Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Module 16 > Equine Dentistry 2 > Flashcards

Equine Dentistry 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is periodontal disease

A

progressive disease in which tissue surrounding affecting teeth is destroyed until eventually teeth may be lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the most common cause of periodontal disease

A

mechanical impaction of food between and around teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the cycle of periodontal disease

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does food become impacted between the teeth

A

diastema allows food to become impacted between teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are diastemas

A

abnormal spaces between adjacent teeth that should normally be tight in occlusal apposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the two types of diastema

A
  1. valve diastema
  2. open diastema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are valve diastema

A

the space between adjacent teeth is wider near the margin of gum than the occlusal surface

creates a one way valve, where food becomes trapped between teeth, but cannot escape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is an open diastema

A

the space between adjacent teeth is of equal width from the occlusal surface to the margin of the gum

food can enter and leave the space easily and is less likely to become trapped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the most common teeth that are affected by diastema

A

caudal mandibular cheek teeth

between triadan 09 and 10s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

why are diastema painful oral diseases

A

due to concurrent gingivitis and periodontal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are causes of diastema (4)

A
  1. misalignment or overcrowding of teeth due to the presence of supernumerary or dysplastic teeth
  2. reduction in crown diameter as horses age, resulting in a loss of rostrocaudal compression of a dental arcade
  3. large dental overgrowths displacing apposing teeth
  4. dental extraction resulting in diastema formulation due to subsequent dental drift
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how are diastema initially treated

A

removal of all food material from diastema is the single most important aspect of treatment

then dental equilibration should be performed to remove opposing sharp enamel points and excessive transverse ridges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how is diastema treated following the removal of teeth

A

diastema should be temprorary packed with dental dressings to prevent re-impaction of food while the periodontum heals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how are diastema managed long term

A

diastema odontoplasty: widening with a motorized burr (3mm groove in the interdental space to reduce occlusal forces from opposing teeth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when should a diastema odontoplasty

A

3-4 weeks after initial treatment, especially if initial treatment is ineffective at treating periodontal disease

there is great risk of a iatrogenic damage to pulp horns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how are diastema managed with diet

A

eliminate or remove consumption of food containing long fibres (hay or haylage) as they become trapped easier

short fibre foods (<5mm) such as chopped grass, alfalfa and some grain

grazing should be encouraged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

why do horses on short fibre diets need more frequent floating

A

short fibres alter the masticatory action of horses, causing them to chew with a more vertical than lateral mandibular action, encouraging cheek teeth enamel overgrowths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what other things can cause periodontal disease

A

dental calculus (tartar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are dental caries

A

the result of demineralization of calcified (inorganic) dental tissues and eventual destruction of the organic component of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the two types of dental caries

A
  1. infundibular caries
  2. peripheral caries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are infundibular caries

A

caries of the infundibulae of maxillary cheek teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are peripheral caries

A

caries of the outside surface of teeth especially of the caudal three cheek teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what type of dental carie is this

A

infundibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what type of dental carie is this

A

peripheral carie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what causes infundibular caries

A

acids formed during bacterial fermentation of impacted food within infundibulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how does food become trapped in infundibulae

A

up to 90% of infundibulae are incompletely filled with cementum

areas void of cementum are predisposed to impaction of food, creating an environment where oral bacteria can thrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what can occur if infundibular caries are left untreated

A

can progress to midline sagittal fractures of affected tooth and/or potential pulp involvement with secondary apical infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how are infundibular caries graded

A

on a scale of 4 based on the degree of tissues involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is shown here

A

infundibular caries (IC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe the grades of infundibular caries

A

0: normal tooth
1: cementum only
2: cementum and underlying enamel affected
3: cementum, enamel and dentine affected
4: secondary dental fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what grade of infundibular carie is this

A

0 normal tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what grade of infundibular carie is this

A

grade 1

cementum only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what grade of infundibular carie is this

