Domande Slovene 2021 Flashcards
What happens after the critical shortening of telomeres?
a. Chromosomes stabilize, the cell can divide uncontrollably
b. DNA replication stops and the cell dies
c. Cell division is temporarily suspended
d. Cell duplication increases uncontrollably
b. DNA replication stops and the cell dies
A change in the adrenal gland of size < 3 cm and a value of Houndsfield units < 10 is defined as an
adenoma using:
a. PET CT with Choline
b. US examination
c. MRI examinations
d. CT examinations
d. CT examinations
Cough with extensive pleural effusion is:
a. Productive
b. Dry, irritating
c. Barking
d. There is none, except when leaning forward
b. Dry, irritating
A paraneoplastic syndrome can occur with squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus, which
manifests itself as:
a. Hypercalcemia
b. B-symptoms
c. Syndrome of inadequate ADH secretion
d. Thrombocytopenia
a. Hypercalcemia
c. Syndrome of inadequate ADH secretion
- Medullary thyroid cancer and parathyroid hyperplasia/adenoma are features of the syndrome:
a. Lynch
b. MEN2A
c. Gorlin
d. LiFraumeni
b. MEN2A
Complementary radiation for breast cancer - circle the correct statement:
a. Patients receive it simultaneously with preoperative chemotherapy
b. They receive patients after non-radical breast cancer surgery
c. We use it in all stages of breast cancer
d. They receive patients after radical breast cancer surgery
b. They receive patients after non-radical breast cancer surgery
Immunotherapy with checkpoint inhibitors is effective in lung cancer
a. About a third of those treated, but for a long time
b. Only exceptionally
c. In most treated, but short-term
d. In all treated
a. About a third of those treated, but for a long time
For the treatment of early stage I and II breast cancer:
a. Early breast cancer can only be observed
b. Most early breast cancers are first treated with surgery
c. Early breast cancer is operated on after preoperative radiation
d. Systemic treatment is used only exceptionally
b. Most early breast cancers are first treated with surgery
Which of the following is a possible toxic effect of breast cancer treatment with hormone therapy?
a. Febrile neutropenia
b. Onycholysis
c. physical event
d. Peripheral neuropathy
c. physical event
At what age do we recommend that children be tested if one of their parents has suffered from hereditary cancer?
a. At least 10 years before the oldest member of the family became ill
b. At least 5 years before the youngest member of the family became ill
c. Depending on the hereditary syndrome, we usually do not test before coming of age (observing the right “not to know”), except when the disease can already appear in childhood and we have options for early detection and prevention even in children (parents give consent)
d. Between 15 and 25 years of age
c. Depending on the hereditary syndrome, we usually do not test before coming of age (observing the right “not to know”), except when the disease can already appear in childhood and we have options for early detection and prevention even in children (parents give consent)
Through which mechanisms do epigenetic factors work?
a. Through methylation of DNA on cytosines and through post-translational modifications of histones (e.g. histone acetylation), they change the expression of certain genes
b. They work through post-translational modifications of histones (e.g. Acetylation
histones), but they are not involved in cytosine methylation and do not affect the expression of certain genes
c. They methylate DNA at cytosines, but do not affect post-translational modifications of histones
d. They directly change the genetic record in DNA
a. Through methylation of DNA on cytosines and through post-translational modifications of histones (e.g. histone acetylation), they change the expression of certain genes
In patients with aggressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas, the decision to choose treatment is influenced by:
a. CHADS2 index
b. International Prognostic Index (IPI)
c. Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index (FLIPI)
d. Child Pugh index
b. International Prognostic Index (IPI)
In strongly emetogenic cytostatics:
a. We combine metoclopramide with a corticosteroid
b. We combine 5-HT3 antagonists with glucocorticoid and antagonists NK1 receptors
c. We combine a corticosteroid with an NK1 receptor antagonist
d. We only use a corticosteroid
b. We combine 5-HT3 antagonists with glucocorticoid and antagonists NK1 receptors
The concept of therapeutic index: it is beneficial when:
a. Se curve of damage to normal tissues and curve of tumor growth control overlap
b. The normal tissue damage curve and the tumor growth control curve are close
together
c. They are the normal tissue damage curve and the tumor growth control curve distant from each other
c. They are the normal tissue damage curve and the tumor growth control curve distant from each other
The following applies to the surgical treatment of patients with uterine cancer:
a. We remove the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries, depending on the stage and histological findings as well as regional lymph nodes
b. It is the method of choice regardless of the stage of the disease
c. It is the method of choice only for stage I patients
d. We remove the uterus, parametria and fallopian tubes
a. We remove the uterus, fallopian tubes and ovaries, depending on the stage and histological findings as well as regional lymph nodes
Neuroendocrine tumors do NOT include:
a. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
b. Neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas
c. Carcinoid
d. Merkel cell carcinoma of the skin
e. small cell carcinoma of the larynx
a. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
How does mortality from cancer change over time in Slovenia and why?
a. Age-standardized mortality from cancer is increasing because of always
more aggressive forms of cancer and the older age of the patients
b. Age-standardized cancer mortality is decreasing due to less cancer incidence and better awareness of the population
c. Age-standardized mortality from cancer is increasing due to increase in some risk factors, later detection and poorer treatment
d. Age-standardized mortality from cancer is decreasing due to the reduction of some risk factors, earlier detection and improved treatment
d. Age-standardized mortality from cancer is decreasing due to the reduction of some risk factors, earlier detection and improved treatment
Treatment with cytostatics can cause temporary or even permanent sterility.
