ER Pearls Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

2nd MC joint to dislocate

done by abducting and externally rotating arm

high re-dislocation rate in young people and athletes (90%)

A

Shoulder dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should you Xray a shoulder dislocation?

A

BEFORE and AFTER reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

External rotation technique
Scapular rotation technique
Stimson’s technique
Traction counter-traction

A

Ways to reduce shoulder dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 people required

common for muscular pts/dislocated for long periods of time

A

Traction Counter-Traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Stimson’s technique?

A

Lying prone with weight attached to arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Immobilize with sling, swath
Get post reduction films
Circulatory and sensory status (axillary N.)
Advise pt to avoid abduction and external rotation (ie brushing hair)

A

Steps following shoulder reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ALWAYS follow up with ortho
Immbolization for 2-4 weeks
PT

*older pts at risk for developing adhesive capsulitis

A

Shoulder dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. inflammatory phase
  2. proliferative phase
  3. remodeling phase
A

phases of wound healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Immediate to 2-5 days

Hemostasis: vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, thromboplastin makes clot

A

Inflammatory phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In the ______ phase, bacteria and debris are phagocytosed and removed, and factors are released that cause the migration and division of cells involved in the proliferative phase.

A

Inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the _________ phase characterized by angiogenesis, collagen deposition, granulation tissue formation, epithelialization, and wound contraction.

A

proliferative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 days-3 weeks

Granulation
Contraction
Epithelialization

A

Proliferative phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 weeks-2 years

New collage forms which increases tensile strength to wounds

A

Remodeling phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Scar tissue is only ___% as strong as original tissue

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Wound edges are approximated at or close to the time of injury

Typically allows for the best cosmetic result to follow

Best performed on wounds that are ‘clean’ and uncomplicated

A

Primary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Wound is not surgically closed

Allowed to heal on own through granulation and re-epitheliazation

Often allowed for abscesses, fight bites or other dirty wounds

May be chosen as closure method for wounds >12 hrs old

A

Second intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Delayed primary closure or secondary suture

Pt’s wound is intentionally left open for 1-several days and then surgically closed.

Often done to allow tissue edema to reduce (orthopedic injuries)

Often chosen for wounds with a likely chance of infection (ab. incision post ruptured appendix etc.)

A

Tertiary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or False…

Road rash must be scrubbed and washed thoroughly to prevent “tattooing” (esp on the face)

“ragged” edges should be debrided or trimmed with scissors

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or False

you can use a temporary tourniquet during suture repair

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How should you use antibotics with lacerations?

A

Sparingly!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the time frame you can suture in?

A

6-12 hours (controversial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Initial dressing is often left on for..

A

24-48 hours

*second dressing applied back in office

23
Q

Advise pts to avoid sun/use sunblock post injury to avoid…

A

hyperpigmentation at site

24
Q

Time frame for suture removal of:

face, extremities, hands, feet?

25
A collection of blood between the nailbed and the fingernail \*painful \*usually the result of a crush type injury \*often results in nail deformities \*often associated with distal phalanx tuft fracture
Subungal hematomas
26
Tx used in subungal hematomas Can dramatically reduce pain May save nail Always indicated in hematomas\>50% of nailbed May be indicated in hematomas\<50% depending on pain level
Nail trephination
27
**Sedation and analgesia administered to pts for the benefit of facilitating diagnostic or therapeutic interventions** IV typical but IM can be utilized Pharmacologic agents used alone or in combination produce a depressed level of consciousness while the pt still can maintain patent airway and airway reflexes (i.e. gag)
Conscious sedation
28
Desired effects= Relaxation Cooperation Maintains protective airway reflexes Purposeful responses to verbal or tactile commands Safe return to baseline and ambulatory D/C
Conscious sedation
29
Benzos Narcotics Dissociative agents Hypnotics ...drugs typically used for..?
Conscious sedation
30
Can be used in conscious sedation \*these drugs are **sedatives and hypnotics** They help with anxiolysis, sedation and amnesia Midazolam, Diazepam, Lorazepam
Benzos
31
All produce **anterograde** amnesia All produce tranquility All produce drowsiness all CAN produce respiratory depression
Benzos
32
Will last 20-40 mins Will reverse respiratory depression caused by narcotics May potentiate aggression
Narcan
33
This dissociate agent has an onset of 10 mins often choice with pediatric population who need sedation
Ketamine
34
Short acting, IV hypnotic drug **shortest recovery time**
Propofol
35
MC cause of abscesses?
Staph Aureus
36
Definitive treatment…….scalpel! If not drainable initiate antibiotic therapy and recheck in 24-48 hrs. If incised, drained and packed antibiotic therapy remains controversial but typically prescribed.
Abscesses
37
If treated correctly, when is the only time an abscess pt should be discomfort?
during initial anesthetization
38
Where should you cut into an abscess?
at the apex
39
Inflammation of the nail fold Can be accute or chronic More frequent in smokers
Paronychia
40
MC cause of paronychia
Staph aureus
41
Warm soaks can be used 3 or 4 times a day for acute paronychia Antibiotics such as Cephalexin or Dicloxacillin. Bactrim/Doxy /Clinda if MRSA suspected (obtain Cx perhaps)
Paronychia
42
Do topical abx or anti-bacterial ointments work for paronychia?
NO
43
Treatment of choice for paronychia on toe involving an ingrown toe nail
Wedge resection
44
Radial head subluxation (nursemaid elbow) is seen in kids...
under 5
45
Proximal radius is held in proximity to the ulna by a ligament known as the _______ ligament
annular
46
Which ligament is displaced in nursemaid's elbow?
Annular
47
Kid usually holds arm at side in a semi extension, NOT 90 degree flexion
Nursemaid elbow
48
2 motions to do when reducing nursemaids elbow
Flex Supinate
49
50
Child should exhibit spontanous and full ROM of affected arm within..
10-15 mns post reduction (nursemaids elbow)
51
As the joint moves into plantar flexion, the talus becomes narrower, resulting in decreased stability This combined with inversion can create a set up for...
dislocation of the ankle
52
Because of the force involved with ankle dislocations, what else is typically seen with it?
Fractures!! | (and neurovascular is main priority)
53
most common type of ankle dislocation?
Posterior
54
plantar flexion and axial traction 1st downward pressure on tibia 2nd anterior replacement
reduction of ankle dislocation