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Part 3 Systems > Eric's garage full of shit for the final > Flashcards

Eric's garage full of shit for the final Flashcards

1
Q

What effect will pressurisation have on the fuselage and its structural components?

A

Skin: puts skin under and tension in cycles, causing fatigue and reducing the life
Fasteners: Shear stress

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2
Q

As an aircraft starts to near the end of its useful safe life due to pressurisation, what will likely be done? Why?

A
  • Limit the aircraft operating altitude

- Will reduce the exposure to larger pressure differences, slightly prolonging the life of the aircraft

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3
Q

What are the structural members of the semi-monocoque fuselage? Briefly describe each?

A
  • Longeron: longitudinal structural members
  • Bulkheads: Solid structures lying 90˚ to longerons
  • Skin: Takes some of the load, the rest is transferred to the longhorns, stringers, formers and bulkheads beneath
  • Formers: Like bulkheads but hollow, to maintain the fuselage shape
  • Stringers: More lightweight versions of longhorns to take some load and transfer the rest to formers. Some are build into the inside of the skin
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4
Q

What are the advantages of the Semi-monocoque fuselage design?

A
  • Allow for the construction of streamlines and complex fuselage shapes
  • Does not rely solely on the strength of a few things - if some damage there many be enough strength to hold together
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5
Q

What is one of the main advantages of a non-metal material?

A

-The absence of corrosion

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6
Q

How canyon reduce the amount of corrosion that a metal aircraft experiences?

A
  • Regular washing
  • Hangaring
  • Avoiding damage to painted surfaces
  • Treating internal structures with moisture excluding compounds
  • Careful handling of hazardous materials
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7
Q

What material is most likely to be corrosive to aircraft? What can happen?

A

Mercury

-Dramatic and instant reaction which destroys structural integrity

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8
Q

What aircraft components may be susceptible to corrosion?

A
  • Any metals
  • Control cables
  • Skin
  • Structural members
  • Engine components
  • Propellers
  • Electrical systems
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9
Q

What is corrosion?

A

Loss of metal from the surface by chemical or electro chemical action. It is generally easily removed by mechanical action. Rust is an example of corrosion

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10
Q

What are the different types of jet fuel? What are the differences?

A

Jet A: Common jet fuel in the United States. No kerosene blend.
Jet A1: Lower freezing point that Jet A. Most common jet fuel
Jet B: Also called wide cut, with low freezing and low flash points. 30% kerosene, 70% gasoline
JP5: High flash point for safety. Used on aircraft carriers

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11
Q

What is jet fuel? Colour? Composition?

A

Liquid hydrocarbons, similar to Kerosene. Designed to mix at combustion temperatures and to flow at cold temperatures.
Not colour coded, all are a straw or clear colour.

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12
Q

What are the different types of fuel tanks? Describe each?

A
  • Integral: Wet wing, where the sealed structure becomes the tank
  • Rubber/ Bladder: thin fabric impregnated with neoprene or other material that is impervious to fuel
  • Rigid: Like the DA40, welded metal tank sits within the structure to hold the fuel. Usually Aluminium alloy
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13
Q

What additions can be made to rigid tanks?

A

Cover in a shock resistant rubber that has self sealing capabilities.

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14
Q

What features will normally be found in an integral fuel tank? What doe these things do?

A

-Baffles

Increase the strength and stop fuel surging

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15
Q

What features are incorporated into fuel tanks to ensure that if there is fuel in the tank, that it will flow to the engine?

A
  • Positive pressure head:

- Venting system to prevent cavitation

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16
Q

What features are presented all types of fuel systems? Briefly describe each?

A
  • Filler cap: Keep contaminants out of fuel, all for refuelling, easy to see if it locked
  • Expansion space: Space for fuel to go beyond where it is when it is full at the cap. Allow space for fuel to expand if heated in the tanks
  • Vents: Allow for release of pressure as fuel expands, allow for air to replace fuel to prevent cavitation
  • Baffles: Increase strength and prevent fuel surging
  • Sumps/Drains: Allow for heavy impurities to settle and and then be collected and sampled. Will create some unusable fuel
  • Fuel quantity detectors: glass type, capacitance type
  • Strainers/ Filters: Usually 3, to filter out imperfections
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17
Q

How can the risk of water contamination in AVGAS and AVTUR fuels be reduced?

