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Animal Managment > Equine > Flashcards

Equine Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 heavy UK horse breeds

A

shire
Clydesdale
suffolk

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2
Q

what are the 2 UK large horse breeds

A

cleaveland bay

irish draught

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3
Q

name some native UK pony breeds

A 
Dartmoor
highland 
Shetland
welsh cob
connemara
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4
Q

what breeds are normally used for racing

A

thoroughbred (worldwide)
standardbred (USA / Auzz)
Quarter horse (USA)

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5
Q

what breeds are normally used for competition

A

thoroughbred
irish sport horse
warmbloods (Holstein / Hanoverian / Dutch / Belgian)

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6
Q

what are the equestrian disciplines

A 
racing 
Olympics / paralymics 
polo 
showing
pleasure horses
FEI
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7
Q

what are the 8 FEI disciplines

A 
dressage 
show jumping
eventing
endurance
driving
western riding
vaulting
paraequestrian
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8
Q

what are the 3 Olympic disiplines

A

dressage
show jumping
eventing

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9
Q

what horses are used for dressage

A

warmbloods

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10
Q

what horses are used for showjumping

A

warmbloods

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11
Q

what constitutes a show jumping win

A

fastest clear round

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12
Q

what horses are used in eventing

A

high percentage of thoroughbreds

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13
Q

what does eventing involve

A

1 or 3 days of events including dressage show jumping and cross country

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14
Q

what horses are used for racing

A

thoroughbreds

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15
Q

what are the 2 types of racing

A

flat racing - shorter distance and in March-Nov with younger / smaller horses
national hunt races - longer distance / Nov-April / older horses and start with tape and includes jumps

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16
Q

what are the 3 types of mnational hunt racing

A 
steeple chase (fences - grandnational) 
hurdle (includes hurdles)
point to point (across country over natural fences in a cross country style race)
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17
Q

what horses are used for polo

A

thoroughbred

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18
Q

how many riders on each polo team

A

4 each team

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19
Q

what is endurance racing

A

50-100 mile race with vet chekcs

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20
Q

what horses are used for endurance racing

A

arabs

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21
Q

what Is horse driving

A

team of horses pulling a carriage past obstacles at speed

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22
Q

what is vaulting

A

gymnastic exercises on horseback

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23
Q

what horses are used in western riding

A

quarter horses

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24
Q

what are the 3 types of eeuine management

A

stabled
at grass
both

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25
Q

historically what did wild horses feed on

A

intermittent grazing for 18 hours a day

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26
Q

what aspects should you consider with field management

A 
water
quality and volume of grazing
shelter
fencing
injury prevention
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27
Q

why are several fields often required for grazing

A

should rest fields so they do not become depleted and can become muddy in winter with animal traffic

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28
Q

why should droppings be regularly removed from fields

A
  • horses don’t graze near droppings creating patchy fields

- reduction of parasite burden

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29
Q

what is harrowing

A

intermittent spreading out of droppings in the field (this can spread parasites)

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30
Q

why is shelter important

A

protects from bad weather in winter and flies in summer

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31
Q

what is ideal horse fencing

A

post and rail fencing (no wire netting / barbed wire / ditches)

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32
Q

when can electric fencing be particularly effective

A

to sperate parts of a field for restrictive grazing

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33
Q

what is the cause of most traumatic field injuries

A

fencing

bite or kicks from other horses

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34
Q

what are the postivies of stable management

A
  • easy management (horse is clean and dry)
  • diet control (performance horses energy inake can be increased)
  • if there is limited pasture horses are stabled in winter
  • injury prevention
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35
Q

what is land poaching

A

when land becomes excessively muddy / unmanageable - particularly common during winter months

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36
Q

what should be considered in stable design

A

ventilation
size
bedding

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37
Q

what is a stabled horse fed

A

forage (hay/haylage)

concentrate (nuts/mix)

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38
Q

why are horses ideally fed from the floor

A

encouraging mucus drainage from resp. tract and so pollen/dust remain at floor level

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39
Q

where should haynets be positioned

A

air outflow

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40
Q

what Is mucking out

A

daily removal of droppings and wet bedding

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41
Q

what is skipping out

A

removal of droppings throughout the day

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42
Q

what is a deep littered stable

A

droppings removed but wet bedding left creating a base layer

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43
Q

what are sterotypies

A

repetitive functionless motor response sequences

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44
Q

what are examples of stereotypies

A

crib biting (oral)
wind sucking
weaving (locomotor)
box walking

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45
Q

what is the prevalence of stereotypies in the equine population

A

5-10%

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46
Q

what is the affect of dust / fungal spores

A

irritates the respiratory systems

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47
Q

what the the affect of high ammonia conc. in stables

A

direct mucus membrane / skin irritation

inhibition of airway clearance

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48
Q

what is equine asthma

A

specific pulmonary hypersensitivity to inhaled antigens causing airway inflammation (from feed / bedding)