A

grade 2

cementum and underlying enamel affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what grade of infundibular carie is this

A

grade 3

cementum, enamel and dentine affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what grade of infundibular carie is this

A

grade 4

secondary dental fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how are infundibular caries treated in the early stage

A

they can be monitored if they are grade 1

restoration and filling may be recommended if they start to progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how are infundibular caries treated once there is dark staining of secondary dentine adjacent to infundibular enamel

A

the caries have already progressed through the infundibular enamel and restoration and filling should be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how are infundibular caries treated if there is a midline sagittal fracture or apical infection

A

tooth extraction is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what grade of infundibular carie is shown here

A

grade 2

dentine surrounding the infundibular enamel is starting to turn brown, indicating it is a good time to pursue treatment in the form of dental restoration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the reason for increasing prevalance of peripheral caries

A

feeding hay high in water soluble carbohydrates, feeding silage and water low in pH have all been found to contributing factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what can severe cases of peripheral caries lead to

A

severe cases can lead to periodontal disease or dental fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how are peripheral caries graded

A

4 point based on the severity of lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is shown here

A

peripheral caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe the grading system of peripheral caries

A

grade 0: normal tooth

grade 1.1: cementum only affected; superficial pitting lesiosn

grade 1.2: cementum only affected, but complete loss in some areas exposing enamel

grade 2: cementum and underlying enamel

grade 3: cementum, enamel and dentine affected

grade 4: secondary dental fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what grade of peripheral caries is this

A

grade 0

normal tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what grade of peripheral caries is this

A

grade 1.1 cementum only affected; superficial pitting lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what grade of peripheral caries is this

A

grade 1.2

cementum only affected, but complete loss in some areas exposing enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what grade of peripheral caries is this

A

grade 2

cementum and underlying enamel affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what grade of peripheral caries is this

A

grade 3

cementum, enamel and dentine affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how are peripheral caries treated

A

etiology is not fully understood

but its been found that they are reversible if the source of the etiological factor is removed

lavage mouth with a 0.1% chlorohexidine mouthwash daily but long term treatment is expensive and chlorohexidine doesn’t persist in the oral cavity for long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how are peripheral caries prevented

A

catch them early

thorough examination with a bright light, dental mirror and probe every 6-12 months

assessing body condition score, diet and general health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is a cheek tooth (CT) apical infection

A

infection of the apical portion of a CT and peripheral structures (ex. mandibular or maxillary bones, paranasal sinuses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the clinical signs of cheek tooth (CT) apical infection (3)

A
  1. facial swelling
  2. +/- discharging tracts of the mandible or maxillar
  3. nasal discharge from sinusitis secondary to apical infection of more caudal CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is shown here

A

focal mandibular swelling due to an apical cheek tooth infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the routes of infection for apical infections

A

most common is anachoresis which is a blood or lymphatic borne bacterial infection of a possibly compromised apical pulp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are other routes of infection of apical infection

A
  1. severe periodontal disease
  2. pulp exposure on the occlusal surface of the tooth
  3. following tooth fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

in what cases where anachoresis the common cause

A

typically young horses in which there has been recent tooth eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how does anachoresis cause apical infections in young horses

A

apices of erupting teeth may be hyperemic (excess blood within vessels) or inflamed as eruption occurs, especially if there are retained deciduous teeth or overcrowding from adjacent teeth

59
Q

what makes pulp more susceptible to infection in apical infections

A

inflamed pulps

60
Q

how can bacteria in the upper respiratory tract cause apical tooth root infection

A

anastomoses exist between periodontal vasculature and blood vessels within the maxillary sinuses

bacteria can gain access to periodontal vasculature and inflamed pulps

61
Q

how are apical infections diagnosed (3)