A
  • Sump and drains
  • Filling tanks at the end of day
  • Standpipe
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18
Q

How do drains work?

A
  • Drain valve has a sealing poppet at the lowest point in each tank
  • When depressed allows fluid at bottom of tank to be drain out, when released, seals
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19
Q

What is the purpose of Fuel boost/aux pumps?

A
  • Provide fuel for starting
  • Purge the fuel lines of vapour to prevent the chances of vapour lock
  • Prime cylinders of fuel injected engines
  • Supply fuel if engine driven pump fails
  • Fuel dumping
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20
Q

What features does an auxiliary fuel pump have?

A
  • Pressure relief valve
  • Bypass valve (if vane type)
  • Often submersible type to allow for all fuel to be used
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21
Q

What powers the auxiliary fuel pump? What are the common types? Which is most common?

A
  • Electrically driven
  • Vane type
  • Centrifugal type (most common)
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22
Q

What is the purpose of a fuel cross-feed system? Why is it needed?

A
  • To correct fuel balance differences
  • Due to engines during at different rates, single engine operation, to allow fuel to be used by the other engine in engine out, Heaters/ APU only drawing from one tank, tank leakages
  • Flexibility
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23
Q

How are fuel tanks numbered?

A

Normally with their associated engine.

-No.1 on left, No4. on right

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24
Q

What is vapour lock?

A
  • Fuel vaporises in the fuel lines
  • Vapour collects at a high point and prevents fuel from flowing past
  • Will starve the engine of fuel
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25
Q

What causes vapour lock?

A
  • Excessive heat build up
  • Low pressure
  • a combination of above
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26
Q

What should be done if vapour lock is encountered on engine start? (7)

A
  • Boost pump on
  • Mags turned off
  • Full throttle and full rich mixture
  • Turn the engine over on the started for a few seconds
  • Check to see if fuel has started to flow from the carb
  • Drain carb and let engine sit for 10 minutes
  • Try a normal hot start
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27
Q

What are the advantages of hydraulic systems? (8)

A
  • Gain mechanical advantage through use of different sized pistons
  • Light weight for power output
  • Easy instillation/ inspection
  • Minimal moving parts (leads to less maintenance required)
  • Cheaper (due to less lifetime maintenance costs)
  • Transfer forces large distances
  • Can use thin flexible pipes to transfer pressure
  • Almost 100% efficient (small losses due to fluid friction)
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28
Q

What are the different types of hydraulic fluid? What colour are they?

A
  • Vegetable base: Blue
  • Synthetic: Purple
  • Mineral base: Red
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29
Q

What are the characteristics of Vegetable based mineral hydraulic oil?

A
  • Castor oil/ alcohol
  • Older, less demanding hydraulic systems
  • Compatible with natural rubber seals
  • Can cause corrosion and form sludge
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30
Q

What are the characteristics of Mineral based hydraulic oil?

A
  • Kerosene type chemical
  • Good lubricating
  • chemical prevent foaming and corrosion
  • Little viscosity change with temp
  • Flammable
  • Requires synthetic rubber seals
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31
Q

What are the characteristics of Synthetic hydraulic oil?

A
  • Withstand higher temps and pressures than mineral
  • Not flammable
  • Synthetic phosphate-ester oil
  • Must be handled very carefully, to prevent water contamination
  • Attacks certain plastics
  • Requires synthetic seals
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32
Q

What different types of valves can be present in a hydraulic system?

A
  • Check valve
  • Pressure relief valve (thermal valve)
  • Selector Valve
  • Sequencing valve
  • Shuttle valve
  • By-pass valves
  • Hydraulic fuses
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33
Q

What is a check valve? Dow to they typically work?

