Equity Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Three main functions of the financial system:

A
  1. Allow entities to save/borrow money, raise equity capital, manage risks, trade assets currently or in the future, and trade based on estimates of asset values.
  2. Determine the returns (i.e., interest rates) that equate the total supply of savings with the total demand for borrowing.
  3. Allocate capital to its most efficient uses.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Preferred stock

A

an equity security with scheduled dividends that typically do not change over the security’s life and must be paid before any dividends on common stock may be paid (similar to a bond)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Warrants

A

the right to purchase a company’s stock at a specific price and at a specific date - issued directly by a company to an investor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Block brokers

A

help with the placement of large trades.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An information trader

A

expects to earn a positive risk-adjusted return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An investor

A

expects to earn fair (equilibrium) returns over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

‘buy on margin’

A

using borrowed funds to purchase equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

‘margin loan’

A

the borrowed funds used to purchase equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

‘call money rate’

A

the interest rate paid on borrowed funds used to purchase equity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Initial margin requirement

A

minimum equity % at time of purchase

equity % = (stock value - loan) / stock value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maintenance margin

A

minimum equity % after purchase

equity % = (stock value - loan) / stock value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Leverage ratio

A

1 / initial margin

e.g. if the leverage ratio is 2.5 (40% equity, 60% loan, 1/0.4 = 2.5) a return of 10% on the stock would result in a return of 25% return to the investor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Margin call

A

Occurs when equity < maintenance margin (i.e. when the value of an investment falls and the debt proportion of the deal represents too much in relation to equity).

In this scenario, the investor must add cash or marginable securities, or close the position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Margin-call / trigger price

A

Initial purchase price * ( ( 1 - initial margin ) / ( 1 - maintenance margin ) )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

market order

A

instructs the broker to execute the trade immediately at the best possible price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

limit order

A

places a minimum execution price on sell orders and a maximum execution price on buy orders.

These can either ‘make the market’, be ‘behind the market’ or be ‘far from the market’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All-or-nothing orders

A

deals with the volume of trade - only executed if the whole order can be filled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hidden orders

A

deals with the visibility of the trade - hidden orders are those for which only the broker or exchange knows the trade size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

display size/iceberg orders

A

where only some of the trade is visible to the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Immediate-or-cancel / fill-or-kill orders

A

cancelled unless they can be filled immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Good-on-close orders

A

Executed at end of trading day

e.g. market-on close orders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stop / stop-loss orders

A

executed unless the stop price has been met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

indications of interest

A

Investors, identified by the investment bank, who agree to buy part of the issue of a public offering.

This is described as book building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

private placement

A

securities are sold directly to qualified investors, typically with the assistance of an investment bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

shelf registration

A

enables an equity issuer to issue securities bit by bit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

dividend reinvestment plan

A

allows existing shareholders to use their dividends to buy new shares from the firm at a slight discount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

rights offering

A

existing shareholders are given the right to buy new shares at a discount to the current market price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

call and continuous markets

A

Call: the stock is only traded at specific times
Continuous: trades occur at any time the market is open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

With respect to a well-functioning securities market, a market that exhibits operational efficiency will have

A

low transaction costs and liquid markets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

operationally efficient market

A

low transaction costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Informational efficiency

A

prices in the market reflect all information currently available to participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Price continuity

A

prices do not adjust much from one transaction to the next unless new information about firm value becomes available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

An order placed to protect a short position is called a:

A

stop loss buy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

stop loss buy

A

A limit order that is placed above the market price. When the stock price reaches the stop price, the stock is sold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When is a limit buy order behind the market

A

if its limit price is below the best bid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When is a limit sell order behind the market

A

if its limit price is above the best ask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Securitizers

A

Financial intermediaries that assemble large pools of similar financial assets, such as mortgages or loans, and issue securities that represent interests in the pool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A crossing network

A

an example of an order-driven market. Orders are batched together and crossed (matched) at specific times during the trading day at prices based on those of another exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

pre- and post-market transparency

A

Pre-market transparency: if investors can obtain pre-trade information regarding quotes and orders

Post-market transparency: if investors can obtain post-trade information regarding completed prices and sizes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Characteristics of a well-functioning financial system

A
  • Investors are able to save for the future at fair rates of return
  • Creditworthy borrowers can obtain funds
  • Hedgers can manage their risks
  • Traders can obtain the assets they need
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Objectives of market regulation

A
  • protect unsophisticated investors
  • require a minimum standard of competency and make it easier for investors to evaluate performance
  • prevent insiders from exploiting other investors
  • require common financial reporting requirements so information gathering is less expensive
  • require minimum levels of capital
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Problems that persist within financial markets