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49
Q

what is the treatment for equine asthma

A

environmental management to reduce allergen exposure / turning the horse out / no hay(reduce dust) / dust free bedding (rubber / cardboard) / soaking the hay

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50
Q

what is colic and what can increase the risk of development

A

abdominal discomfort

sudden changes in management (turning out to stabling) or feeding (more than 2kg of concentrate)

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51
Q

how to decrease colic risk when changing management style

A

increasing water intake when horse is first stabled (wet feed) to reduce risk of impaction

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52
Q

what can induce gastric ulceration

A 
high intensity exercise
feed restriction(should feed little and often)
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53
Q

what can be used to treat gastric ulceration

A

reduce exercise
turning out into pasture
increasing forage component of diet (and reduce concentrate)

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54
Q

what can obesity in horses lead to

A

insulin resistance - equine metabolic syndrome / laminitis

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55
Q

what is laminitis

A

inflammation of the laminae in hoof

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56
Q

what is laminitis caused by

A

high levels of fructans in grass (so grazing should be restricted for pasture associated laminitis)

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57
Q

what are myopathies

A

conditions affecting the muscles e.g. azoturia (tying up)

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58
Q

what is azoturia

A

affects the hindlimbs resulting in stiff gait

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59
Q

what is sporadic azoturia associated with

A

over-exercising

laying off horses(too much rest with same amount of feed)

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60
Q

what is rain scald

A

moist crusty lesions over the back caused by wet weather

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61
Q

what is mud fever

A

painful sores/scabs on lower limbs caused by being turned out in muddy fields (affects non pigmented skin more)

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62
Q

what diseases are vaccinated against in horses

A

tetanus
influenza
herpes
strangles

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63
Q

briefly describe tetanus

A 
clostridium tetani
found in soil
enters body via deep wound
produces exotoxin
results in spastic paralysis 
Fatality is 90%+ due to respiratory faliure
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64
Q

what is tetanus antitoxin (TAT) and what are considerations for using it

A

non-vaccine providing some protection against tetanus exotoxin but is expensive and shortlived (3 weeks)

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65
Q

what is tylers disease

A

liver disease associated with being given serum based products

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66
Q

what are the particular considerations for foals with the tetanus vaccine

A

unvaccinated mare but good colostrum = vaccinate / TAT

inadequate colostrum uptake = give hyperimmune plasma

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67
Q

what tetanus considerations sould be made pre-surgery / after a deep wound

A

if they have been vaccinated in the past 6 months (can give TAT)

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68
Q

what are the financial implications of tetanus vaccine

A

costs £10-20

effective vaccine with low reaction risk and reduces mortality significantly

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69
Q

briefly describe influenza

A

highly contagious viral disease of the upper GI - high morbidity and low mortality but severe complications

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70
Q

how much does an influezna vaccine cost and why is it changed regularly

A

antigenic shift of virus

costs around £30

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71
Q

what is the tetanus vaccination protocol for all horses

A

1st at 6 months old (so doesn’t interact with maternally derived antibodies)
2nd 4 weeks later
Booster 1 year after
Boosters every 2 years

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72
Q

what is the tetanus vaccination protocol for pregnant mares

A

Booster 4-6 weeks before foaling

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73
Q

describe the influenze vaccination protocol (manufacturer)

A

1 = day 0
2 = 4 weeks after
3 = 5 months later
annual boosters

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74
Q

what is the FEI recommendation for influenza vaccination protocol

A

1 = day 0
2 = day 21
3 = day 150
boosters every 6 months for actively competing horses / yearly for non active compatitors

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75
Q

what are the 3 forms of equine herpes virus

A

respiratory (problem in performance stables)
reproductive
neurologic

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76
Q

what forms of EHV are there vaccinations for

A

1 and 4

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77
Q

what is the vaccine protocol for EHV

A

1 = initial vaccine
2 = 2nd dose 4 weeks after
boosters every 4-6 months

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78
Q

what are the risks of reproductive EHV

A

abortion storms

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79
Q

when and how would you vaccinate against reproductive EHV

A

in yards with multiple breeding mares
give normal corse
then boosters at 5/7/9 months gestation

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80
Q

What are the symptoms of neurological EHV and what is it caused by

A 
EHV 1
ataxia (wobbly)
inability to urinate
paralysis of hindlimbs (recumbency)
permenant neurological deficits
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81
Q

what is the cost benefit analysis of vaccinating against EHV 1

A

evidnce of vaccinated horses having more severe symptoms and vaccine cannot be used in an outbreak so only vaccinate if necessary