A
  • Non return valve to prevent reverse fluid flow
  • Spring loaded ball and seat inside a housing
  • Fluid flow in normal direction compresses spring
  • Fluid flow in opposite direction aids the spring and pushes ball against seat, sealing the system from reverse flow
  • Can also be orifice type check valves*
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34
Q

What is a Pressure relief valve? How do they typically work?

A
  • Limit the amount of pressure in parts of the system
  • Also called a thermal valve
  • Usually a simple spring loaded valve that is set to a certain pressure threshold
  • When pressure limit is met, it will also for fluid to discard back to the reservoir or return line
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35
Q

What is a selector valve? How do they normally work?

A
  • Used to control the direction of movement of a hydraulic actuating cylinder or other device
  • Closed centre: rotating type, where 90˚ rotation either side of closed position will reverse the direction of the actuator
  • Open centre: allows the hydraulic fluid to flow through it, even when it is not in a position to actuate a unit
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36
Q

What is a sequencing valve?

A
  • Allows the operation of one hydraulic system to automatically set another one in motion
  • eg. Landing gear doors must actuate before landing gear bogie.
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37
Q

What is a shuttle valve? How does it work?

A
  • Valve to allow for alternate pressure source to feed the system.
  • When pressure from normal inlet is less than backup emergency pressure, the shuttle will move across and allow for backup source to provide pressure.
  • Position retaining ball will ensure that shuttle remains open to one source or the other
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38
Q

What is a bypass valve?

A

-Allow fluid to bypass a blocked component

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39
Q

What is a hydraulic fuse? How does it work?

A
  • Safety device
  • Installed to prevent total fluid loss in case of major downstream leak
  • Spring will normally hold opening open, but when downstream pressure drops, the pressure will close the opening with a piston, preventing any more fluid loss
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40
Q

What is the purpose of an actuator?

A

-To convert the hydraulic pressure into a mechanical force to do useful work.

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41
Q

Describe the typical linear actuator?

A
  • Fluid port on either end of a cylinder bore
  • Piston with piston rod connected will move linearly to actuate a component
  • Shuttle valve will direct fluid to appropriate end of cylinder
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42
Q

What are the different types of linear actuators? (5)

A 
Single acting
Double acting (Balanced vs Unbalanced)
Tandem
Three port double acting
Servo Actuator
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43
Q

What is the function of an accumulator?

A
  • Dampen pressure surges
  • Aid or supplement pumps during Spinks on pressure demand
  • Store pressure for limited operation after pump failure
  • Compensate for small leaks
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44
Q

What is the principle of operation of the accumulator?

A
  • Pressure vessel
  • Divided into two parts by a flexible diaphragm or bladder, or a piston
  • One part contains compressed air/nitrogen at half system design pressure
  • when system is pressurised, gas compresses further and acts as a spring to provide reserve hydraulic pressure
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45
Q

What is a manual pump control valve? Why is it required?

A
  • Valve that is automatically actuated or manually actuated
  • Allows excess fluid in a system to flow back to reservoir when demand on the system is low
  • Uses very little engine power as the pressure on the engine driven pump is low
  • Must be closed before hydraulic actuation is required and opened afterwards
46
Q

What checks can be done on the hydraulic system to ensure serviceability?

A
  • Pre-flight inspection for leaks

- Pressure gauge on gas side of accumulator

47
Q

From the cockpit, how it be determined if the accumulator has had a leak?

A
  • When system is shut off, the system pressure gauge should read the pre-charge pressure set..
  • When system is shut off, the pressure should not immediately drop, but do so slowly as the accumulator provides some residual pressure
48
Q

What system pressure does the high pressure pneumatic system produce? What is it used to actuate?

A
  • 2900-3000psi

- Flaps, spoilers, undercarriage retraction

49
Q

What is done to remove moisture from the pneumatic system?

A
  • Moisture remover does 98%

- Dessicant does last 2% (changes away form blue colour when contaminated with water)

50
Q

What pressure does the medium pressure pneumatic system operate around? What systems use this system?

