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MST1 SWE > EPME2 > Flashcards

EPME2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many administrative remark entry types are there?

A

Nine

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2
Q

When drafting a CG-3307, how many blocks are filled in?

A

Seven

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3
Q

If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should?

A

So state and include the reason(s)

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4
Q

What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?

A

“Member refused to sign” in member’s signature block with date

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5
Q

Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the EI-PDR?

A

CG PSC-BOPS-MR

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6
Q

For evaluations not completed in Direct Access, what must be placed inside the original CG-3788(series) and forwarded to PPC (adv)?

A

Completed EER

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7
Q

Where is the original form CG 3307 distributed to?

A

Servicing Personnel Office (SPO)

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8
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is_____?

A

Passes out and cant be awakened
Vomiting while passed out
Has cold, clammy or pale skin
Breathing is slow or irregular

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9
Q

What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?

A

Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person

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10
Q

What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?

A

Stage 2 - Confrontation

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11
Q

In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?

A

Stage 3 - Escalation

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12
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without it first escalating?

A

Stage 4 - De-Escalation

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13
Q

What is the final stage of a conflict?

A

Stage 5 - Resolution

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14
Q

What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?

A

Train to memory

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15
Q

Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?

A

PD - 07

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16
Q

You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?

A

PD - 12

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17
Q

A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?

A

AR - 07

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18
Q

The purpose of form CG-4903 is to _____.

A

Report Hazards

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19
Q

What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?

A

At least annually

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20
Q

How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?

A

The reports are retained on file until the deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate

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21
Q

How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form?

A

Through anonymous boxes

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22
Q

_________ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, “Basic Program Elements for Federal Employee Occupational Safety and Health Programs and Related Matters”.

A

Unit/Workplace Inspections

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23
Q

What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Compliant: Approaching Limits of Standard

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24
Q

What level of compliance does a red color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Non-Compliant: Corrective Action Required

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25
Q

What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Non-Compliant: Not Currently Compliant

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26
Q

What level of compliance does a green color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Compliant: Within Standard

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27
Q

How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?

A

Desktop Icon

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28
Q

While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?

A

Uniform Regulations, COMDTINST M1020.6(series)

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29
Q

When wearing the TBLS uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.

A

Nametag

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30
Q

When wearing the tropical blue uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.

A

Ribbons

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31
Q

While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges & _____ from the leading edge.

A

One inch

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32
Q

What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?

A

Same as the collar insignia on the left side

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33
Q

Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member.

A

E-1 through E-3: mini version of CG medallion

E-4 through E-6: collar insignia

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34
Q

COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that _____ rings are not authorized.

A

Thumb

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35
Q

According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are _____.

A

Considered watches

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36
Q

Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring.

A

Class/Wedding rings

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37
Q

Prohibited watch colors include _____.

A

Diamond covered, neon, white, and bright colors

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38
Q

You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.

A

One

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39
Q

What is an example of an authorized color for sunglasses?

A

(unadorned black or navy blue material; gold or
silver wire) and lenses must be black or brown in color
(mirrored lenses are prohibited)

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40
Q

Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?

A

Wash and Wear trousers/slacks

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41
Q

In all cases, the non-tab edge of the belt must align with the _____.

A

Fly

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42
Q

The women’s shirt and women’s slacks align with the belt so that the _____.

A

Tab edge touches the wearer’s RIGHT side of the buckle

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43
Q

Oxfords are not authorized _____.

A

When the skirt is worn

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44
Q

What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS)?

A

Ribbons

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45
Q

What head gear is authorized for wear with the TBLS uniform?

A

Combo or Garrison

46
Q

When wearing the TBSS, what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?

A

Oxford pumps or flats

47
Q

When wearing the TBSS uniform, men are required to wear _____.

A

Oxfords

48
Q

What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the TBSS uniform?

A

Women may wear

women’s shirt, Overblouse, or men’s shirt.

49
Q

What is required for wear with all uniforms?

A

Undergarments

50
Q

The wearing of this type of Blue Crew Neck T-Shirt is prohibited in heat/fire prone spaces.

A

Moisture Wicking (100% polyester)

51
Q

What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?

A

Sleeve of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened. Both

the long and short-sleeved versions of the light blue shirt may be altered to provide a better or more athletic fit.

52
Q

What do the short and long sleeve women’s light blue shirts have?

