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SWE Study > EPME E-5 > Flashcards

EPME E-5 Flashcards

1
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your PDE?

A

If errors are found, note them on the printed copy of this form, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel.

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2
Q

How can you access your SWE PDE?

A
  1. Select the More link under the View column in the Employee pagelet in Direct Access
  2. Select the SWE Profile Letter Link
  3. Click Create Report
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3
Q

Where are deadlines for PDE verifications and corrections provided?

A

All PDE’s are updated prior to each Active and Reserve exam cycle. Review the message for deadlines for PDE verifications and corrections.

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4
Q

On your PDE you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

01JAN2010

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5
Q

You will be credited Sea Time points on your PDE at what rate?

A

Credited at 2 points per, year or 0.166 points per month retroactive to 01FEB1994.Note members assigned PCS on WMLS on or after 1 JAN 2016 will receive credit for each month of sea duty , not to exceed 2.333 points per year.

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6
Q

On your PDE, award points are earned up to what point?

A

The point value of all awards earned between the members point satart date to the SED (SWE Eligibility date)

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7
Q

On your PDE, TIR and TIS are computed up to what point?

A

Computed up to this future date for SWE eligibility and also for TIR and TIS points on the SWE. 1 JAN for the oct and may SWE and 1 Jul NOV SWE

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8
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

Any corrections/ updates will have to be made on the following day after submission

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9
Q

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

A

Click save to job basket

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10
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

Click return to previous page

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11
Q

You have submitted an incorrect eResume. What can you do to delete the incorrect information?

A

Due to maintenance of important historical data, DA does not allow for deletion of incorrect e-resumes.

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12
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management?

A

Risk is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

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13
Q

What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for RM controls?

A

Spread Out

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14
Q

In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Feedback

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15
Q

Which of the following is a Risk Assessment pitfall?

A

a. Over optimism: “It can’t happen to us. We’re already doing it.” This pitfall results from not being totally honest and not looking for root causes of the hazards.

b. Misrepresentation: Individual perspectives may distort data. This can be deliberate or unconscious.

    c. Alarmism: “The sky is falling” approach, or “worst case” estimates are used regardless of their possibility. 

        d. Indiscrimination: All data is given equal weight.

e. Prejudice: Subjectivity and/or hidden agendas are used instead of facts.

f. Inaccuracy: Bad or misunderstood data nullify accurate risk assessment.

g. Enumeration: It is difficult to assign a numerical value to human behavior.

1) Numbers may oversimplify real life situations.

2) It may be difficult to get enough applicable data; this could force inaccurate estimates. 

             3) Numbers often take the place of reasoned judgment. 

   4) Risk can be unrealistically traded off against benefit by relying solely on numbers.
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16
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

List causes

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17
Q

Develop controls is an action for which step in the RM process?

A

Step 3

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18
Q

Within the RM process, which is a type of control can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?

A

Engineering controls, physical controls, administrative controls educational control and operational control.

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19
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 or the RM process?

A

Make implementation clear, establish accountability, and provide support

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20
Q

In step 5 of the RM process, ensuring that changes requiring further RM are identified is part of which action?

A

Monitor

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21
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STARR: spread out, transfer, avoid, accept, and reduce

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22
Q

In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member, establish accountability?

A

STEP 4 implement controls

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23
Q

In step 1 of the RM process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed what model can be used?

A

PEACE: Planning, Event complexity, asset selection, communications, and environmental conditions

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24
Q

What is the control method to reduce or eliminate risks from a hazard that identifies when it is possible to avoid specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?

A

Avoid

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25
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

Spread out

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26
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using _____.

A

Transfer

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27
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the risk management process?

A

Identify Hazards

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28
Q

What is defined as, “the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard,” in COMDTINST 3500.3A?

A

Risk

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29
Q

What is defined as “a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity”?

A

(RM) Risk Management

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30
Q

How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the RM process?

A

04 Actions

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31
Q

Which is an action taken during the first step in the RM process?

A

Mission Task Analysis: what can go wrong analysis, list causes

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32
Q

What does the RM process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?

A

Effective teamwork and communication

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33
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

Lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities

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34
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve ________________________________.

A

The acceptance of some level of risk.

35
Q

What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps in not managed?

A

Mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness

36
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _________________ by reducing member exposure to hazards.

A

Increases mission success

37
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.

A

Expected risk exposure

38
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?

A

RM Process

39
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

GAR 2.0 to consider PEACE and STAAR elements

40
Q

When is RM most effective?

A

When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.