A
  • fraud + theft
  • insider trading
  • costly information
  • defaults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

price index

A

uses only prices in the return calculation

price return: (end price / bgn price) -1

44
Q

return index

A

uses both prices and income in the return calculation (‘total return’)

total return: ( (end value + cash flows) / bgn value) - 1

45
Q

Index Construction Decisions

A
  • What market does the index represent?
  • Which securities to include?
  • What weighting method to use?
  • When to re-balance the weighting?
  • When will the index’s securities be re-examined?
46
Q

price-weighted index

A

sum of stock prices / # of stocks in index

Purchase an equal number of shares of each stock.
∴ changes in stocks with a higher price, have a higher impact on the price of the index.
- e.g. DJIA and Nikkei Dow Jones average

47
Q

market-cap weighted index

A

(current total market value of index stocks / base year total value of index stocks) * base year index

Match portfolio weights to each stock’s % total market value of index stocks.
∴ firms with larger market caps have larger influence on index.

‘Momentum tilt’: overpriced stocks have higher weights and more influence in the value-weighted index

48
Q

market float-weighted index

A

an index that excludes any shares not available to the public

49
Q

free float index

A

an index that excludes any shares not available to foreign investors

50
Q

fundamental weighted index

A

weightings are based on firm fundamentals (such as earnings, dividends or cash flow).

  • unaffected by changes in share prices
  • tend to have a ‘value tilt’: overweighting firms with high value-based metrics.
51
Q

Index reconstitution

A

adding and deleting securities from an index periodically

52
Q

Rebalancing

A

adjusting index weights to target weights periodically

53
Q

uses of an index (6)

A
  • reflection of market sentiment
  • performance benchmark
  • measure of market return
  • calculate beta
  • calculate expected and risk-adjusted returns
  • model portfolio for index funds
54
Q

Equal weighting is the most common weighting methodology for indexes of which of the following types of assets?

A

Hedge funds

Most hedge fund indexes are equal-weighted. Equity and fixed income indexes are predominately market capitalization weighted.

55
Q

An informationally efficient capital market

A

where the price of an asset reflects all available information

  • in a perfect market, investors should invest through passive strategies
56
Q

Factors affecting market efficiency

A
  • number of market participants
  • availability of information
  • impediments to trading
  • transactions and information costs
57
Q

weak form efficiency

A

prices reflect market information only

58
Q

semistrong efficiency

A

prices reflect market info + public (non-market) info

59
Q

strong efficiency

A

prices reflect market info + public (non-market) info + private info

60
Q

market anomalies

A

observed market efficiencies

61
Q

Technical analysis

A

Aims to achieve positive risk-adjusted returns using historical price and volume data

(not possible in weak-form efficient markets as info used for technical analysis is already priced into the stock)

62
Q

Fundamental analysis

A

Aims to achieve positive risk-adjusted returns using all public data.

(not possible in semi-strong efficient markets as info used for fundamental analysis is already priced into the stock)

63
Q

Event study

A

A method of testing for semi-strong market efficiency. Event studies examine abnormal (risk-adjusted) returns before and after the release of new information (e.g. earnings announcements / dividend changes).

The null hypothesis: investors are unable to achieve positive risk-adjusted returns based on firm events because these are immediately priced into assets.

64
Q

Calendar effects (time series anomalies):

A
  • lower January returns
  • lower returns on a Monday, higher on Friday (weekend effect)
  • higher turn-of-month returns
65
Q

Overreaction effects (time series anomalies):

A
  • prices inflated after good news
66
Q

Momentum effects (time series anomalies):

A
  • prices that go up, still going up
67
Q

Size effects (cross-sectional anomalies):

A
  • small-cap stocks outperform large cap-stocks
68
Q

Value effects (cross-sectional anomalies):

A
  • value stocks outperforming growth stocks
69
Q

Loss aversion

A

Risk aversion is asymmetric - losses more significant than gains

70
Q

information cascades

A

uninformed investors mimic actions of informed investors (this IMPROVES market efficiency)

71
Q

A limitation of a fully efficient market

A

The gains to be earned by information trading can be less than the transaction costs the trading would entail

72
Q

Sponsored depository receipts

A

Firm is involved with issue of the DR

  • same voting and dividend rights as shareholders
  • greater reporting requirements
73
Q

Unsponsored depository receipts

A

Firm not involved with issue of DR

- depository (bank) buys shares in foreign market and retains voting rights

74
Q

Global depository receipts

A
  • issued ex-US

- underlying shares traded outside of US

75
Q

American depositary receipts

A
  • issued ex-US

- underlying shares traded on US exchanges

76
Q

Global registered shares

A

identical common shares that trade in local currencies on stock exchanges worldwide

77
Q

Baskets of listed depositary receipts

A

a traded portfolio of depository receipts (in form of ETF)

78
Q

Cost of equity

A

Estimated total return on a stock (different to ROE as it considers the market value of stock)

= ( DPS / PPS ) * g

79
Q

Most risky type of share

A

Callable shares: these give the investor the right to re-purchase the shares in rising markets - limiting the gains for the investor.