The probability of reduced fertility depends on:
a. From the functioning of the thyroid gland and the age of the patient
b. From the use of corticosteroids and their dosage
c. From the age of the patient, the type of cytostatic, the dose of the cytostatic, the duration of the treatment, and any previous disorders in the functioning of the gonads before the cytostatic treatment
d. From mediastinal irradiation and radiation dose
c. From the age of the patient, the type of cytostatic, the dose of the cytostatic, the duration of the treatment, and any previous disorders in the functioning of the gonads before the cytostatic treatment
The most common sites of systemic metastasis in head and neck cancers are:
a. Systemic metastases are rare in this type of cancer; when they occur, they usually affect the lymph nodes in the neck
b. In nasopharyngeal cancer, metastases are less common than in other ENT cancers and typically involve bone most often
c. Lungs, liver, bones
d. In cancer of the major salivary glands, cysts are more common than in other ENT cancers and typically most frequently affect gastric structures
c. Lungs, liver, bones
Squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck most often arises:
a. In the throat
b. In the oral part of the pharynx
c. In the salivary glands
d. In the oral cavity
d. In the oral cavity
Vacuum needle puncture of the breast: which of the statements is not correct?
a. The examination is used for preoperative evaluation of the lymph nodes
b. Several tissue samples are taken with one puncture
c. The examination is performed under local anesthesia
d. The examination is mainly carried out for the diagnosis of microcalcifications
d. The examination is mainly carried out for the diagnosis of microcalcifications
The treatment of regionally advanced colon cancer is:
a. Preoperative radiochemotherapy, then surgery, then postoperative chemotherapy
b. First surgery, then postoperative radiochemotherapy
c. Radical surgery is enough
d. Surgery, then postoperative chemotherapy
d. Surgery, then postoperative chemotherapy
Ten percent of patients with differentiated thyroid cancer develop distant metastases
during follow-up in:
a. Lymph nodes, lungs
b. Bones, liver
c. Lungs, bones
d. Lungs, liver
c. Lungs, bones
Damage to the lung parenchyma after cancer treatment:
a. It is only a result of ionizing radiation in the lung area
b. It is the result of ionizing radiation in the lung area, treatment with certain cytostatics and/or lung surgery
c. It is only the result of an operation on the lungs
d. It is only a consequence of treatment with certain cytostatics
b. It is the result of ionizing radiation in the lung area, treatment with certain cytostatics and/or lung surgery
Which therapeutic option is not suitable for the treatment of menopause breast cancer patients?
a. LHRH analog
b. Trastuzumab
c. Tamoxifen
d. Docetaxel
a. LHRH analog
The aim of “en bloc” resection is:
a. Removal of the tumor, lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels between the tumor and the lymph nodes in one piece
b. Removal of all tumors in multicentric breast cancer
c. Removal of the tumor along with a layer of healthy tissue
d. Removal of both breasts in a patient with bilateral breast cancer
a. Removal of the tumor, lymph nodes and lymphatic vessels between the tumor and the lymph nodes in one piece
Excision of the puncture site along with the entire puncture channel is necessary at surgery:
a. Merkel cell carcinoma
b. Breast cancer
c. Lymphoma
d. Melanoma
e. Sarcoma
e. Sarcoma
The syndrome of inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone occurs due to:
a. Insufficient reabsorption of water in the kidneys and excessive excretion
b. Insufficient reabsorption of water in the kidneys and insufficient excretion
c. Excessive reabsorption of water in the kidneys and excessive excretion
d. Excessive reabsorption of water in the kidneys and insufficient excretion
d. Excessive reabsorption of water in the kidneys and insufficient excretion
Which statement about pain is false?
a. Visceral pain results from the activation of visceral nociceptors and is always well localized and spasmodic
b. Neuropathic pain is the result of damage or pathology in the nervous system
c. Nociceptive pain is the result of irritation of peripheral nociceptors due to a pathological process
d. Somatic pain occurs upon activation of primary somatic afferent pathways and is usually well localized
a. Visceral pain results from the activation of visceral nociceptors and is always well localized and spasmodic
Which enzyme is a non-specific marker of cellular damage?