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82
Q

what is strangles

A

highly contagious diease of upper resp. tract causing fever / abscesses of lymph nodes individuals can become carriers (mortality is rare)

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83
Q

describe immunity to strangles

A

need mucosal immunity rater than IgG so submucosal injection is necessary

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84
Q

is the strangles vaccine given routinely

A

no - controversial vaccine

biosecurity management is used instead

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85
Q

what should you do as a vet during a vaccination

A 
clinical examination 
listen to heart
overweight?
aging?
obvious poor feet / teeth
discuss management of the horse
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86
Q

what is a cyathostome

A

small redworm that can live in large intestine for years

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87
Q

what happens during larval cyathostomosis

A

mass hypoboised larvae emergence leading to massive inflammation / several diarrhoea and death

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88
Q

describe the cyathostome life cycle

A 
1 eggs hatch on pasture
2 larvae eaten by horse
3 invades intestinal wall
4 adult worms release in large intestine (can stay for years)
5 eggs passed in faeces
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89
Q

what is a strongyle

A

large redworm with adults living in large intestine that can cause verminous arteritis (inflammation of intestine)

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90
Q

why does strongyle larvae migration cause pathology

A

moves from GI tract to cranial mesenteric arter which can block artery = ischaemia of large intestine = death

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91
Q

describe the life cycle of strongylus vulgaris

A 
1 eggs on pasture molt in L1-L2 stage 
2 ingested at larvae 3 stage (L3)
3 L4 migrate through intestinal arteries
4 L5 migrate to gut
5 adults live in large intestine
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92
Q

briefly describe strongyloides westeri

A

affects foals through milk / skin

induces diarrhoa 6 months later

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93
Q

describe the life cycle of strongyloides westeri

A

free living cycle (can live whole life in field)
1 L3 ingested
2 L4 migrates via pulmonary system then swallowed
3 adult females live in small intestine
4 unfertilised eggs laid and they renter field via faeces

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94
Q

what is the clinical significance of a parascaris equorum infection and when is the risk greatest

A

small intestinal obstruction / surgical colic

greatest risk after an effective anthemitic wormer with high worm burden / at 6months -2years of age

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95
Q

describe the parascaris lifecycle

A

1 eggs are present in faeces L1
2 L2 are ingested
3 migrate from intestine to liver at L3
4 migrate to lungs / coughed up / swallowed
5 molt to L4 and adult in intestine and eggs passes

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96
Q

what is the usual host of a lung worm (dictyocaluls arnfieldi)

A

a donkey

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97
Q

describe oxyuris equi (pin worms) clinical symptoms and cause

A

severe anal pruritus (itching) / hairloss

adults live in colon and females deposit eggs at anus

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98
Q

what are the clinical signs of tapeworm

A

spasmodic colic
intussuseption (intestinal twisting)
thickening of the SI wall

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99
Q

describe the lifecyle of a tapeworm

A

1 eggs on pasture
2 eggs ingested by mite / develop
3 horse eats mite
4 becomes adult in caecum / SI

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100
Q

what are gasterophilus

A

bots (fly) does not cause any problems

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101
Q

what is the lifecyle of gastrophilus

A 
1 adult fly lays eggs on horse 
2 horse grooms itself and eats eggs
3 L1-2 in tounge and gums 
4 L3 in stomach 
5 passed into droppings - soil - hatches
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102
Q

why do you want a resevour population of parasites

A

resistance issues associated with blanket anthelmitic usage

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103
Q

what are some examples of types of parasite control

A

targeted worming
poo picking weekly
not overgrazing
rotating fields with other livestock

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104
Q

what are some challenges associated with anthelmintic resistance

A
  • owners want to give it
  • historically blanket worming techniques were used routinely treating throughout year regarless of need
  • anthelmintics do not have to be given by a vet
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105
Q

what techniques are used in targeted dosing of anthelmintics

A

faecal egg counts (determining presence / severity of worm burden) normally done every 12 weeks - want less than 200 eggs/g

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106
Q

what are the advantages of targeted dosing

A
  • treats individuals that actually need it
  • worm egg count is only £10
  • can identify high egg burdens
  • reduces resistance
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107
Q

what are the disadvantages of targeted dosing (particularly faecal egg counts)

A
  • costs the same as dewormer
  • only counts eggs
  • rarely detects tapeworms (no eggs)
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108
Q

what is the most common method of faecal egg counting

A

McMaster

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109
Q

what tests are used for detection of tapeworms

A

£20 blood and saliva test which looks for antibodies but these levels can remain high for 6 months after treatment

