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EPME2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many administrative remark entry types are there?

A

Nine

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2
Q

When drafting a CG-3307, how many blocks are filled in?

A

Seven

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3
Q

If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should?

A

So state and include the reason(s)

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4
Q

What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?

A

“Member refused to sign” in member’s signature block with date

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5
Q

Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the EI-PDR?

A

CG PSC-BOPS-MR

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6
Q

For evaluations not completed in Direct Access, what must be placed inside the original CG-3788(series) and forwarded to PPC (adv)?

A

Completed EER

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7
Q

Where is the original form CG 3307 distributed to?

A

Servicing Personnel Office (SPO)

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8
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is_____?

A

Passes out and cant be awakened
Vomiting while passed out
Has cold, clammy or pale skin
Breathing is slow or irregular

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9
Q

What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?

A

Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person

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10
Q

What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?

A

Stage 2 - Confrontation

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11
Q

In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?

A

Stage 3 - Escalation

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12
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without it first escalating?

A

Stage 4 - De-Escalation

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13
Q

What is the final stage of a conflict?

A

Stage 5 - Resolution

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14
Q

What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?

A

Train to memory

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15
Q

Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?

A

PD - 07

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16
Q

You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?

A

PD - 12

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17
Q

A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?

A

AR - 07

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18
Q

The purpose of form CG-4903 is to _____.

A

Report Hazards

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19
Q

What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?

A

At least annually

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20
Q

How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?

A

The reports are retained on file until the deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years following the end of the calendar year to which they relate

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21
Q

How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form?

A

Through anonymous boxes

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22
Q

_________ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, “Basic Program Elements for Federal Employee Occupational Safety and Health Programs and Related Matters”.

A

Unit/Workplace Inspections

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23
Q

What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Compliant: Approaching Limits of Standard

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24
Q

What level of compliance does a red color indicator within CGBI indicate?