A

50-150psi

  • Air starters
  • Pneumatic deicing boots
51
Q

What are the requirements for a retractable leaning gear? (9)

A
  • Support aircraft at max all-up-weight
  • Absorb landing loads
  • Withstand side loads
  • Provide shock absorption
  • Provide minimum rolling friction
  • Minimum drag airborne
  • Maximum traction for braking
  • System to prevent accidental retraction
  • Light as possible for given strength
52
Q

What additions features may be incorporated into the retractable u/c of a heavy aircraft?

A
  • Latches to allow for gravity extension
  • Lockdown cams/ struts
  • WOW solenoid switch to prevent ground retraction
  • Electronic position indication system
  • Warning for when landing configuration is detected but gear not extended
  • Emergency lowering system (hand pump/ emergency accumulator for hydraulic pressure)
53
Q

how are the landing gear doors and landing gear connected to reduce drag and allow for sequential operation?

A
  • Sequencing valve ensures that gear doors opens first, then landing gear
  • Doors will close when gear is fully up, or fully down, to reduce drag
54
Q

How does the nose wheel steering on an heavy aircraft work?

A
  • Small sterling wheel (tiller)

- Activates some form of hydraulic, servo, mechanical or digital data (Fly-by-wire) transmission system

55
Q

What are the 14 components of the Bogie undercarriage? What is their purpose?

A
  • Pivot trunnion: Anchor to structure
  • Trunnion beam: Allows pivot trunnion to pivot to retract
  • Upper side brace: Braces lateral movement
  • Lower side brace: Braces lateral movement
  • Torque arms: Maintain for/aft alignment
  • Pivot fork and shaft: Connects pivot beam to main strut
  • Pivot beam (H member): Holds the wheels and axles
  • Equaliser: Sets the pivot beam position for landing
  • Axle: Hold each wheel
  • Positioned: Hydraulic ram to set the pivot beam angle
  • Wheels:
  • Lower inner cylinder: Oleo strut (inner piston)
  • Shock struct outer cylinder: Oleo strut
  • Drag brace: supports/braces gear in fore/aft
56
Q

What is a power brake? How does it work? What redundancy is built into the system?

A
  • Pilot brake pedals actuate a brake control valves
  • Brake control valves let in system pressure proportional to the pressure applied by the pilot
  • Check valve and and accumulator hold pressure in case of hydraulic failure
57
Q

Why are anti-skid brakes required? how doe they work?

A
  • To achieve maximum braking on the verge of the skid, because the pilot will have no feel if the wheels have locked up
  • AC generator in the wheel hub creates an electrical current, frequency proportional to the rotation of the wheels
  • Anti-skid computer compares this to maximum allowable deceleration
  • When rate is exceeded, signal is sent to anti-skid valve which releases pressure to brake unit involved
58
Q

What is the purpose of the RADALT?

A

To indicate the actual height above the ground

59
Q

What is the principle of operation of the FM RADALT?

A
  • Continuous FM signal transmitted at varying frequency
  • Sweeps 60MHz band between 4200-4400MHz (SHF band)
  • Receiver detects phase difference between current signal being transmitted and received signal to calculate time
  • Use principle of the known speed of light with time to modulate wave, to detect distance.
60
Q

What errors are possible in a RADALT? What is its accuracy?

A

Fixed error: Frequency difference to heigh calculation is done in 5ft intervals, so an error of +/-2.5ft is possible
-Accurate down to 20ft, and +/-2ft or 2% up to 500ft

61
Q

What are the limitations of the RADALT

A
  • Surface reflectivity affects reading (Water best, soft fine soil worst, snow is difficult as to weather snow pack or underlying ground)
  • Loss of lock between 2000-2500ft due to bank or surface below
62
Q

Why have central warning panels being invented? What warnings can they give?

A
  • Each system’s warning used to be beside its control panel, but due to space and some panels being out of immediate view of pilots, they were centralised
  • Can give visual, aural and tactile alerts
63
Q

What is the function of the Master Warning system? In glass cockpits how does it work?