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110
Q

what tests are used for detection of cyathostomes

A

£20 blood test (+blood sample fee) indicating likelihood of burden being present

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111
Q

why is dentistry particularly important to upkeep in horses

A

horses teeth grow continuously / worn fown during eating so sharp points can easily develop if they are not wearing down properly

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112
Q

how does the angle of the molar archade affect teeth grinding down

A 
maxillary (upper) teeth get sharp on buccal side (cheek)
mandibular teeth (lower) get sharp on the lingual side (tongue)
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113
Q

what can occur when there is an area in the mouth with no opposing tooth

A

hooks and overgrowth if tooth is missing or jaw is misaligned

114
Q

what can be the result of poor dentistry

A

pain
ulceration
problems with eating

115
Q

what happens during a dental examination

A

dental chart filled out for record / comparison noting abnormalities (fractures / hooks / gaps)
filing down of sharp edges using a power/hand rasp

116
Q

how often should horses have a dental exam / how much does it cost

A

annually or every 6 months if geriatric / problematic

£40-60

117
Q

how often should a hoof be picked out

A

daily with a hoof pic in a heel to toe direction

118
Q

what is the coronary band

A

the junction between the skin and the hoof wall

119
Q

what is the toe vs heel

A

the front of the hoof and the back of the hoof

120
Q

what is the periople

A

the band of white coloured hoof at the top

121
Q

what are the names of the toe quarters

A

medial and lateral x2

122
Q

what is the frog

A

triangular structure on the underside caudal part of hoof and has a central sulcus and on either side medial and lateral sulci

123
Q

what is the hoof wall

A

wraps around the surface of the hoof except the frog

124
Q

what is the bar (hoof) and what is the tissue inside this area called

A

the area where the hoof wall wraps around itself by the frog (the tissue inside this section is called the seat of the corn)

125
Q

what is the white line (hoof)

A

the junction between the sole and the hoof wall v dense and can become widened in laminitis

126
Q

what are the proper names of P1-3

A 
P1 = proximal phalanx (highest one)
P2 = middle phalanx 
P3 = distal phalanx(by hoof)
127
Q

what lies underneath P3

A

the digital cushion (above the sole) and the bulbar cushion (in the heel bulb)

128
Q

where is the navicular bone

A

rear of distal interphalangial joint

129
Q

what is the purpose of the navicular bursae

A

allows the deep digital flexor tendon to slide smoothly over and insert on P3

130
Q

where does the superficial digital tendon insert

A

proximal palmar surface of P2

131
Q

where do the distal sesamoidean ligaments insert

132
Q

where does the common digital extensor tendon insert

A

digital process of P3

133
Q

name the layers of the hoof wall from superficial to deep

A

horn (keritanised)
insensitive laminae (epidermal)
sensitive laminae (dermal)
bone

134
Q

how are the laminae structured to suspend P3 from the hoof wall and why is this important

A

the interdigitate (like a comb structure) with each other and it absorbs concussive impact on the foot

135
Q

describe hoof distortion

A

the flexibility of the shape of the hoof capsule when weight is applied partially at the heel and the compaction of the digital cushion

136
Q

what 2 factors should be examined during a hoof examination

A

conformation (shape / size/ static relation / horse build / correct angles?)CANT CHANGE

balance (shape / function of foot in relation to ground / skeleton)

137
Q

how should a horse be standing to accurately assess conformation

A 
square
equal weight on all limbs
facing straight 
firm flat ground
available to look at from all angles
138
Q

what is assessed in a static hoof examination

A 
hoof quality / balance 
shoes
limb conformation
digital pulses palpated
are they a pair
139
Q

how do you assess hoof quality

A

horn quality - cracks / wall loss

sole quality - waxy / flaky

140
Q

describe ideal horse hoof symmetry (dorsal)

A
  • coronary band should be parallel to the floor / sole and perpendicular to the limb axis
  • hoof wall should be symmetrical
141
Q

describe ideal horse hoof symmetry (lateral)

A
  • the heel and toe hoof walls should be parallel to eachother
  • heel should be vertically below the axis of the cannon bone
142
Q

what us the hoof pastern axis

A

the relationship between the angle of the dorsal hoof wall and the middle of the pastern (should be parallel)

143
Q

what is the ideal toe:heel ratio

144
Q

describe the 3 states of a hoof pastern axis

A 
broken back (very low heel)
normal 
broken forward (almost like pointing its toes - club foot)
145
Q

what is assessed in a solar view hoof examination

A
  • sole should be concave
  • feet should be symmetrical
  • forefeet round and back feet oval
146
Q

what is assessed in a palmar view foot examination

A

using a Tbar to assess symmetry of heel bulbs /. heel height / bars (medio-lateral balance)