a. Lipase
b. GGT
c. ALT
d. LDH
d. LDH
We define the stage of lymphoma:
a. With the Ann Arbor classification
b. There is no need to define stages, because we treat all patients in the same way
c. With TNM classification
d. With FIGO classification
a. With the Ann Arbor classification
In patients with anaplastic oligodendroglioma and rearrangement chromosomes 1p/19q:
a. It is an effective targeted therapy with bevacizumab and irinotecan
b. It is an effective chemotherapy according to the PCV scheme
c. Survival is shorter
d. It is an effective targeted therapy with bevacizumab
b. It is an effective chemotherapy according to the PCV scheme
- A significant advance in the treatment of distant metastases of cutaneous melanoma is represented by treatment with:
a. IFN-alpha
b. BRAF inhibitors
c. Decarbazine (DTIC)
d. Cisplatin or carboplatin
b. BRAF inhibitors
Decreased kidney function after cancer treatment is caused by:
a. Only surgery on the kidneys
b. Ionizing radiation in the area of the kidneys, treatment with certain cytostatics (e.g. platinum derivatives) and/or surgery on the kidneys
c. Only treatments with certain cytostatics, e.g. Platinum derivatives
d. Only ionizing radiation in the kidney area
b. Ionizing radiation in the area of the kidneys, treatment with certain cytostatics (e.g. platinum derivatives) and/or surgery on the kidneys
Radical radiation for cervical cancer:
a. It is also the treatment of choice for patients with the disease in the initial stage
b. It is the treatment of choice only for stages IIIB-IVA (here it would be correct if it were written
IIB-IVA)
c. It is always performed in combination with calf and brachytherapy
d. It is only considered when the patient refuses surgical treatment
c. It is always performed in combination with calf and brachytherapy
Oncological genetic testing is usually provided as part of preventive health care to all individuals where there is a probability of the presence of a pathogenic variant:
a.7%
b.It is always indicated
c.1%
d. 10%
d. 10%
Serum tumor markers are NOT suitable:
a. To monitor response to treatment
b. To detect disease recurrence
c. For screening and disease detection
c. For screening and disease detection
Fine needle aspiration biopsy of an enlarged lymph node:
a. It is very painful and must be performed under general anesthesia
b. It is not sufficient to definitively define the histological type of lymphoma
c. It has no diagnostic value in lymphomas
d. Allows examination of a larger tissue sample
b. It is not sufficient to definitively define the histological type of lymphoma
The definition of febrile neutropenia is:
a. A temperature of 38 degrees C was measured once and a reduced number of neutrophils below 0.5x109/L
b. Once measured temperature above 38.5 degrees C or at least twice in 2 hours above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 1x109/L
c. Once measured temperature above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 1x109/L
d. Once measured temperature above 38.5 degrees C or at least twice in 2 hours above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 0.5x109/L
d. Once measured temperature above 38.5 degrees C or at least twice in 2 hours above 38 degrees C and reduced neutrophil count below 0.5x109/L
The most suitable method for defining an enlarged lymph node in the neck in a patient
with (or suspected of) cancer in the head and neck area is:
a. Colon biopsy
b. Extirpation
c. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
c. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
Incidence of highly malignant gliomas:
a. It peaks at the age of 30
b. It reaches its peak at the age of 70
c. It is greater in women
d. Does not change with age
b. It reaches its peak at the age of 70
Paraneoplastic symptoms are most common in which type of lung cancer?
a. In a typical carcinoid
b. In small cell lung cancer
c. In non-small cell lung cancer
d. They are equally represented in all forms of lung cancer
b. In small cell lung cancer
Cytopathological examination of the breast is used to define:
a. Atypical changes in the breast that are visible with ultrasound or mammography
b. Hereditary breast cancer risks
c. Tactile changes in the breast
d. Microcalcination
c. Tactile changes in the breast
What we usually do not notice in the last hours of life in a dying cancer patient
a. High blood pressure
b. Noises
c. Absences of radial pulses
d. Increased body temperature
a. High blood pressure
Which of the following is not among the etiological factors in the development of head and neck cancer:
a. Frequent angina
b. Human papillomavirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Wood dust
e. Smoking and alcohol
f. Gastroesophageal reflux
a. Frequent angina
Which statement is correct?
a. Germ cell tumors are common cancers
b. A distinction is made between seminoma and non-seminoma germinal tumors
c. Metastatic seminoma has a poor prognosis
d. Germ cell tumors are the most common cancer in men over 60 age
b. A distinction is made between seminoma and non-seminoma germinal tumors
Ependymomas most often arise:
a. In the spinal cord
b. In the cortex area
c. In the posterior cranial fossa
d. In the deep white matter of the brain
c. In the posterior cranial fossa
Which groups of dangerous factors do we know according to International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC)?
a. Group I – sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to humans;
group II – the causal relationship has not yet been proven, but it is probable,
group III – factors that cannot be classified in group I, II or IV;
group IV – substances/factors that are probably not carcinogenic to humans
b. Group I – non-carcinogenic substances, group II – carcinogenic substances
c. Group I - sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to humans, Group II - sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to animals and cell cultures, Group III - not a carcinogenic substance/agent
a. Group I – sufficient evidence of carcinogenicity to humans;
group II – the causal relationship has not yet been proven, but it is probable,
group III – factors that cannot be classified in group I, II or IV;
group IV – substances/factors that are probably not carcinogenic to humans
Primary prevention:
a. It is the task of primary healthcare only
b. It mainly deals with individuals at risk from their families
c. It gives guidelines for a lifestyle that can be used to prevent the formation cancer
d. It means a series of systematic reviews
c. It gives guidelines for a lifestyle that can be used to prevent the formation cancer
