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Equipment > Equip Summery > Flashcards

Equip Summery Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Ampere’s law.

A

An electric current produces a magnetic field perpendicular to the flow direction.

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2
Q

What speeds do radiowaves travel at?

A

300 million metres per second

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3
Q

Can radio waves travel through a vacuum?

A

Yes

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4
Q

What is a cycle?

A

Each time a wave travels from 0 up, down and back to 0. Know as a cycle.

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5
Q

Define amplitude

A

Max displacement or value attained by the wave from its mean value during a cycle.

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6
Q

What is a wavelength?

A

Distance in metres or part of a metre between corresponding points in a consecutive wave.

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7
Q

Define Frequency

A

The rate of repetition of the cycle in one second

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8
Q

What is a Hurt (Hz)?

A

One cycle per second is known as a hert

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9
Q

How many hertz in a Kilohertz
Megahertz
Gigahertz

A

1,000
1,000,000
1,000,000,000

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10
Q

The longer the wavelength the ________ the frequency

A

Lower

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11
Q

What device produces modulate wave?

A

The local oscillator

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12
Q

What are the two types of Modulation?

A

AM and FM

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13
Q

3 advantages of FM?

A

1) Resilient to Noise
2) Easy to apply Modulation at a low power
3) Use of efficient RF amplifiers

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14
Q

Advantages of AM?

A

1) Stronger stations can override weaker stations

2) creates a Heterodyne if multiple stations transmit at once

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15
Q

What part of the wave is used for a half-wave Aerial ?

A

Top positive part of the cycle?

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16
Q

What part of the wave is used for a quarter wave aerial?

A

90 degree cycle

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17
Q

If you half the wave length you must _________ the power to get the same range?

A

Double

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18
Q

What is attenuation?

A

When a radio-wave reduces in strength with range or time from the point of transmission

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19
Q

What 2 things cause attenuation?

A

1) Expanding Wave Front

2) medium through which the wave passes resists the passage of energy passing through it.

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20
Q

As a signal is attenuated its _________ decreases but _______ and _________ remain unchanged

A

Amplitude
Wavelength
Frequency

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21
Q

Which frequency is more attenuated, High or Low?

A

High

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22
Q

Radio waves are divided according to frequency of transmission into internationally recognised bands called?

A

Wave bands

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23
Q

What is the frequency spectrum and wavelength size for VLF?

A

3-30KHz

100km-10km

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24
Q

What is the frequency spectrum and wavelength size for EHF?

A

30-300GHz

1cm-1mm

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25
Q

Which frequencies are Line of Site and which follow the curvature of the earth?

A

High frequencies LoS

Low frequencies Curve

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26
Q

Which frequencies are best for long range communications?

A

Low

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27
Q

What waveband does NDB use?

A

Low/medium frequency

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28
Q

What waveband does RTF/VOR/VDF/ILS And Surveillance Radar use?

A

Very/Ultra High Frequency

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29
Q

Which waveband is prone to severe attenuation?

A

S/EHF

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30
Q

Which waveband is prone to static?

A

VLF

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31
Q

Which waveband is prone to Diurnal Variation?

A

HF

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32
Q

What meteorological conditions cause Ducting?

A

A marked temperature inversion plus a rapid decrease in humidity may form a duct.

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33
Q

What 3 frequencies suffer from ducting in particular?

A

VHF
UHF
SHF

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34
Q

Explain antenna shadowing

A

When the radio wave is above the aircraft and does above the curvature of the earth

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35
Q

Explain low frequency propagation characteristics

A

Low frequencies will bend around objects and be heard at a great distance.

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36
Q

Low frequency means less attenuation. True or False?

A

True.

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37
Q

What does RADAR stand for?

A

RAdio
Detection
And
Ranging

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38
Q

How is the position of the object that reflects radio energy determined?

A

1) Direction the Aerial was pointing

2) Time between Transmitting

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39
Q

What part of the the waveband spectrum is Radar part of?