147
Q

what are hoof testers and what are they used for

A

basically big pincers used to systematically identify painful areas of the foot

148
Q

what is a dynamic hoof examination

A

walk and trot on hard flat surface to assess foot landing

149
Q

how much / often is trimming and shoeing

A

every 4-8 weeks
full set around £100
trimming £20-40
therapeutic shoes £100+

150
Q

why would a farrier / vet need to make an emergency hoof visit

A

replacing a lost shoe
acutely lame horse
foot abscess

151
Q

what are the benefits of shoeing a horse

A 
protection
increased traction (racing)
support (weak horn)
gait alteration needed 
when attrition > growth
152
Q

what are alternatives for horses wearing shoes

A

barefoot (must have good quality hoof) or hoof boots

153
Q

describe the hoof growth rate

A

full replacement in 3 months at heel and 9-12 months at the toe

154
Q

what are the 2 types of hoof boots

A

poultice - to keep treatment on / keep watertight

riding - have to come off daily as prone to rubbing

155
Q

describe the basic process of foot trimming

A
  • routine paring with a hoof knife to remove dead horn
  • nipping flares / excess hoof wall
  • levelling the foot with a rasp(file)
  • checking the overall balance of the foot
156
Q

describe optimal shoeing

A

needs to fit foot
slightly larger for hoof expansion
no pressure on sole

157
Q

what is breakover (hooves)

A

horses heel lifting off the ground and rotating over the toe

158
Q

describe the optimal breakover

A
  • 2.5-3.5cm from frog (placement of shoe relative to P3)

- direction of breakover to make sure that the horseshoe moves in a straight line when horse is walking

159
Q

why is hot shoeing used by farriers

A

can show that all areas of the hoof are evenly burnt so excess can be trimmed off and fine adjustment of the shoe can be completed

160
Q

name the 4 standard shapes of horse shoes

A

standard
egg bar
heart bar
straight bar

161
Q

what are horseshoe clips used for

A

to prevent the horse shoe from rotating on the foot

162
Q

what are the placements of the 4 different types of shoe clips

A

single clips - in middle - front feet
quarter clips -slightly to the side - hind feet
side clips
no clips - makes break over more palmer but more likely to loose the shoe

163
Q

what are horse shoes made of

A

steel

aluminium - for racing

164
Q

how can you add grip to horseshoes

A

road nails
studs (at the heel)
toe grabs (used in racing but more injuries)

165
Q

what is being seasonally polyoeastrus (mares)

A

multiple cycles in a single annual breeding season

166
Q

when is a mares breeding cycle and how long is it

A

summer (long day breeder)

cycles are 21 days long (erratic in spring and autumn)

167
Q

describe the hormonal status of a mare in winter

A

anoestrus

producing melatonin - low GnRH = low LH / FSH

168
Q

spring

A

transitional period and melatonin levels reduce - so stop inhibiting GnRH release though LH stays low until first ovulation

169
Q

describe the hormonal status of a mare in autumn

A

transition period causing erratic cycles and decrease less GnRH and ovulation begins to fail = end of breeding cycle

170
Q

describe oestrus behaviour in mares

A

lifting tail
squirting urine
wide legged stance
acceptance of stallion presence / interaction

171
Q

describe oestrus behaviour in stallions

A

phlemen posture
dropping penis / erection
covering mare if allowed

172
Q

what is the phlemen posture

A

head back and lips/nose wrinkled to increase airflow to detect pheromones

173
Q

how would you advance the breeding season of a mare

A

increased continuous light (14.5 hours a day) beginning in Nov. for 2 months

dopamine antagonists / progestagens but only works during the spring transition period

174
Q

what prebreeding tests should be carried out on a mare

A

Strangles ELISA
Fecal worm egg count
Clittoral swabs for taylorella equigenatalis (contagious equine metritis) - notifiable

175
Q

how to induce oestrus in mares (short cycling)

A

injection of prostaglandin F2 alpha (causes corpus luteum regression) induces oestrus within 1 week but only effective during cycling

176
Q

why perform ultrasounds on a mares’ ovaries and uterus prebreeding

A

ovaries - show evidence of follicular development to see if she is in cycle
uterus - shows any free fluid /cysts / oedema (shows coming into season)

177
Q

what should occur in a post covering assessment and when

A

5 hours later
removal of free fluid (inflammatory response / semen) via a sterile isotonic lavage
monitering with ultrasound

178
Q

what is a caslicks procedue

A

sewing the outer lips of the vulva shut after coveringt o reduce the risk of faecal contamination of the uterus - reversed 2 weeks before birth