A

A fly front covering the button closure (right

over left)

53
Q

When wearing the Women’s Overblouse with Service Dress Blue, the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.

A

Not be visible under the SDB coat

54
Q

What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?

A

Four-in-hand

55
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4?

A

Scarlet

56
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?

A

Gold

57
Q

The service stripe is placed at a ______ angle.

A

45

58
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?

A

Stage 6: Facilitate a resolution

59
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.

A

Compromising

60
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.

A

Accommodating

61
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.

A

Competing

62
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is ___________________.

A

Collaborating

63
Q

Which stage of conflict represents that path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?

A

Stage 4: De-Escalation

64
Q

Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?

A

Stage 3: Escalation

65
Q

What is the first stage of conflict escalation?

A

Disagreement

66
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?

A

Identify stages of conflict

67
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A

Define conflict

68
Q

Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-Line Supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thoughtful advice?

A

Leading Others - Mentoring

69
Q

Which element of successful leaders is associated with the leadership competency “Taking Care of People”?

A

Leading Others

70
Q

What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Respect for Others and Diversity Management?

A

Leading Others

71
Q

What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others?

A

Leading Others

72
Q

The anticipated level of expertise for first-line supervisors for the effective communications leadership competency includes which of the following?

A

Writes succinctly and produces written materials that are clear and articulate. Speaks in concise, effective, organized manner; tailored to the audience and situation. Listens attentively, understands and absorbs the message of others. Observes body language and other forms of non-verbal communication.

73
Q

Coast Guard leaders communicate effectively in which of the following ways?

A

Formal and informal settings

74
Q

In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Feedback

75
Q

In step 5 of the RM process, ensuring that changes requiring further RM are identified is part of which action?

A

Monitor

76
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?

A

3

77
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?

A

Step 3: Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions

78
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 or the RM process?

A

Make Implementation Clear, Establish Accountability, Provide Support

79
Q

In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member, establish accountability?

A

Step 4: Implement Controls

80
Q

What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for RM controls?

A

Use design and engineering solutions to achieve minimum risk

81
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR

82
Q

What is the control method to reduce or eliminate risks from a hazard that identifies when it is possible to avoid specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?

A

Avoid

83
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

Spread Out

84
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using _____.

A

Transfer

85
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the RM process?

A

Step 3: Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions

86
Q

Which of the following is a Risk Assessment pitfall?

A

Over optimism, misrepresentation, alarmism, indiscrimination, prejudice, inaccuracy, and enumeration

87
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management?

A

Risk is the expression of possible loss due to the presence of hazards

88
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3: List Causes

89
Q

In step 1 of the RM process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A

PEACE

90
Q

What does the RM process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?

A

Risk Management

91
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

Lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities

92
Q

What is the basis for scheduling the next counselling session for an enlisted member’s IDP?

A

Based on rate EER cycle

93
Q

An IDP is _____.

A

Valuable career development tool

94
Q

An IDP is not _____.

A

A one-time activity

95
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted IDP?

A

CG-6021

96
Q

The FIRST step in the IDP process is to _____.

A

Conduct a self-assessment

97
Q

You have submitted an incorrect eResume. What can you do to delete the incorrect information?

A

You cannot delete incorrect eResumes

98
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

Corrections can be made the following day after submission

99
Q

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

A

Click “save to job basket”

100
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

Click “return to previous page”

101
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your PDE?

A

note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel

102
Q

On your PDE you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

01-JAN-2010

103
Q

You will be credited Sea Time points on your PDE at what rate?

A

2 points per year

104
Q

On your PDE, award points are earned up to what point?

A

Up to SED

105
Q

On your PDE, TIR and TIS are computed up to what point?

A

Future date for SWE eligibility

106
Q

How can you access your SWE PDE?

A

Direct Access

107
Q

Where are deadlines for PDE verifications and corrections provided?

A

Direct Access – SWE PDE

108
Q

_______________________________ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, “Basic Program Elements for Federal Employee Occupational Safety and Health Programs and Related Matters”.

A

Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections

109
Q

According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are __________________.

A

Allowed as long as the meet specifications

110
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve ________________________________.

A

The acceptance of some level of risk

111
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

GAR 2.0

112
Q

When is RM most effective?

A

When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure

MST1 SWE (6 decks)

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