EPME Flashcards
- A(n) _____ is each command’s tool to establish procedures and processes to be followed to carry out command and Coast Guard policy.
Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
- In order to make an effective argument for change, managers must ___________ and obtain as much data as possible.
Study the issues
- COMDTINST M5215.6 (series) governs the _____.
Coast Guard directives system
- Which step in the process of effecting change includes “market the right audience”?
Draft Recommendations
- Generate a _____ diagramming factors, stakeholders, and risks associated with the barriers to the change.
Force-Field Analysis
- What is process to request resources in future fiscal years?
Resource Proposal Process
- What is the best process to review a new policy or change?
Concurrent clearance, “simultaneous review of material by concerned organizational elements.”
- _____ is necessary to reduce extra workload and person-hours incurred by the implementation of a policy.
Reassessment
- What type of analysis is used to identify strengths and threats?
SWOT Analysis
- What types of cost data should a change manager gather?
Excessive Cost Data
- When bringing a problem to a decision maker, you should be prepared to present what?
Several recommendations with all the positive and negative aspects of each.
- The person presenting the argument should also point out the_____ if new or changed policy does NOT occur.
resources not expended
- With any new or changed policy, the issue of _____ to accomplish the mission becomes paramount.
resources necessary
- Who can issue a directive?
Only the following can issue a directive:
- The Commandant
- Area, district and group commanders
- Commanders, maintenance and logistics commands
- Commanding officers and officers-in-charge
- Who is the program manager for Coast Guard wide directives and policy?
Commandant (CG-61)
- A _____ clearly and accurately identifies an issue needing to be studied, understood, or brought to the attention of the next higher authority in your chain of command.
Problem Statement
- In reviewing current unit and Coast Guard policy, there are _____ points managers need to do, in order to make an effective argument for change.
7
- Which category of the leadership competencies states, “Leaders are able to envision a preferred future for their units and functions, setting this picture in the context of the Coast Guard’s overall vision, missions, strategy, and driving forces”?
Vision Development and Implementation
- The _____ states that leaders manage and champion organizational change.
Leadership Development Framework
- Developing policy requires in-depth examination of the problem, and establishment of _____, which when followed, will lead to the desired improvements or changes to the existing policy.
succinct steps
- When communicating with program managers to effect change, it is important to give complete and accurate _____.
data and information.
- In order to make an effective argument for change, managers must ___________ with others.
collaberate
- The process of effecting change involves _____ steps.
9
- While our instinct is to describe the changes needed in order to make things better, managers need data and other information to ___________ the positive changes.
sell
- The basis for creating new policy is a _____.
problem statement
- When socializing potential changes the _____ must sell new policy and changes to current policy.
Program Manager
- To build support for a proposal for a new or changed policy, stakeholders should understand the positive impacts of _____.
the new or changed policy.
- Each new policy has a(n) _______________________.
Originating Authority
- Implementation of change or new policy could be slowed or stopped if significant barriers to _____ are evident and not halted.
change or resistance
- A _____ concisely and accurately identifies an issue needing to be studied, understood, or brought to the attention of the next higher authority in your chain of command.
problem statement
- What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memorandum?
#
- When are “Thru” lines used on a memo?
When one or more offices or units outside your own must see a memo before it reaches the addressee.
- What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
Endorsement(s) to Memorandum
- Every memorandum must include _____________.
a date. May be hand stamped or typed in. Every memo also needs a from line.
- Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memorandum?
The signing official will sign on the “From” line.
- Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum?
On each page of the memorandum.
- What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the Federal Government?
The Coast Guard Memorandum
- When writing a memorandum, the most appropriate SSIC code should be used. Where can you look to find this SSIC code?
Information and Life Cycle Management Manual, COMDINST M5212.12(series)
- When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility a _______ may be used.
Thru
- Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memorandum be found?
Standard Distribution List (SDL), COMDTNOTE 5605
- Where is information on routing a memorandum found?
On the To and Thru lines
- What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?
A place where issues that are important, but not relevant to the topic at hand can be parked out of the congestion of discussion. Discuss/resolve these items at the end of the session.
- What is another form of parking lot or board?
An Issues, Decisions and Actions (IDA) record
- What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?
Timekeeper, Scribe, Recorder, Co-Facilitator, Participant, Subject Matter Expert
- Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made?
Establish Ground Rules
- What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting?
Gives input, ideas, opinions
Listens to others
Clarifies
Uses good team process skills
- What is a responsibility of a timekeeper in a meeting?
Keeps track of time
Notifies group when allocated times are up
- During a meeting, who has responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group’s train of thought?
Recorder
- During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?
Scribe
- How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there?
Four
- What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?
Plus/Delta
- Action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?
80 hours
End of marking periods for pay grade E9 is what month?
June (all)
End of marking periods for pay grade E8 is what month?
February (AD)
November (Reserves)
End of marking periods for pay grade E7 s what month?
September
End of marking periods for pay grade E6 is what month?
May
That Marking Official should route the completed Eval film report to the Approving Official no later than _____ days after the evaluation report ending period?
5
Who is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period?
the Approving Official
How many categories of performance are there in the ESS?
4
- When should items in the Parking Lot be discussed?
At the end of the session.
- Consensus discussions are part of what step in meeting facilitation?
Establishing ground rules.
- The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facilitation?
Evaluate the meeting
- Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established?
Establish Ground Rules
- Time spent planning your meeting will ensure _______________.
a better outcome.
- There are _____ items to include on a meeting agenda.
10
- How many days does a supervisor have to counsel an active duty evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
21 days
- How many days does a supervisor have to counsel a reservist evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?
45 days
- Within the EES each competency is defined in terms of _____ performance standards.
three
- Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period?