179
Q

how do you diagnose pregnancy in mares

A 
ultrasound 
failure to return to oestrus
blood samples (60 days PMSG or 100 days oestrogen) 
urine sample (120 days placental oestrogen)
180
Q

what can you determine from an ultrasounds of a pregnant mare

A

14-16 days foetus is visible (identify twins and terminate one of them) / presence of corpus luteum / heart rate at 24 days

181
Q

why are twins in horses dangerous

A

do not survive until full term normally aborted naturally as foetus needs exceed the placental surface area capacity for nutrients and oxygen

182
Q

why is there a limited gene pool for thoroughbred breeding

A

as natural covering is the only technique allowed for a foal to be thoroughbred registered so horses are not bred from different countries as travel is expensive

183
Q

what is a breeding nomination form

A

proposition from mare owner to stallion owners

  • breeding history
  • disease status (vaccination/serology)
  • desired livery/equipment/feeding
  • signalment (age/breed/fam history)
184
Q

what are the term options for studding covering charges

A

fixed fee
no foal free return (can come back without additional charge next year)
no foal no fee
October fee (half upfront half when mare is still pregnant)

185
Q

what are the 3 options for mares going to stud

A

barren (not pregnant no foal)
to foal down (pregnant to have foal at stud farm)
with foal to foot (foal comes with mare to stud yard)

186
Q

what is Weatherbys registration and when is it done

A

a thoroughbred horse requirement to be eligible to race within 30 days of birth and covering certificate issued to mare owner by the stud as proof

187
Q

why is it beneficial to bring oestrus forward when breeding thoroughbred mares

A

so the foal can be as old as possible in their age bracket so that they are the most mature possible for FLAT RACING (2-3 years old)

188
Q

how long is a horses pregnancy

A

normally around 11 months and 11 days

189
Q

when does covering start for thoroughbred breeding

A

most mares are covered in Feb so foals are born in March (elite flat are born in Jan-Feb)

190
Q

what are the general seasonal fertility rates for thoroughbreds

A

11.3% of mares not covered

70% of mares covered conceived naturally

191
Q

how are native breeds (dartmoor / exmoor) covered

A

normally unassisted in herds / individually outdoors and normally have excellent fertility

192
Q

what are the disadvantages of natural herd covering

A

stallion more likely to be injured (expensive stallion owners will not do this)
herd dynamic affects covering so if mares are added/removed there can be disruption
less knowledge of exact dates

193
Q

what are alternative breeding methods

A

artificial insemination

embryo transfer

194
Q

what are the benefits of using artificial insemination

A
  • improving health and safety (handlers / stallion)
  • reduce risk of venereal disease spread
  • preserves genetics (frozen semen)
  • increases productivity of semen
  • overcomes fertility problems in mares due to allergies
195
Q

when can different temperature semen be used

A

fresh - 4hours (locally)
chilled - 24 hours (nationally)
frozen - indefinitely

196
Q

what are the advantages of using embryo transfer

A
  • more embryos per mare can be produced
  • allows mares to compete while their foals are reared inside a surrogate
  • allows non fertile mares a progeny
197
Q

how is semen collected from a stallion

A

using a dummy with an in season mare nearby / soak towel in urine and then artificial vagina (warm water / lubricated) is used for semen collection

198
Q

what can denature semen

A
  • gel ejactulate fraction
  • water
  • light
  • dramatic temp change
199
Q

what factors indicate the correct time for artificial insemination (based on ultrasounds)

A

large follicle present
cervix open
no fluid in uterus
low uterine oedema

200
Q

describe the process of embryo transfer

A 
1 donor mare covered
2 embryo(s) collected at 7-10 days 
3 embryo implanted (one per mare)
201
Q

what is dystocia and what affects survival rates from this

A

obstructed labour

depends on rapid identification - C section under general anaesthesia

202
Q

what are the signs of imminent foaling

A
  • more Ca/K in milk
  • udders develop /drip milk / the ends wax up
  • mare is restless (use CCTV to watch)
  • vulva relaxes
203
Q

describe stage 1 of labour

A 
1-4 hours 
foal enters pelvic canal
dilation of cervix
mare will urinate frequently / be restless
uterine contractions occur
204
Q

what should be done as a breeder in stage 1 of labour

A

reverse caslicks
wash perineum
bandage the tail

205
Q

describe stage 2 of labour

A

15 mins long
1 allantochorion ruptures (waters break) at cervical staff
2 strong contractions from uterus
3 foal expelled
4 hindlimbs of foal may remain inside while mare rests
5 umbilicus breaks when mare stands