A
  • To alert the crew to an operational problem, or system malfunction.
  • Normally use visual, aural or tactile warnings to catch crew attention
  • In glass cockpits, it is integrated into the system (Boeing: EICAS, Airbus: ECAM)
64
Q

What are the different warning system alert levels? What does each mean?

A
  • Time critical warnings: Associated with the primary flight path control, terrain or wind shear.
  • Warnings: Alert crew to non-normal operation or system condition requiring immediate awareness and corrective action, engine fire, pressurisation
  • Cautions: Alert crew to non-normal operation or system condition requiring crew alertness and action within a reasonable period of time, engine overheat, oil pressure, fuel state
  • Alert/ Advisory: Require crew alertness and action only when time is available
65
Q

If you get a master warning alert, how can the aural and visual cues be inhibited? What are the exceptions?

A
  • Pushing the warning button will silence the aural alarm
  • Light will remain illuminated until condition is resolved, or the reset switch is pushed
  • Light will not extinguish if the warning is AP disconnect, T/O or LDG configuration, or overspeed
66
Q

How can tactile alerts be inhibited?

A
  • By correcting the unsafe situation

- By a further tactile alert taking over (eg. stick pusher takes over from stick shaker)

67
Q

What are the CWP systems that Airbus and Boing use?

A

Airbus: Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM)
Boeing: Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)

68
Q

What are the inputs of the MWWS?

A
  • Pitot
  • Static
  • RADALT
  • Vertical Gyro
  • AoA transducer
  • Flap position
69
Q

What are the components the MWWS?

A
  • Wind-shear computer

- Integrated acceleration sensors

70
Q

What are the inputs to the CPU of the GPWS?

A
  • RADALT
  • Vertical speed sensor
  • Glidepath deviations
  • Undercarriage position
  • Flap position
71
Q

What are the different GPWS modes? What does each mean? What aural alert will be heard?

A

1: Excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain. SINK RATE
2A: Excessive rate of terrain closure (not LDG config). TERRAIN TERRAIN
2B: Excessive rate of terrain closure (LDG config).
TERRAIN TERRAIN
3: Negative rate of climb after T/O or GA. DON’T SINK
4A: Unsafe terrain clearance (not LDG config, Gear up). TOO LOW - GEAR
4B: Unsafe terrain clearance (not LDG config, flaps up). TOO LOW - FLAPS
5: Excessive downwards departure form ILS glide slope. GLIDESLOPE
6: Descent below minimums. MINIMUMS

72
Q

What is the warning envelope and aural warning that is heard for each GPWS mode?

A 
1: 5-2450ft "Whoop Whoop - Pull Up"
2A: 50-1800ft "Whoop Whoop - Pull Up"
2B: 220-790ft "Whoop Whoop - Pull Up"
3: 50-700ft - No warning
4A: 50-500ft "Whoop Whoop - Pull Up"
4B: 50-500ft "TOO LOW - TERRAIN"
5: 100-500ft - No Waring
6: Selected MDA/DA - No Warning
73
Q

What is the purpose of ACAS?

A
  • To reduce the incidences of mid air collisions and near misses
  • To provide alert information of conflicting traffic and warning of impending collision
74
Q

What are the components of the ACAS system?

A
  • Processor unit
  • Two antenna (one above and one below)
  • Mode S transponder
  • Target must have Mode C transponder
75
Q

What is the principle of operation of ACAS?

A
  • ACAS equipped aircraft interrogates other transponder equipped aircraft, within a predetermined range
  • Interrogation occurs on 1030MHz band several times per second to determine position
  • Extrapolation of current range and altitudes differences, ACAS determines if threat exists
  • Will give appropriate target indications and alerts to crew
76
Q

What is the difference between TCAS I and TCAS II/ACAS II?

A

TCAS I: less capable, Only offers TA, do not require mode S

TCAS II: Requires Mode s, Able to issue RA’s and TA’s. Larger warning range.

77
Q

What is a Ring laser gyro? Why is it better than a gyro?