The unit rating chain.
- Who has appeal authority for any annual or semiannual evaluation report?
The first flag officer in the evaluee’s chain of command. This cannot be delegated.
- For first-term members reporting to a new duty station, supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within _____ days of reporting.
30
- An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is mandatory for _____.
all enlisted members within their first four years of enlistment, active duty and reservist, assigned to a permanent duty station.
- The IDP shall be introduced and discussed by the supervisor no later than how many days after the reporting date?
30 days
- When meeting with a service member during the IDP process, what is the mentor’s primary objective?
Help the individual reflect on their potential, set goals and explore career options.
- How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member’s past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to _____.
ensuring future success.
- An Individual Development Plan is, in part, a means to _____.
improve an individual’s performance and behaviors.
- What are the Supervisors responsibilities in relation to the IDP?
- Become familiar with IDP process and purpose to effectively guide participants. Implement all IDP policies and procedures for first-timers.
- Assess the unit’s/organization’s mission, short and long term requirements, staffing, and technology and then asses the person’s potential to meet those needs.
- Act as a coach and mentor to individuals
- Identify unit resources to support the IDP and include projected formal requirements in the unit’s training plan as reasonable.
- Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be _____.
approved only in extraordinary circumstances and considered on a case-by-case basis.
- As a general rule, military members are not entitled to _____.
cash awards, gratuities, gift certificates or coupons for recognition of superior performance of duty (to include from other government agencies).
- Where can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member?
Enclosure 24
- The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared ______________.
in “landscape” orientation on the award stationary with one-inch side and top margins, and at least a two-inch bottom margin where a gold seal, two inches in diameter will be embossed with the awarding authority’s official seal.
When do you need to provide evaluation input for your EES?
When required by the rating chain.
What is done with the original EER counseling sheet?
Given to the member.
________ was designed to inform each member of the performance standards against which they are measured.
Enlisted Evaluation System
The ______ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility and reductions in pay grade.
COMDT Instruction M100.2C Enlistments, Evaluations and advancements Manual
Your signature on the member’s signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgment of what?
I. The counseling and review of their evaluation report.
- The impact of the evaluation report on their Good Conduct Eligibility
- The appeal timeframe
- Their advancement potential and recommendation.
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Conduct
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Competencies
Which factor type in the EER measures the member’s ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
Which factor type in the EER measures a member’s ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____.
2, 4, or 6
What are the areas impacted by awarding an “Unsatisfactory Conduct Mark”, as listed in CIM 1000.2(series)?
- Advancement
- Good Conduct Award Eligibility
3.
Appeals to the approving official’s decision on the advancement recommendation _____.
may not be appealed.
What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?
- Ready
- Not Ready
- Not Recommended
The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?
- Incorrect information
- Prejudice
- Discrimination
- Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances.
What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?
The appeal letter must contain the specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed. Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards. The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.
What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?
- Member must request an audience with the rating chain to verbally express any concerns that could lead to a written appeal.
- Submit an appeal letter within 15 calendar days (45 for Reservists) of the date they signed the counseling report.
What actions may the appeal authority take?
They can raise or leave the mark unchanged, but they may not lower any marks.
What are forms CG-3788A-G used for?
Are optional and can be used by units with limited or no access to Direct Access.
While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?
CIM 1650.2
The service strip is placed at a ______angle.
45 degree
What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?
The anchor is approx. 1-3/8” high
What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?
Double Windsor
The wearing of this type of Blue Crew Neck T-Shirt is prohibited in heat/fire prone spaces.
Moisture wicking (Polyester)
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define conflict
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Disagreement
In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accommodating
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.
Competing
The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is ___________________.
Collaborating
What is the third stage of conflict?
Escalation
What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Approaching limits of standard
What level of compliance does a red color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Non-Compliant - Corrective action required
What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?
Train to memory
What is the purpose of form CG-4903?
To anonymously report a hazard
How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?
Until deficiencies have been corrected and for at least five years past the end of the calendar year to which they relate
What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?
Annually
How many Administrative remarks entry types are there?
9
Where is the original form CG 3307 distributed?
Filed in the SPO PDR
For evaluations not completed in Direct Access, what must be placed inside the original CG-3788(series) and forwarded to PPC (adv)?
An additional CG-3307
What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?
Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person
How many stages are there in conflict?
5
What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?
Confrontation
In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?
Escalation
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without it first.
De-escalation
What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
endorsements
Every memorandum must include_____________.
Date
What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide - Related ideations
Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?
Suicide
What is the result of Self-Harm Level 3?
Death
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Self Harm
What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with anon-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?
Suicide Attempt
What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?
Undetermined Suicide-related behavior
Dismissing _____________ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicidal ideations
What would self-harm with no injury be reported as?
Self-Harm level 1
What level of self-harm results in injury?
Self-Harm level 2
For reporting purposes, what level of suicide attempt results in injury?
Suicide attempt level 2
In one survey more than half of 26,000students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one_____________ at some point in their lives.
Suicidal Thoughts
What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide related communications
What type of suicide-related communications is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?
Suicide Plan
For reporting purposes, what level of self-harm results in death?
Self-Harm Level 3
Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM (Ideation, Substance Abuse, Purposelessness ,Anxiety, Trapped, Hopelessness, Withdrawal, Anger, Recklessness, Mood Changes)
_____________ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention
Asking
What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”
A statement of your observations
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE (Ask - Care - Escort)
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
Step 1 - Ask
During the _____________ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care
During which step of suicide prevention you should remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Care
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality
Care
In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?
Care
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Care
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person and this will save his/her life?
Escort
During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental
Escort
If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask again.
