma, in 2%
d. Less common than cutaneous melanoma, in 2%
What is ZORA
a. A programme for the detection of precancerous and cancerous lesions of the uterus
Cervical Cancer and Preventive Cancer Program
b. A programme to detect HPV infection in the cervix
c. Swabbing with a cotton swab
a. A programme for the detection of precancerous and cancerous lesions of the uterus
What is not KRG palliative treatment
a. Cytoreduction of peritoneal metastases in DCx cancer?
b. Ileus resolution in disseminated lung cancer
c. Coronary surgery for brain metastases to improve neurological symptomatology
d. Surgery for skin metastatic cancer bleeding from a skin lesion
a. Cytoreduction of peritoneal metastases in DCx cancer?
How many children get cancer per year/
a. 30
b. 60
b. 60
How many children are cured of cancer?
a. 80%
a. 80%
Which cancers are most likely to metastasize to the brain?
a. Melanoma, lung, breast
a. Melanoma, lung, breast
Prostate cancer treatment?
a. Radiation therapy is as successful as surgery
b. Start treatment as soon as possible
c. We don’t care how long someone lives
a. Radiation therapy is as successful as surgery
Glioblastoma
a. Surgery, radiochemotherapy, temozolomide and adjuvant temozolomide treatment
a. Surgery, radiochemotherapy, temozolomide and adjuvant temozolomide treatment
The purpose of early cancer detection
a. Invasive methods by which
b. Depending on the financial resources of a
c. Depending on the clinical picture and symptoms
d. Some with regard to tumour markers
d. Some with regard to tumour markers
The most common histological subtype of lymphoma?
a. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
Claims about non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas and then which claim is correct.
a. Into B lymphomas and T/NK lymphomas and then into mature and immature lymphomas
The most common cancers born in the developed world
a. Cervical
b. Body of the uterus
c. Vagina
d. Ovary
b. Body of the uterus
What is right about radiation before rectal surgery? 1) tumour reduction, 2) some resection
R0, 3) 4) 5) reduce the possibility of erectile dysfunction
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3,4,5
c. 1,2,3
d. 2,3,4,5
a. 1,2,3,4
Which scrotal cancers benefit from genetic counselling
a. Follicular
b. Medullary
c. Papillary
d. Anaplastic
b. Medullary
“l’unico dei seguenti ad essere un cancro associato ai testicoli è quello anaplastico”
Monoimmunotherapy for locoregionally advanced lung cancer, % survival
a. 50%
b. 70%
c. 30%
c. 30%
What is immunosuppression related
a. Squamous cell
What is secondary prevention?
What applies to Level 3 studies?
a. Security
b. Efficacy compared to an existing medicine
b. Efficacy compared to an existing medicine
When do we treat with targeted medicines?
a. All cancers that have targets
b. Metastatic non-small cell lung cancer
b. Metastatic non-small cell lung cancer
“Breast cancer: Targeted therapy can be used to treat HER2-positive breast cancer, which is a type of breast cancer that has too much of the HER2 protein. HER2 is a protein that helps cancer cells grow and spread. Targeted therapy drugs can block the HER2 protein, which can help to stop the growth of cancer cells. Colorectal cancer: Targeted therapy can be used to treat colorectal cancer that has certain genetic mutations. These mutations can lead to the growth of cancer cells. Targeted therapy drugs can target these mutations, which can help to stop the growth of cancer cells. Lung cancer: Targeted therapy can be used to treat non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) that has certain genetic mutations. These mutations can lead to the growth of cancer cells. Targeted therapy drugs can target these mutations, which can help to stop the growth of cancer cells. Lymphoma: Targeted therapy can be used to treat some types of lymphoma, including chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and follicular lymphoma. Targeted therapy drugs can target specific molecules involved in the growth of lymphoma cells. Melanoma: Targeted therapy can be used to treat melanoma that has a BRAF mutation. BRAF is a gene that helps cancer cells grow and spread. Targeted therapy drugs can block the BRAF protein, which can help to stop the growth of cancer cells.”
The least common symptom in lung cancer:
a. paraneoplastic syndrome
b. cough
c. shortness of breath
d. weight loss
a. paraneoplastic syndrome
What is the specific tumour marker for sarcoma?
a. AFP
b. beta HCG
c. CEA
d. no specific marker
d. no specific marker
When spinal cord compression occurs, when do irreversible changes occur?
- minutes
- hours
- days
- weeks
- hours
Where do soft tissue sarcomas come from?
- Ectoderm
- Mesoderm
- Mesoderm
Cancer of unknown origin?
- 10-year survival rate is 10%
- some treatment it can be reduced to 50%
Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
- That the most commonly involved lymph nodes are in the neck, mediastinum
- That the most commonly involved lymph nodes are in the neck, mediastinum
Which pancreatic tumour is differentiated?
- Oncocytic tumour - follicular
- Anaplastic
- Medullary
- Papillary
- Papillary
What is a risk factor for breast cancer (highlighted during the exam which is proven)?
- Knows the name
- Low body height
- Hormonsko nadomestno
- Knows the name
- Hormonsko nadomestno
What is the treatment for advanced rectal cancer?
- Preoperative radio-chemotherapy + surgery + postoperative chemotherapy
- Preoperative radio-chemotherapy + surgery + postoperative chemotherapy
What applies to prostate cancer diagnosis?
- That it can be stamped out because it grows in the peripheral zone
- If the digital rectal examination is negative then no further diagnosis is made
- That it can be stamped out because it grows in the peripheral zone
Which structures should we look out for when removing a pancreas?
- Obscuration, recurrent mass, upper laryngeal mass
- Obscuration, recurrent mass, upper laryngeal mass
Ovarian cancer. What do we remove? (verified on insight)
Everything including the appendix
Everything including the appendix
Removal of the thyroid gland. What are we trying to preserve?(verified on insight)
The parathyroid glands, n. Recurens, are still alive
Obscothoracic artery, n. recurens, middle scitellar artery
Obscothorax, recurens, superior scitellar artery
The parathyroid glands, n. Recurens, are still alive
Which intervention makes the least sense?(verified on sight)
Removal of the right breast in a patient with left breast cancer
Removal of both breasts in a 50-year-old woman with BRCA1 mutation
Removal of both breasts in a 60-year-old woman with a BRCA2 mutation
Removal of the right breast in a patient with left breast cancer
Mark the correct statement:
-Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma has 2 subtypes A and B
-Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is not a non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
-Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is not a non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