A

1mm-100cm

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40
Q

How many pulses does a radar transmit? And what is the equivalent range?

A

1200 pulses

67nm

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41
Q

What is ground Clutter?

A

Reflections from an object

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42
Q

What does PE stand for?

A

Permanent Echoes

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43
Q

What causes Weather clutter?

A

Reflection of the pulse from the rain drops

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44
Q

Define PSR Blip

A

A visual indication in non-symbolic form on a situational display of the position of the aircraft obtained by Primary Radar

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45
Q

What wavelength does the SMR/Weather Radar use?

A

2-3cm

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46
Q

What wavelength does Primary Approach Radar use?

A

3-10cm

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47
Q

What wavelength does Primary Area Radar use?

A

23-50cm

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48
Q

Define Position Indicator

A

Visual indication in non-symbolic and/or symbolic on a situation display of the position of an aircraft, AD, vehicle or other object.

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49
Q

Define Position Symbol

A

Visual indication in symbolic form on a situation display, of the position of the aircraft

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50
Q

Define Radar Contact

A

The situation which exists when the Radar position of a particular aircraft is seen and identified on a situation display

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51
Q

Define Radar Control

A

Indicates that radar delivered information is employed directly in the provision of ATC services

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52
Q

Define Situation Display

A

An electronic display depicting the position and movement of aircraft and other information as required.

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53
Q

What are the 3 basic blocks of radar?

A

Transmission
Reception
Display

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54
Q

What is a duplexer?

A

A transceiver but can only do one at a time.

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55
Q

Describe the Trigger unit

A

Output

Initiated action pulses at regular intervals

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56
Q

Describe the Modulator

A

When triggered fires high power high voltage pulses to transmitter
(On/off switch transmitter)

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57
Q

Describe the High gain low noise receiver

A

Amplifies weak return signal

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58
Q

Describe the Time based unit

A

Used to calculate range

59
Q

What does SSR stand for?

A

Secondary surveillance Radar

60
Q

How does SSR work?

A

A system of radar using ground interrogators and airborne transponders to determine the position of the aircraft in range and azimuth.

Wen agreed Modes and codes are used

61
Q

What frequency are the ground interrogators and Transposers on?

A

1030MHz

1090MHz (Trans)

62
Q

Wavelength used for SSR?

A

30cm

63
Q

How does the aircraft know the difference between the Mode A and Mode C pulses?

A

The timing of the pulses

64
Q

What information does Mode A and Mode C provide

A

SQK (Position)

Vertical position

65
Q

How many “Bits” are in Mode A?

A

12 bits

66
Q

What numbers are used in a SQK?

A

0-7

67
Q

What are maximum SQK codes?

A

4096

68
Q

Name the 3 categories of codes(squawks)

A

1) Discrete- individual a/c
2) Non-Discrete-single codes issued to numerous aircraft (7000)
3) Special Codes-Applied by a/c on certain occasions (7700)

69
Q

What does ORCAM stand for

A 
Originating 
Region
Code
Assignment 
Method
70
Q

What does PA stand for and how many PAs in Europe Region?

A

Participating Areas

5 PAs

71
Q

How many SQK blocks are ACCs issues?

How are they divided?

A

2 blocks

1 for domestic flights
1 for international (ORCAM) Flights

72
Q

Do discrete codes include special purpose ones eg 0020

A

Yes

73
Q

How many bits does Mode C use? And are 8 and 9 read?

A

11 bits

Yes

74
Q

Define Garbling

A

False codes displayed if aircraft are so close to each other their response to Mode A interrogator overlap

75
Q

What does FRUIT stand for?

A 
False 
Replies
In-synchronised 
In
Time
76
Q

What is FRUIT?

A

Asynchronous interferences , which arise from replies not triggered by the Interrogator

77
Q

How is FRUIT and Garbling stopped?

A

DeFruiter

DeGarbler

78
Q

The benefits of Monopulse SSR

A

Improves clarity and accuracy

Reduces FUIT and Garbling

79
Q

What is a Monopulse SSR?