A
  1. findings on clinical examination (ex. facial swelling, draining tracts, nasal discharge)
  2. intra-oral examination including inspection of pulp horns for pulpar exposure
  3. radiograph evidence of infection
62
Q

how can apical infections diagnosed on radiographs

A
  1. periapical sclerosis
  2. periapical halo formation
63
Q

what is shown here

A

multiple defects in secondary dentine leading to pulp exposure in a mandibular cheek tooth

causing apical cheek tooth infection

64
Q

how are apical cheek tooth infections treated in early stages

A

antibiotics may be effective in some cases if infection is confined to the apex of the affected tooth and pulp cavities remain vital

65
Q

how are apical cheek tooth infections treated in progression of disease

A

pulp and calcified dental tissues adjacent to tooth apices will become infected

removal of infected pulp and adjacent infected tissues may be required –> extraction of the affected tooth

but endodontic therapy (root canal) may be performed in select cases

66
Q

what are the most common causes of incisor fractures

A

almost always traumatic

67
Q

why do incisor fractures easily lead to pulp exposure

A

location of the pulp canal

68
Q

what is shown here

A

incisor fracture

fracture of tooth 402, likely with pulp exposure

69
Q

how are incisor fractures treated (3)

A
  1. exposed incisor pulps tolerate inflammation well and can still maintain blood flow –> pulp exposure don’t necessarily lead to pulpar ischemia and tooth loss

the occlusal aspect of the exposed pulp will hopefully seal with tertiary dentine and the remaining tooth can continue to erupt normally

  1. admin of antibiotics and NSAIDs may be beneficial in the acute stage of fracture
  2. endodontic therapy (root canal) can be performed to help preserve remaining pulp
70
Q

how can cheek tooth fractures occur

A
  1. external and iatrogenic trauma
  2. idiopathic (most)
71
Q

which cheek teeth and the most commonly affected by fractures

A

triadan 09s are most commonly affected

72
Q

what is the most common fracture configurations

A

maxillary buccal slab fracture through the 1st and 2nd pulp chambers, usually only involving the clinical crown

73
Q

what are other common cheek tooth fracture configurations

A
  1. mandibular buccal slab fracture of the 4th and 5th pulp chambers
  2. midline sagittal fracture through infundibula of maxillary cheek teeth
74
Q

why are cheek tooth fractures in most cases if possible treated conservatively

A

whenever possible because it lessens trauma and sequellae of extraction and prevents future overgrowth and drifting of other cheek teeth

75
Q

what should the aim of extraction be in cases without apical infection be in cheek tooth fractures

A

in cases without evidence of apical infection, aim at only extracting grossly displaced or loose dental fragments

larger, stable dental fragments should be left to permit possible sealing off of exposed pulp chambers with tertiary dentine

76
Q

in which cases of cheek tooth fracture is extraction required

A

midline sagittal fractures

77
Q

what type of fracture is shown here and how would you treat this

A

buccal slab fracture of tooth 109

this fracture involves the 1st and 2nd pulp canals of the clinical crown

if there is no evidence of apical infection (lack of clinical signs, no significant abnormalities identified on radiographs) this tooth can be managed conservatively through monitoring

78
Q

what does EOTRH stand for

A

equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis

79
Q

what is EOTRH

A

resorption of reserve crown, apical region and adjacent alveolar bone of teeth, with proliferation of irregular cementum in the lytic regions

80
Q

how is EOTRH different to feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions

A

because hypercementosis is a prominent clinical feature at the time of presentation and diagnosis in many horses

81
Q

what is the etiology of EOTRH

A

periodontal inflammation has been suspected to be a trigger

82
Q

which teeth does EOTRH primarily involve

A

the incisor and canine teeth

usually affects the corner incisors triadan 03s first, followed by the middle and central incisors triadan 02s and 01s

83
Q

why is secondary infection common in EOTRH (6)

A
  1. gingivitis
  2. gingival enlargement
  3. gingival recession
  4. focal discharging purulent tracts
  5. increasing tooth mobility
  6. focal resorptive lesions of the teeth around the gingival margins
84
Q

what is shown here

A

EOTRH

85
Q

what is shown here

A

EOTRH

86
Q

what are the clinical signs of EOTRH (6)