206
Q

how long after the waters break should you see a foal / contractions

A

within 10 mins if not call vet

207
Q

describe labour stage 3

A 
3 hours long
expulsion of the placenta with uterine contractions and expelling lochia (foetal fluids) 
white side (amnion on foal side)
red side (allanochorion endometrial side)
208
Q

how long can foetal membranes be retained for

A

maximum 3 hours - medical emergency if not

209
Q

what is the post-partum 123 rule

A

1 hour - foal should be standing
2 hour - foal should have suckled
3 hour -placenta should have passed

210
Q

what are the features of respiratory neonatal adjustment

A

induced by cold air / dam licking - gasps for 30 secs, rhythmic after 1 min, 30-40 breaths a min by 4 hours

211
Q

what are the features of cardio neonatal adjustment

A

40-80bpm at birth

80-100bpm at rest by 4 hours

212
Q

why would a heart murmur be present for the first few days of a foals life

A

until the ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale close

213
Q

what are the neonatal reflexes

A

standing - normally in 30 mins (wobbly with wide base)

suckling - drawn to udder by pheromones

214
Q

what is the cervicial star

A

a non villus area of the placenta which the foal breaks through during birth

215
Q

what could a thickened placenta be indicative of

A

the foal being born late - mare may have been dripping colostrum so may be at risk of infection

216
Q

describe the type of placenta a horse has

A

epitheloichorical (6 layers)
non-deciduate (foetal and maternal layers are separate)
diffuse (placenta covered in villi)

217
Q

summarise equine passport legislation

A

all horses born after 2005 need a passport

all horses born after 2009 need a microchip (now all horses born before are also required to have one)

218
Q

what information does a passport include and when is it needed

A
  • vaccination status and if it is fit for human consumption

- needed for travel / sale / slaughter

219
Q

when do passport applications have to be made

A

by Dec 31st on year of birth
when foal is 6 months old
(whichever is later)

220
Q

what is needed in a passport application form

A
  • owner details
  • location / scanning of microchip details
  • identification certificate (with pictures of markings)
  • owner / vet (stamp) signature
221
Q

where is a microchip placed

A

nuchal ligament (neck)

222
Q

what is the procedure for inserting a microchip

A

1 scan chip to ensure it is the correct one
2 scan neck to ensure no chip is present
3 insert chip
4 scan in situ to ensure functionality

223
Q

what is the capacity of a horses stomach and what does this mean for meal size

A

5-15L

around 2.25kg of grain maximum per 500kg of horse

224
Q

what is the transit time of food and water in a horse stomach

A

water 20 mins

food 1 hour

225
Q

what is a hindgut fermenter (actually occurs in midgut)

A

digestion of complex starches (cellulose) due to a large microbial population and absorption of fluid

226
Q

what is the trainsit time in the hindgut

227
Q

what are the aims of feeding horses

A

maintaining bodily condition / reproductive status / growth / reduce colic / allowing horses to perform to the height of their genetic ability

228
Q

what is the KER body condition scoring

A

a score of 1-9 with 1 = severe emaciation and 9 severe obesity (5 is perfect)

229
Q

what places do you identify fat on during body condition scoring

A

crest / withers / ribs / tail head/ back crease

230
Q

what places do you identify muscle on during body condition scoring

A

withers / shoulder / topline / loin / hindquarters

231
Q

what are the 1-9 scales of the KER

A 
1 poor 
2 very thin
3 thin
4 moderately thin
5 moderate 
6 moderately fleshy
7 fleshy
8 fat
9 extremely fat
232
Q

how much forage should a horse be eating

A

around 1-1.5% of bodyweight

233
Q

what are potential sources of forage

A

grass / hay / haylage

234
Q

why do horses need forage food

A

physiological need for gut stability (microbiome) / nutritional requirements
psychological need to chew

235
Q

how long does it take to eat 1kg of hay vs concentrate and what factors affect this

A

hay 20 mins
concentrate 8 mins
confinement reduces this - horse gets bored = stable vices

236
Q

how should forage be fed to a horse

A

hay nets (increases time taken to eat to keep horse occupied) / hay racks

237
Q

why are concentrates processed into pellets

A

increasing palatability / bioavailability

238
Q

how should concentrates be fed

A

bucket / stable toy normally on the floor

239
Q

what is sugar beet pulp

A

low sugar high fibre concentrate that has to be soaked (to prevent gastric rupture)

240
Q

how much is the recommended daily intake of water

A

40-60ml per kg

241
Q

when does water instake increase

A

2-3 hours after fibre intake / during chewing (as fluid is taken from the plasma to create saliva and digestive secretions

242
Q

what components are needed in a balanced diet

A

digestible energy
crude protein
minerals
vitamins

243
Q

what minerals are required in a horses diet

A 
calcium 
phospherous 
copper 
zinc 
selenium
244
Q

what vitamins are required in a horses diet

A

ADEK fat soluble
BC water soluble
thyamine (B1)
riboflavin (B2)