A

Non-Compliant: Corrective Action Required

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25
What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Non-Compliant: Not Currently Compliant
26
What level of compliance does a green color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Compliant: Within Standard
27
How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?
Desktop Icon
28
While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?
Uniform Regulations, COMDTINST M1020.6(series)
29
When wearing the TBLS uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.
Nametag
30
When wearing the tropical blue uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.
Ribbons
31
While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges & _____ from the leading edge.
One inch
32
What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?
Same as the collar insignia on the left side
33
Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member.
E-1 through E-3: mini version of CG medallion | E-4 through E-6: collar insignia
34
COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that _____ rings are not authorized.
Thumb
35
According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are _____.
Considered watches
36
Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring.
Class/Wedding rings
37
Prohibited watch colors include _____.
Diamond covered, neon, white, and bright colors
38
You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.
One
39
What is an example of an authorized color for sunglasses?
(unadorned black or navy blue material; gold or silver wire) and lenses must be black or brown in color (mirrored lenses are prohibited)
40
Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?
Wash and Wear trousers/slacks
41
In all cases, the non-tab edge of the belt must align with the _____.
Fly
42
The women's shirt and women's slacks align with the belt so that the _____.
Tab edge touches the wearer’s RIGHT side of the buckle
43
Oxfords are not authorized _____.
When the skirt is worn
44
What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS)?
Ribbons
45
What head gear is authorized for wear with the TBLS uniform?
Combo or Garrison
46
When wearing the TBSS, what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?
Oxford pumps or flats
47
When wearing the TBSS uniform, men are required to wear _____.
Oxfords
48
What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the TBSS uniform?
Women may wear | women’s shirt, Overblouse, or men’s shirt.
49
What is required for wear with all uniforms?
Undergarments
50
The wearing of this type of Blue Crew Neck T-Shirt is prohibited in heat/fire prone spaces.
Moisture Wicking (100% polyester)
51
What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?
Sleeve of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened. Both | the long and short-sleeved versions of the light blue shirt may be altered to provide a better or more athletic fit.
52
What do the short and long sleeve women’s light blue shirts have?
A fly front covering the button closure (right | over left)
53
When wearing the Women’s Overblouse with Service Dress Blue, the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.
Not be visible under the SDB coat
54
What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?
Four-in-hand
55
What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4?
Scarlet
56
What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?
Gold
57
The service stripe is placed at a ______ angle.
45
58
What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
Stage 6: Facilitate a resolution
59
In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
60
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accommodating
61
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.
Competing
62
The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is ___________________.
Collaborating
63
Which stage of conflict represents that path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?
Stage 4: De-Escalation
64
Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?
Stage 3: Escalation
65
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Disagreement
66
What is the third stage of conflict?
Identify stages of conflict
67
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define conflict
68
Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-Line Supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thoughtful advice?
Leading Others - Mentoring
69
Which element of successful leaders is associated with the leadership competency "Taking Care of People"?
Leading Others
70
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Respect for Others and Diversity Management?
Leading Others
71
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others?
Leading Others
72
The anticipated level of expertise for first-line supervisors for the effective communications leadership competency includes which of the following?
Writes succinctly and produces written materials that are clear and articulate. Speaks in concise, effective, organized manner; tailored to the audience and situation. Listens attentively, understands and absorbs the message of others. Observes body language and other forms of non-verbal communication.
73
Coast Guard leaders communicate effectively in which of the following ways?
Formal and informal settings
74
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
75
In step 5 of the RM process, ensuring that changes requiring further RM are identified is part of which action?
Monitor
76
How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?
3
77
Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?
Step 3: Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions
78
Which of the following is an action in step 4 or the RM process?
Make Implementation Clear, Establish Accountability, Provide Support
79
In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member, establish accountability?
Step 4: Implement Controls
80
What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for RM controls?
Use design and engineering solutions to achieve minimum risk
81
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR
82
What is the control method to reduce or eliminate risks from a hazard that identifies when it is possible to avoid specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
Avoid
83
The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?
Spread Out
84
Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using _____.
Transfer
85
Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the RM process?
Step 3: Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions
86
Which of the following is a Risk Assessment pitfall?
Over optimism, misrepresentation, alarmism, indiscrimination, prejudice, inaccuracy, and enumeration
87
How is risk defined within Risk Management?
Risk is the expression of possible loss due to the presence of hazards
88
In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, "Why" analysis is used in which action?
Action 3: List Causes
89
In step 1 of the RM process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?
PEACE
90
What does the RM process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
Risk Management
91
What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?
Lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities
92
What is the basis for scheduling the next counselling session for an enlisted member's IDP?
Based on rate EER cycle
93
An IDP is _____.
Valuable career development tool
94
An IDP is not _____.
A one-time activity
95
What is the form number for the Enlisted IDP?
CG-6021
96
The FIRST step in the IDP process is to _____.
Conduct a self-assessment
97
You have submitted an incorrect eResume. What can you do to delete the incorrect information?
You cannot delete incorrect eResumes
98
You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?
Corrections can be made the following day after submission
99
Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?
Click “save to job basket”
100
What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?
Click “return to previous page”
101
What should you do if you find errors on your PDE?
note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel
102
On your PDE you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?
01-JAN-2010
103
You will be credited Sea Time points on your PDE at what rate?
2 points per year
104
On your PDE, award points are earned up to what point?
Up to SED
105
On your PDE, TIR and TIS are computed up to what point?
Future date for SWE eligibility
106
How can you access your SWE PDE?
Direct Access
107
Where are deadlines for PDE verifications and corrections provided?
Direct Access – SWE PDE
108
_______________________________ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, “Basic Program Elements for Federal Employee Occupational Safety and Health Programs and Related Matters”.
Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections
109
According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are __________________.
Allowed as long as the meet specifications
110
Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve ________________________________.
The acceptance of some level of risk
111
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
GAR 2.0
112
When is RM most effective?
When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure

MST1 SWE (6 decks)

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