A

A single pulse used averaging measurements made on several or all pulses received in reply from aircraft

80
Q

List the factors that effect radar coverage

7 of them.

A

1) Aerial size/shape/height above ground
2)Size of Target (PSR)
3) Atmospheric conditions
4)Transmitter Power
5) Receiver Efficiency
6)Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF)
[PSR]
7) Pulse length

81
Q

What is the usual beam requirement in ATC?

A

Narrow in Azimuth

Wide in elevation

82
Q

What is usual beam width?

A

2-3 degrees

83
Q

If a narrow beam is required aerial dimensions must be_______

A

Large

84
Q

Radars use “Cosecant Squared” to avoid wasting energy. True or False?

A

True

85
Q

What will a vertical coverage diagram display?

A

Theoretical coverage of the display

86
Q

What 3 factors does a vertical coverage diagram take into account?

A

1) General design factors
2) Environment Conditions
3) Atmospheric Conditions

87
Q

What does a unit coverage diagram display?

A

Actual coverage of a radar system after being installed at a specific location.

Considers local terrain

88
Q

What does Anoprop do?

A

Can produce radar echoes from below normal

Cover and from ranges in excess of those allowed for in the design of the Radar

89
Q

Why must PRF be lowered

A

It must be low enough to accommodate the required maximum range

90
Q

Explain PRF

A

The higher the rate the more hits on a target and the stronger and more recognisable the return

91
Q

What does circular polarisation do?

A

Removes weather clutter

92
Q

How does circular polarisation work?

A

The EMF is reflected and is reversed by reflection from aspherical objects

93
Q

What is the problem with circular polarisation

A

Receiver can be gated to ignore returns that allow aircraft to be seen

94
Q

Is MTI fitted to PSR or SSR?

A

PSR

95
Q

What does MTI do?

A

Displays moving targets and rejects echoes from fixed targets (removes ground clutter)

96
Q

How does tangential fading occur

A

When moving tangentially to the radar beam. Won’t happen if you move radially to the beam

97
Q

What happens aircraft flies directly towards/away from the radar?

A

Blind Velocity will occur (cancellation of the blip)

98
Q

List the 4 ways data is transmitted?

A

1) Microwave
2) Satellite
3) Line of Site
4) Telephone/Fibre Optics

99
Q

Coaxial cables cover log or short distances?

A

Small

And signal deteriorates rapidly

100
Q

Radio link operates in which frequency band and are used for what distance?

A

UHF n SHF

Long distances

101
Q

Telephone link may be used for considerably long distances if they are of sufficient higher grade and is being sent in a processed form (e.g. digital from a plot extractor) True or False?

A

True

102
Q

Fibre optics are used over relatively ________ distances. Used to connect radar site to the tower, True or False?

A

Short

True

103
Q

What are Radar Sort Boxes?

A

Columns of air from the ground which are covered by multiple radars

104
Q

What are the dimensions of Radar Sort Boxes?

A

16nm x 16nm

105
Q

How many radar systems per Radar Sort Boxes

A

4

106
Q

In a radar box set the radars are grouped into

A

Preferred
Supplementary
Reserved

107
Q

What does Mode S mean

A

Selected

108
Q

How many bits does Mode S use and how many codes?

A

24 bits

16.75 million codes

109
Q

What are the two phases of Mode S

A

Acquisition Phase:

interrogator looks for new Mode S transponders and retains in memory

Addressed Surveillance Phase:

Mode S interrogated individually for identification, Altitude, Information. Using longer communications.

110
Q

Mode S TCAS

Explain

A

Air to Air transponder communication exchange of data for collision avoidance

111
Q

What does TCAS calculate?

A

Closest point of approach and produces two level warnings

112
Q

What are the two stages of Mode S

A 
Elementary Surveillance (ELS)
Enhanced Surveillance (EHS)
113
Q

What does Mode S multilateration do?

A

Provides accurate surveillance and identification of all transponder equipped a/c on the airport surface

114
Q

What does ADS-B stand for?

A

Automatic
Dependent
Surveillance
Broadcast

115
Q

What does ADS-B do?

A

Obtains horizont/Vertical Position, Velocity as well as other information

116
Q

Who can sue ADS-B?

A

Vehicles and aircraft

117
Q

Frequency of ADS-B extended squitter?

A

1090MHz

118
Q

What information is displayed on a ELS display? (5 things)

A 
Callsign 
SQK
Level
POS 
Track history
119
Q

What information is displayed on an EHS display?

A 
Callsign 
Speed (Ground+IAS)
Level
Magnetic Heading
Vertical Rate
Selected Altitude
120
Q

What are the two types of ADS-B messages?

A

Primary:

  • Position
  • Airborne Velocity
  • Aircraft Identity

On Event

  • Trajectory
  • Status
  • Test
121
Q

Maximum updates permit on ADS-B?

How are they divided?

A 
6.2 mps 
2 Position Messages
2 Velocity Messages 
2 on event messages per second 
0.2 flight identity
122
Q

Maximum and minimum accuracy of ADS-B?

A

7.5m

>20nm

123
Q

What are the 3 types of ADS-C contracts?

A

1) Periodic
2) Demand
3) Event Contract

124
Q

How does MLAT work?

A

MLAT antennae on the ground receive broadcast from aircraft and vehicles with Mode S transponders

125
Q

How does MLAT determine the position of the aircraft?

A

Time
Difference
Of
Arrival

(TDOA)

126
Q

Short range MLAT can be used to enhance or replace more old fashioned SMR.
True or False?

A

True

127
Q

What is WAM used for?

A

Surveillance of large volumes of airspace

128
Q

Pros and Cons of MLAT

A

Pros:
Cheap
Rapid updates/greater coverage/ Fill gaps

Cons:
Only detects aircraft win with Mode S transponders

129
Q

What are the 5 advantages of PSR?

A

1) Self contained
2) Independent Operation (ident n fix)
3) Non reliant
4) PEs for calibration
5) Weather Information

130
Q

Cons of PSR

List all 6

A

1) No level info
2) Identification is hard
3) Weather Clutter
4) PEs
5) Range dependent
6) No emergency indication

131
Q

Pros SSR

A

1) less Transmitter power
2) No clutter
3) Identification of aircraft
4) Vertical Position Information
5) Emergency SQK
6) Independent If equivalent Echoing Area

132
Q

Cons SSR

A

1) All A/C require transponder
2) No weather
3) Fruiting
4) Garbling
5) Fading
6) No PEs

133
Q

What does CPDLC stand for

A 
Controller
Pilot
Data
Link
Communications
134
Q

What is a FMS?

A

A computerised avionics components to assist in navigation flight planning and aircraft control functions

135
Q

What is a FMS made out of?

A

FMC
AFS
Navigation

136
Q

What was CPDLC created for?

A

Reducing RTF on oceanic routes

137
Q

Benefits of CPDLC

A
  • Flight crew can print messages
  • allows auto load of uplink messages
  • Allows crew to downlink complex route clearances
138
Q

CPDLC and ADS similarities

A

1) accept messages from the ground receivers
2) both Controlled by FMS
3) Both data link Applications

139
Q

What is SELCAL?

A

It is selective calling

Replaces RTF by coded tones

140
Q

What does ACARS stand for?

A 
Aircraft 
Communications
Addressing and 
Reporting 
Systems
141
Q

What is ACARS used for?

A

A data link system for the manual or automatic transmission of messages between aircraft and ground stations

142
Q

ACARS messages may be of three types based up their content:

A
  • Air Traffic Control
  • Aeronautical Operation Control
  • Airline Administrative Control
143
Q

List the priorities

For AFTN messages

A

1) SS
2) DD or FF
3) GG or KK

Equipment (14 decks)

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