245
Q

how much of their body weight should a horse eat in dry matter per day

A

2-2.5% of their bodyweight (3/4 should be forage)

246
Q

what percentage of a horses bodyweight should a horse consume in protein

A

around 8.5-11% (below 14% for anything not a racehorse / lactating mare)

247
Q

why should a horse be fed a high carbohydrate diet

A

serum glucose / insulin can cause behavioural issues

horses have more energy (higher HR / more excitable)

248
Q

what can happen when a horse is chronically fed carbohydrates

A

acidic gut syndrome = colic / diarrhoea / laminitis

249
Q

what are some causes of acidic gut syndrome

A

bed eating
coprophagia (eating poo)
chewing wood

250
Q

what order should hay and grain be fed in to prevent a sharp serum glucose peak

A

hoy first than after a delay grain creating a lower more stable glucose level to prevent hyperactivity

251
Q

what are the symptoms of excessive protein intake

A

increased urination
dehydration
increased drinking
(expensive)

252
Q

what is the first limiting amino acid in the horse

253
Q

why are fats easily absorbed by the horse

A

continuous flow of bile

254
Q

what percentage of the diet should constist of fats

255
Q

what types of horses is a higher fat diet appropriate for

A

geriatric
high performance
horses with malabsorption / glucose intolerance

256
Q

what percentage fat does grass and hay contain

A

5% and 1-3%

257
Q

why should a foal suckle within the first 6-8 hours

A

absorption of IgS (need a plasma transfusion if not)

258
Q

how much colostrum does a foal need for its first 6 hours of life

A

250ml per hour

259
Q

what does colostrum contain

A

Ig G M E A

260
Q

describe the maturation process of a foals digestive system

A

starch absorption before fermentation
10-12 weeks bacteria colonise
6 months intestines mature

261
Q

how much forage can a foal tolerate

A

3 months - less than 20%

6 months around 30%

262
Q

when should you wean a foal

A

when theyre eating around 3kg of conc food a day

usually around 6-8 months

263
Q

why would you wean a foal early

A

mare unable to sustain lactation
need mare for something else
excessive foal growth rates = orthapedic challenges

264
Q

what should you supplement a foals diet with if they have to be weaned before 4 months of age

A

milk based foal starter

265
Q

what changes in diet would you make for a young equine athlete and why

A

increase protein and energy but maintain the same ration as must account for both growth and exercise

266
Q

what energy sources does a horse use during exercise

A

glucose from blood
glycogen in muscles
fat burn (long slow exercise)

267
Q

why sould you aim to maintain blood glucose

A

risk of central nervous system fatigue which reduces optimum performance

268
Q

what is the aim for feeding pre-competing

A

food is eaten digested absorbed and stored but energy has not yet been mobilised

269
Q

what occurs if you exercise a horse within 3 hours of feeding them

A

risk of colic
high insulin at start
high glucose levels (stored and used)
glucose levels drop below normal compromising performance until insulin levels fall

270
Q

what is the optimal delay between feeding concentrates and elite competing

A

8 hours
optimal energy mobilisation liver glycogen will have been stored and then can be converted to glucose faster than consumption requirements

271
Q

when should a horse be fed after exercise

A

1.5-2 hours after (important in endurance competitions)

272
Q

describe how you would diet an obese horse

A

slow steady weight loss
increase fibre %
increase exercise
increase frequency / difficuilty of feeding
restrict grazing
track system (put food and water on opposite ends of the field)

273
Q

how would you restrict grazing

A

grazing muzzle

274
Q

what are the nutrient requirments of a donkey compared to a horse

A

around 75%

275
Q

what happens if a donkey experiences severe stress or diet change

A

hyperlipidaemia (increase in fat in bloodstream)

276
Q

what is the normal weight loss target for a donkey

A

around 2kg per month - do not cut ration by more than 10%

277
Q

how to increase horse body conditioning with feeding

A

allow unlimited access to high quality feed
increase energy via cereal and oil
many small meals of concentrate
allow selections of favourites (reasonably)

278
Q

describe the general feeding of a geriatric horse

A

maintaining forage (short fibres to reduce chewing requirements)
if thin - oils for energy and more protein
if obese - reduce carbohydrates and oil / increase fibre

279
Q

what is a neutraceuticals

A

non toxic food component with evidence of health benefits e.g. disease prevention

280
Q

what are some examples of neutraceuticals

A

glucosamine (NO inhibitor)

Vit E + selenium (antioxidants and weight gain)

Animal Managment (2 decks)

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