A
  • Solid state device known as a rate sensor (similar to single axis gyro)
  • Better because it has no moving parts
78
Q

What is the principle of operation of the ring laser gyro?

A
  • 2 coherent Lasers sent through a bore in a triangular/ square block, in different directions
  • All corners have a mirror, one is semi-transparent to allow sense phase
  • Coherent light has sine wave properties, when angular acceleration occurs there is phase difference in the light being detected
  • This change in phase, and therefore frequency can be computed to detect angular acceleration over a measured time.
79
Q

What is an INS/IRS? What is the difference between the two?

A
  • Self contained, long range navigation system
  • Provides a continuous and accurate fix of position
  • Uses great circle navigation to provide very accurate steering commands to the AFDS

-INS was early system that did not compare its position solution with other aids. INS also tended to use gyro stable platform and mechanical gyroscopes to maintain its orientation

80
Q

How does the INS maintain its integrity? What data can be input? Does/ can cross checking need to occur?

A
  • No external Nav Aids required
  • Automatics self alignment and calibration
  • Continuous monitoring of its own performance
  • Data can be input for present position, waypoints and destination
  • Can be checked in flight against GPS/ ground aids
81
Q

What is a gyro stable platform in an INS? How does it work? How does initial alignment occur?

A
  • Platform holds accelerometers to measure acceleration in 3 different axis.
  • Remote vertical gyros keep platform aligned in azimuth and to true north
  • Gyros detect movement, and will generate signals to torque motors to maintain the platform orientation.
  • Alignment occurs during initial synchronisation (called gyro compassing), and flight plan data cannot be entered until this is complete
82
Q

How many accelerometers are required for an INS? with or without air data? In what directions do they sense?

A
  • 1 in North/ South plane
  • 1 in East/ West plane
  • 1 in Vertical plane (not required if altimeter data is incorporated
83
Q

What are the inputs to the INS? How is it interfaced with pilots and other systems?

A

Inputs:

  • Own acceleration inputs
  • ADC

Interface is through the FMS CDU
Displays information on EFIS
Coupled directly with the AFDS

84
Q

What are the components of the flight data recorder system?

A
  • Flight recorder panel
  • Flight data acquisition unit
  • Acoustic underwater locator beacon
  • Flight data recorder
85
Q

What powers the FDR and CVR?

A

The essential bus

86
Q

What is the purpose of the CVR?

A

To record all cockpit conversations and sounds, either internally or externally (with ATC).
Records from FO mic, Captain mic, Cockpit area mic, and flight attendant intercom

87
Q

How long must the CVR record for? When can it be erased/ not used?

A
  • Legally must record last 30 minutes, most do 60 minutes. - recorded over itself after then
  • Can be erased after WoW switch activated
  • If CVR circuit breaker is pulled it will not record
88
Q

What are the components of the CVR system?

A
  • The recorder
  • Control panel
  • Ceiling mounted microphone
  • Backup battery
  • Circuit breaker
89
Q

What is the purpose of the Altitude alerter? Who must have one?

A

-To prevent altitude/clearance busts from aircraft with high climb/descent abilities
Serves as a reminder of assigned altitude and gives warning to anticipate a level out
-Must be installed on all IFR aircraft

90
Q

What is the principle of operation of the Altitude alerter ?

A
  • CWP is linked via data busses or synchros to the ADC or RADALT.
  • Visual and aural cures as preset altitude is approached
91
Q

What is CAS? EAS? Mach No.? VMO? M(crit)?

A

EAS: Equivalent airspeed (corrected for compressibility)
CAS: Calibrated airspeed (corrected for position error)
Mach No: ratio of speed of an aircraft to the speed of sound in the same atmospheric conditions
VMO: maximum operating speed (Same as Vne)
M(crit): Critical mach number

92
Q

Describe how a simple Machmeter works?