A
  1. incisor pain reported by owners, reduced ability in grasping apples and carrots
  2. sensitivity to placing a bit
  3. head shaking
  4. ptyalism (hypersalivation)
  5. head shyness
  6. periodic inappetence and weight loss
87
Q

why is oral examination difficult in EOTRH

A

can be extremely painful

placement and opening an oral speculum can elicit a strong pain response, even under heavy sedation

88
Q

how is EOTRH diagnosed (8)

A
  1. typically identified in older horses (15+ years of age)
  2. hyperemia (reddening) of the gums
  3. drainage tracts within gums
  4. calculus and feed accumulation around the teeth
  5. gingival recession
  6. misshapen
  7. loose, missing and/or fractured teeth
  8. halitosis (malodorous breath)
89
Q

what is shown here

A

classic appearance of ETORH

90
Q

what is seen on radiographs with ETORH (4)

A

demonstrate more advance disease than external appearance during an oral exam

  1. bulbous enlargement of the apical aspect of the involved teeth
  2. resorptive lesions of the reserve crown
  3. apex and/or surrounding bone
  4. widening of periodontal space and tooth fractures
91
Q

what is shown here

A
92
Q

how is EOTRH treated

A

surgical extraction of clinically affected teeth

horses cope well after incisor extraction (even if all removed)

in some horses, their tongue may hang out of their mouth post-procedure, but this doesn’t appear to have any adverse affects long-term

93
Q

what is exodontia performed

A

should not be performed unless determined beyond a doubt which tooth/teeth are problematic and all methods of medical therapy have been exhausted to arrest the disease process and preserve the tooth

94
Q

what are indications of exodontia (8)

A
  1. apical infection
  2. tooth fracture in which the larger fragment cannot be preserved
  3. retained deciduous teeth
  4. loose tooth
  5. supernumerary, displaced or misaligned tooth causing clinical signs of disease
  6. impacted tooth
  7. non-vital tooth secondary to jaw fracture
  8. overgrowth so severe that is has caused severe soft tissue trauma
95
Q

how are horses sedated and restrained for exodontia

A

maintain patient on a constant rate infusion (CRI) of an alpha 2 agonist for the duration of the procedure

prior to starting the CRI, the patient is administered a bolus injection of an alpha 2 agonist in combination with an opioid

96
Q

what sedatives and what amounts would you give to sedate a horse for exodontia

A

bolus injection of detomidine (0.02 mg/kg) and butorphanol (0.02-0.05 mg/kg) administered IV followed by a detomidine CRI (0.02mg/kg/hour) IV

97
Q

what are the nerve blocks of the head used for exodontia (4)

A
  1. maxillary
  2. infraorbital
  3. mandibular
  4. mental
98
Q

where are the maxillary nerve block regions of action (3)

A
  1. ipsilateral dental structures of the maxilla
  2. premaxilla
  3. paranasal sinuses and nasal cavity
99
Q

where are the regions of action of the infraoribital block and what is it useful for

A

same effect as with maxillary nerve block

useful for performing surgery of nose, or maxillary and premaxillary structures

100
Q

what are the regions of action of the mandibular nerve block

A

ipsilateral side of mandible and all dental structures

101
Q

what are the regions of action of the mental nerve block

A

ipsilateral side of mandible and all dental structures

as well as skin of ipsilateral lip and chin

102
Q

where is the maxillary nerve block performed

A

insert a 20 to 22 gauge spinal needle just ventral to the zygomatic process and dorsal to the transverse facial vessels at the level of the caudal third of the eye

needle should be directed at a 90 degree angle to the long axis of head until it hits bone

if blood is seen in needle, it should be redirected as it is in the pterygopalatine fossa, which can cause hematoma formation

if there is no blood –> inject 15-20ml of local anesthetic next to the bone

103
Q

what is the maxillary nerve block useful for

A

dental procedures on the maxillary cheek teeth

104
Q

what are the landmarks for the infraorbital nerve block

A

to locate the infraorbital foramen, place one finger on the nasomaxillary incisure and one on the rostral aspect of the facial crest

the infraorbital foramen should be palpable depression between these two landmarks