80
Q

industry rotation

A

overweighting / underweighting particular industries based on phase of business cycle

81
Q

cyclical firms

A

follow trend of business cycle

82
Q

A firm’s earnings are most likely to be cyclical if:

A

the firm produces luxury items.

Producers of luxury items tend to have cyclical earnings because consumers typically decrease their purchases of these items during economic recessions. The earnings of firms with high percentages of variable costs are not as likely to be cyclical as those of firms with high percentages of fixed costs (i.e., high operating leverage). A growth industry has demand that is strong enough that earnings remain relatively unaffected by the business cycle.

83
Q

Porter’s five forces of industry competition

A
  1. Rivalry amongst existing competitors
  2. Threat of entry
  3. Threat of substitutes
  4. Power of buyers
  5. Power of suppliers
84
Q

embryonic stage

A
  • slow growth
  • high prices
  • large investment required
  • high risk of failure
85
Q

growth stage

A
  • rapid growth
  • little competition
  • falling prices
  • increasing profitability
86
Q

shakeout stage

A
  • slowing growth
  • intense competition
  • industry overcapacity
  • declining profitability
  • cost cutting
  • increased failures
87
Q

mature stage

A
  • slow growth
  • consolidation
  • high barriers to entry
  • stable pricing
  • opportunity to gain market share
88
Q

stock dividend

A

Payment to shareholders in shares of stock, as opposed to cash. As a result there are more shares outstanding, but each one is worth less than before.

A 20% stock dividend means every shareholder gets 20% more stock proportionate to their current shareholding.

89
Q

Stock split

A

Divides each existing share into multiple shares, creating more shares. You can also have ‘reverse stock splits’ where there are fewer shares after the split.

In a 3-for-1 stock split, each old share is split into three new shares.

90
Q

Share repurchase

A

When a company buys outstanding shares of its own common stock, as a result the remaining shares held by shareholders increase in value. Seen as an alternative to cash dividends.

91
Q

Four dates in a payment of a dividend

A
  1. Declaration date (approval of dividend)
  2. Ex-dividend date (the first day at which the share purchaser will not receive the dividend for the prior period, ∴ the share price of the firm will fall on this day by the amount of dividend)
  3. Record date (the date the company checks to see who is eligible for the dividend)
  4. Payment date (dividend paid)
92
Q

Free Cash Flow to Equity

A

= CFO + FCInv - net borrowing

cash available to shareholders after a firm meets its debt and capital exp

93
Q

estimating growth rate (g) in the constant growth rate model (DDM)

A

retention rate (RR) * ROE

RR = ( 1 - dividend payout ratio)

94
Q

price multiples based on comparables

A

comparing multiples with industry multiples

95
Q

price multiples based on fundamentals

A

comparing multiples with multiples in a valuation model (not market)

96
Q

Enterprise value

A

total market value of firm

= mkt value of c. stock + mkt value of debt - ( cash + short-term investments)

97
Q

EV / EBITDA ratios useful when:

A
  • firms have difficult capital structures

- earnings are negative and p/e cannot be used

98
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of present value valuation models (e.g. DDM)

A

✓ theoretically sound
✓ widely accepted

✖ inputs must be estimated
✖ valuation can be very sensitive to input values

99
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of multiplier models (e.g. P/E)

A

✓ widely used
✓ easily calculated
✓ time-series / cross sectional analysis

✖ differences in accounting methods, comparisons
✖ multiples for cyclical companies highly variable

100
Q

internal growth rate

A

retention ratio * ROE

101
Q

equity multiplier / total leverage

A

TA / TE

102
Q

Roles of dealers, brokers and investment banks

A

Dealers: maintain inventories of securities and buy them from and sell them to investors.
Brokers: do not trade directly with clients but find buyers for and sellers of securities to execute customer orders
Investment banks: are primarily involved in assisting with the issuance of new securities.

103
Q

validity instruction

A

An instruction regarding when to fill an order

104
Q

the disposition effect

A

investors tend to avoid realizing losses and seek to realize gains

105
Q

The gambler’s fallacy

A

a behavioural bias in which recent outcomes affect investors’ estimates of future probabilities.