A
  • Air dat instrument that combines the PoO of an ASI and ALT
  • Incorporates a standard pressure altimeter capsule surrounded by a case of static pressure
  • Inside the same case is an airspeed capsule, connected to the pitot source
  • They respond in the normal way to changes in static and pitot pressure
  • The two capsules interact with each other, the result of which is transferred to the indicator via a series of ricking shafts, levers and mechanical linkages
  • The dial is calibrated to show mach number
93
Q

What are the inputs of the ADC?

A
  • AoA
  • Static pressure source
  • Pitot pressure source
  • Total temperature source
94
Q

What are the outputs of the ADC?

A
  • ALT
  • Vertical speed
  • CAS
  • TAS
  • Mach
  • VMO
  • AoA
  • TAT
  • SAT
95
Q

What systems can use ADC outputs?

A
  • Primary flight instruments
  • Flight director/ AFCS
  • FMC
  • GPWS/ TAWS/
  • FDR
  • Transponder altitude encoder
  • CWP (waring systems)
96
Q

How can crew test and edit information in the Air Data Computer

A
  • Testing can be done by selecting the test function in the preflight
  • Data cannot be edited within the ADC, unless by a technician
97
Q

What is the purpose of the ADC?

A

-To convert raw air data into electrical outputs to represent that data, to be used in modern aircraft systems

98
Q

What is the FMS? What is its purpose?

A
  • Pilot interactive navigation computing and display system, providing fuel efficient aircraft operation together with navigational guidance reducing flight crew workloads
  • Assist flying the aircraft with maximum economy and safety to a previously planed and defined route, both laterally and vertically
99
Q

What displays are given to pilots as part of the FMS?

A
  • Map/ route data on navigational display

- Command markers on the airspeed, altitude and thrust markings to aid in flying efficient profiles

100
Q

What is the FMC? What can it do? What data does it use?

A
  • Flight management computer
  • Uses flight crew entered data, systems data and FMS nav database to calculate present position and pitch, roll and thrust commands required to fly optimum route
  • Sends these commands to auto-throttle, AFDS and Auto-pilot.
101
Q

What type of navigation is the FMS certified for?

A
  • RNAV when used with GPS or radio updating
  • Able to do RNAV(RNP) approaches
  • Supplement all other types of approaches (help with VOR/DME/ILS
102
Q

What are the components of the FMS? What systems can the FMS provide commands to?

A
  • Flight management computers
  • CDU’s
  • Auto-pilot flight director system
  • Thrust management (auto-throttle)
  • IRS
103
Q

What does FANS stand for?

A

Future air navigation system

104
Q

What are the main components of an aircraft?`

A
  • Semi-monocoque fuselage
  • Main plane
  • Tail plane and fin
  • Landing gear
  • Powerplant(s)
105
Q

What are the main structural components of a wing?

A
  • Wing spar
  • Wing rib
  • Stringers
  • Skin
106
Q

What are the different types of fuel quantity indicating gauges? How does each work?

A
  • Float diven pinter
  • Float driven rod
  • Electrical ratiometer (DC current)
  • Electronic capacitance type
107
Q

What is the principle of operation of the electronic capacitance type fuel indicator?

A
  • Electronic capacitors installed in the fuel tanks
  • Air and fuel have different capacitance values
  • Capacitance of all probes the tank are totalled and compared in a bridge circuit by a microprocessor, which displays fuel indication
  • Capacitance varies with capacitor surface area, distance between two and the dielectric constant of the fluid between. (only fluid level changes)
  • Capacitance varies with temp/density so a compensator is included that will always be covered in fuel
  • System is calibrated to indicate fuel mass
108
Q

What are the different types of Rotary Hydraulic actuators?

A
  • Piston type
  • Vane type
  • Rack and pinion type
109
Q

How many parameters can the FDR record?

A

48-300

110
Q

What is the relationship between height AGL and the frequency shift in the RADALT?

A

Frequency changes by 40 Hz per foot

Not MHz

111
Q

What is the principle of operation of the pulse modulation RADALT?

A
  • Operate at 1600MHz
  • Uses echo principle
  • Emits signal, and times the duration for it to reach the surface and return
  • Performs calculation with known speed and measured time to determine distance

Part 3 Systems (3 decks)

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