105
Q

where are the landmarks of the maxillary nerve block

A
106
Q

how is an infraorbital nerve block performed

A

a 1.5 inch 20 to 22 gauge needle is inserted through the skin just rostral to the infraorbital foramen

the needle can be advanced about 2.5cm into the canal and 5 to 10ml of local anesthetic can be deposited in the area

107
Q

what is infraorbital nerve block useful for

A

performing surgery on the incisors such as incisor extraction in cases of ETORH

108
Q

how is a mandibular nerve block

A

to perform a mandibular nerve block a 6 inch 20 to 22 gauge spinal needle is inserted at the medial ventral aspect of the mandible and advanced dorsally 4-6 inches until it reaches the junction of an imaginary line drawn across occlusal surface of the maxillary arcade and from the lateral canthus of the eye

deposit 15-20ml of local anesthetic in this location

109
Q

what are the landmarks of mandibular nerve blocks

A
110
Q

what is mandibular nerve block useful for

A

dental procedures on the mandibular cheek teeth

111
Q

how is mental nerve block performed

A

block a 1.5 inch 20 to 22 gauge needle is inserted approximately 2.5cm rostral to mental foramen

the needle is directed as far as possible into the mental forament and 5-10ml of local anesthetic

112
Q

what is the mental nerve block useful for

A

performing dental procedures on mandibular incisors

113
Q

what are landmarks of the mental nerve blocks

A
114
Q

what are the methods of exodontia (3)

A
  1. extraction per os (removal of the tooth orally)
  2. minimally invasive transbuccal technique
  3. repulsion with a dental punch or Steinmann pin
115
Q

how is extraction per os done

A

systematic stretching and breakdown of the periodontal ligament followed by intra-oral extraction along the eruption pathway of the tooth

116
Q

why is extraction per os the method of choice

A

complication rates are lower for the procedure compared to other forms of extraction

117
Q

what is the first step in extraction per os

A

after patient has been properly restrained, sedated and the appropriate local nerve blocks performed

gingiva around the tooth is elevated to begin the process of breaking down the periodontum

118
Q

what is the second step in extraction per os

A

molar spreaders are placed within the interdental space between teeth to help break down the periodontal ligament

care must be taken to not damage adjacent healthy teeth or disturb the 06 teeth when attempting an 07 extraction and similarly the 11 tooth when attempting a 10 extraction

119
Q

what is the third step in extraction per os

A

the next is manipulation of the tooth in the alveolus using forceps

once gentle sustained rotational pressure and intermittent rocking of the tooth has loosened it to a point that frothing blood and ‘squelching’ is heard when extraction of the tooth can be attempted

120
Q

what is the fourth step in extraction per os

A

a fulcrum is placed between the forceps and adjacent rostral tooth

gentle firm pressure is applied on the forceps against the fulcrum to extract the tooth in an occlusal direction from the alveolus along the tooth’s eruption pathway

121
Q

what is the fifth step in extraction per os

A

once tooth the tooth and alveolus should be carefully inspected to ensure that the tooth has been extracted in its entirety

any remaining fragments of the tooth or fractured alveolar bone should be removed

blue arrow shows a piece of tooth root which fractured off during extraction

122
Q

what is the sixth step of extraction per os

A

once empty the alveolus is usually packed with dental impression material to provide hemostasis and prevent food contamination in the early stages of tissue healing

this packing is usually left in place for 3-4 weeks before re-evaluation

123
Q

how is minimally invasive transbuccal technique performed

A

used if the clinical crown fractures to a point that forceps cannot be applied to the tooth to attempt oral extraction

a threaded bar is seated into the tooth to be extracted through a buccotomy incision and ventral force is applied to the bar until the tooth is removed