41
Q

Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is ________.

A

Continuous and adaptive

42
Q

What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?

A

PEACE/STAAR analyses

43
Q

What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?

A

PEAACE Model

44
Q

What outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?

A

STAAR

45
Q

Where are the steps of RM described?

A

Risk Management Fundamentals

46
Q

What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis?

A

Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM)

47
Q

What should units use at the start of each day or watch?

A

Deliberate ORM Assessment

48
Q

Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?

A

PEACCE and STAAR

49
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew Endurance

50
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 to _______________.

A

Address unique operational realities

51
Q

At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?

A

PEAACE

52
Q

Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?

A

PEAACE/STAAR

53
Q

What shall all units use to conduct a real-time assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?

A

GAR 2.0

54
Q

Which is a model to identify hazards?

A

PEAACE

55
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?

A

2 – SUPERVISE and EVALUATE

56
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the RM process?

A

Step 3 – Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions

57
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?

A

Step 5 – Supervise and Evaluate

58
Q

The FIRST step in the IDP process is to _____.

A

Assess your competencies

59
Q

An IDP is _____.

A

A tool to help individuals reach career goals within the context of organizational objectives

60
Q

An IDP is not _____.

A

A performance evaluation method, a contract for training, or a means for clarifying or revising a position description

61
Q

What is the basis for scheduling the next counselling session for an enlisted member’s IDP?

A

6 Months

62
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted IDP?

A

CG-5357

63
Q

Which element of successful leaders is associated with the leadership competency “taking care of people”?

A

Leading Others

64
Q

Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-Line Supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thoughtful advice?

A

Mentoring

65
Q

The anticipated level of expertise for first-line supervisors for the effective communications leadership competency includes which of the following?

A

Leading Others

66
Q

What is trait described for Coast Guard leaders within the effective communications competency?

A

Coast Guard leaders communicate effectively in both formal and informal settings. Good listeners, they reinforce the message they convey with supportive mannerisms. Leaders express facts and ideas succinctly and logically, facilitate an open exchange of ideas, ask for feedback routinely, and communicate face-to-face whenever possible. They write clear, concise, and organized correspondence and reports. Successful leaders prepare and deliver effective presentations. In situations requiring public speaking, they deliver organized statements, field audience questions, confidently communicate with the media and other external entities, and distinguish between personal communication situations and those as a Coast Guard representative. Competent coaches, supervisors, followers, performance counselors, interviewers, and negotiators, leaders know how to approach many situations to achieve organizational goals.

67
Q

Coast Guard leaders communicate effectively in which of the following ways?

A

Both formal and informal settings

68
Q

What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others?

A

Learns to influence others; gains cooperation, while showing respectful understanding of others’ positions.

69
Q

What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Respect for Others and Diversity Management?

A

Treats all individuals fairly and without bias. Acts in compliance with Coast Guard policies.

70
Q

What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others?

A

Learns to influence others; gains cooperation, while showing respectful understanding of others’ positions.

71
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A

Define Conflict

72
Q

Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?

A

Stage 3 – Escalation

73
Q

What is the first stage of conflict escalation?

A

Stage 1 – Disagreement

74
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.

A

Compromising

75
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.

A

Compromising

76
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.

A

Accommodating (High Cooperativeness/Low-Assertiveness)

77
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.

A

Competing (Low-Cooperativeness/High-Assertiveness)

78
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is ___________________

A

Collaborating (High-Cooperativeness/High-Assertiveness)

79
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?

A

Facilitate a resolution

80
Q

Which stage of conflict represents that path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?

A

Stage 4 – De-Escalation

81
Q

What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?

A

The point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive. This is where peers in a conflict situation should look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool (page 12) as this for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties. Communication is the key to resolution to any conflict and good communication can greatly assist in minimizing an escalating conflict situation.

82
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?

A

Escalation

83
Q

Which of the following are a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?

A

Your peer may try to avoid interaction with you or avoid eye contact, unless necessary.

Previous outgoing interactions with you, as their peer either before, during, or after a job, task, or project completion have quickly stopped, decreased, or have ceased to exist all together.

You hear rumors throughout the shop, team, unit, about a certain person, whom you recognize as equal in rank/grade to you, is having a rough time at the unit and seems to have hard feelings or concerns regarding your peer workplace relationship. This person, however, has not yet come forward to you to discuss.

This person has significant decreases in what is normally a very congenial and professional daily verbal interaction with yourself.

This person has a decreased involvement in unit activities, athletics, after work events, social gatherings.

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