124
Q

how is tooth extraction through repulsion done

A

radiographic guided repulsion of an affected tooth can be performed using a steinmann pin or dental punch

125
Q

when is tooth extraction through repulsion the method of choice

A

it is the technique of choice if clinical crown fractures to a point that extraction equipment cannot be applied to the tooth and minimally invasive transbuccal technique fails or is not possible

126
Q

what are post operative complications in tooth extraction through repulsion (6)

A
  1. sequestration of alveolar bone
  2. persistent tooth fragments
  3. oromaxillary fistula
  4. chronic sinusitis
  5. chronic cutaneous draining tracts
  6. iatrogenic damage to adjacent cheek teeth
127
Q

do diseased teeth always have to be extracted

A

no endodontic therapy may be an option to help preserve a diseased tooth (condition dependent)

treatment is aimed at the preservation of teeth affected by pulp exposure or apical infection

128
Q

why is endodontic therapy difficult in equines (4)

A
  1. the complex anatomy of equine pulp
  2. size of equine cheek teeth
  3. length of dental arcades
  4. limited ability of opening a horse’s mouth

make endodontic therapy more challenging when compared to small animals

129
Q

what is pulpotomy and how is it done

A

only the infected or exposed portion of pulp is removed

remaining healthy pulp is capped with calcium hydroxide or mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) to induce production of tertiary dentine over remaining pulp, followed by placement of a restorative composite to seal the canal

130
Q

what is pulpectomy and how is it done

A

the entire pulp is removed and the cavity is subsequently restored

131
Q

when would a pulpotomy be performed

A

used in cases of acute pulp exposure such as a trauma

the best candidates are those in which treatment is pursued within 48 to 72 hours of injury and damage mostly involves the clinical crown

therefore owners need to be informed of decreased success of treatment if pulp exposure is over an extended (greater than one week) or unknown period of time

132
Q

what are the cons of pulpotomy

A
133
Q

what are pros of pulpotomy

A
134
Q

what is the first step of pulpotomy

A

remove damaged/infected exposed pulp

135
Q

what is the second step of pulpotomy

A

to apply a pulp dressing over remaining healthy pulp

136
Q

what pulp dressings are used in a pulpotomy

A

pulp dressings such as calcium hydroxide or mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA), have a high anti-microbial effect due to a high pH and also act as a stimulant for tertiary dentine production to cover the exposed pulp

137
Q

what is the third step of a pulpotomy

A

seal the top of the pulp canal with a composite resin material to restore the pulp

138
Q

when would a pulpectomy be performed

A

when devitalized tissue is observed within the pulp canal but surrounding dentine is still intact and extensive periapical osteolysis cannot be detected on radiographs or CT

139
Q

how effective are pulpectomies

A

questionable

pulp canal shape and continuous occlusal wear inhibit long-term success of root canal therapy

also depending on the location of the tooth, there may be limited access to the affected pulp (ex. caudal cheek teeth) making treatment difficult

140
Q

what are the pros of pulpectomy

A

tooth remains in occlusal wear

141
Q

what are the cons of pulpectomy

A
142
Q

what is the first step in a pulpectomy

A
  1. involved pulp canal is cleaned out of diseased tissue and feed using endodontic files

radiographs are taken during the procedure to determine if the full length of the pulp cavity has been cleaned

143
Q

what is the second step in pulpectomy

A

  1. after cleaning, pulp cavity is flushed with sterile saline and antiseptic solution and calcium hydroxide is applied to dissolve any non-vital pulp and remnants of feed
144
Q

what is the third step of pulpectomy

A
  1. the cleaned pulp cavity is sealed in two layers of different dental filling materials. First is a bluck filling material to fill the majority of the pulp canal. The top of the pulp cavity is then sealed with a composite resin to act as an occlusal seal

Module 16 (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions