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Epme Flashcards

1
Q

Where should Coast Guard voluntary education services inquiries related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ETQC
REF: Education & Training Quota Management Command(ETQC

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2
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

Joint Service Transcript, Dantesexamination reimbursement, degree reporting, solicitation for voluntary education program award

REF: Education & Training Quota Management Command(ETQC)

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3
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the Coast Guard voluntary credentialing program?

A

Coast Guard VCP Policy COMDTINST 1540.10

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4
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?

A

ETQC

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5
Q

Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?

A

Course Support and Testing on ETQC website

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6
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the _____.

A

Forever GI Bill

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7
Q

Under the Post-9/11 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for an _____ with dependents.

A

E-5

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8
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits.

A

36 months

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9
Q

The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?

A

Post 9/11, Montgomery, Select Reserve, Veteran Readinessand Employment, Dependant Educational Assistance

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10
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive _____ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend.

A

80%

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11
Q

In which of the following cases is Tuition Assistance authorized for?

A

Annual cap of $4500 per AD/Reserve member, not to exceed 18.0 semester hour, or 270.0 Quarterly hour, 0.0 clock hours

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12
Q

One purpose of the _____ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication and the capacity for professional growth to remain in the Coast Guard.

A

Advanced Education

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13
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education program?

A

A: Apply to advanced Education Program manager approved educational institution
B: Gain acceptance to the Educational institution and the specific degree program
C: Complete necessary pre-reqs
D: Act as a CG Liason
E: Liason with edecational institutions military advocate
F: Monitor and Comply with Fiscal Requirement
G: Carry a full credit hour load year round
H: Maintain academic proficiency
I: Complete program study requirements within time slots
J: Maintain Coast guard requirements and standards

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14
Q

Who acts as subject matter expert to assist Coast Guard members with voluntary education programs?

A

ESO

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15
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A

1: Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
2: Always maintain proper muzzle control
3: Keep finger off the trigger until ready to shoot
4: Know your target is what is beyond it

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16
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?

A

By the Commanding Officer

Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

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17
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?

A

A minimum of 6 months time in service

Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

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18
Q

The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests.

A

AFCT or Armed Forces Classification Test

Performance, Training, and Education Manual M1500.10 (series)

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19
Q

Class “A” Course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending a Class “A” Course, are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

6 Months

Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

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20
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

IV (Investigator) and DV (Diver)

Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

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21
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?

A

ALCOAST Mesaaging system

Enlistments, Evaluations, and Advancements COMDTINST M1000.2 (series)

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22
Q

Where are “A” school rating requirements listed?

A

ALCOAST message system by the Rating training Advisory Council

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23
Q

Which stress management term is defined as “bad” stress?

A

Negative Stress and associated with a loss of control

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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24
Q

“Good” stress is related to which stress management term?

A

Positive stress and associated with a sense of control

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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25
Q

Which term is defined as “the non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor”?

A

Stress

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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26
Q

What are stressors?

A

Whatever causes Stress
Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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27
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s personal stress load?

A

StressMap: A stress management tool used to measure a persons personal stress load

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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28
Q

Stress is defined within the Coast Guard Stress Management Program as:

A

The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it after you encounter a stressor

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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29
Q

The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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30
Q

Which Stress Management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?

A

Operational Stress Control

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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31
Q

How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?

A

1-855-CGSUPRT (247-8778) or www.CGSUPRT.com

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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32
Q

Who is eligible for the Office of Work-Life Stress Management Program?

A

Active Duty, Reserve, Spouse and Civilian employees of the Coast Guard

Office of Work Life Programs: Stress Management Program Webpage

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33
Q

Identify a signal of distress which is an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents.

A

Emotional, Cognitive, Behavioral Physiological and Spiritiual Responses

CRITICAL INCIDENT STRESS MANAGEMENT (CISM) COMDINST 1754.3.9 (series)

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34
Q

The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) offers which as an example of a way to manage stress?

A

Keep a Journal, Eat Healthy, Get Regular Sleep, Relaxation exercises, avoiding excess caffeine, indentifying and challenging negative thoughts, reaching out to friends and family.

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35
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

to provide training, education, treatment and administrative processing resources in support of Coast Guard’s policy governing substance use, abuse and chemical dependency.
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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36
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) low-risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option when _____.

A

when one is driving, using machinery, cleaning a weapon, pregnant, or on certain medications
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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37
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

A

Zero, One, Two, Three model
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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38
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?

A

CG-111 or rethinkingdrinking.gov
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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39
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A

Prevention education. An evidence based alcohol program for members who show signs of misuse
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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40
Q

What is one responsibility of a Command Drug and Alcohol Representative (CDAR)?

A

The CDAR will facilitate placing members into treatment and will ensure that all documentation required by the facility is complete.
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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41
Q

What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?

A

Prevention education. An evidence based alcohol program for members who show signs of misuse
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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42
Q

One intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program is to _____.

A

The CG SAP Program strategy is to reduce the negative consequences related to substance use.
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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43
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?

A

Abusing Substances such as drugs or alcohol.
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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44
Q

What is considered substance abuse?

A

When you are taking drugs and alcohol in excess
Substance Abuse Prevention and Treatment Manual COMDTINST M6320.5 (series)

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45
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), as an individual’s BAC increases, the risk of _____ increases.

A

Harm

National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) - Alcohols effects on Health/Understanding Alcohols Impact on Health

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46
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), drinking too much over time can raise your risk for _____, cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses. 

A

Alcohol associated

National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) - Alcohols effects on Health/Understanding Alcohols Impact on Health

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47
Q

According to the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA), more than _____ people die from alcohol-related causes in the United States each year. 

A

178000

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48
Q

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is _____.

A

A concern

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49
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?

A

5 or more drinks in two hours

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50
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

4 or more drinks in two hours

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51
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?

A

0.08%

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52
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired? 

A

0.08%

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53
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being “sloppy” drunk? 

A

0.16%

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54
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout? 

A

0.30%

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55
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?

A

0.40%

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56
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is _____.

A

Passes out and cannot be woken up, puking while asleep, has cold clammy or pale skin, breathing is slow and irregular

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57
Q

Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____. 

A

-School problems-
-Social problems
-Legal problems
-Physical problems, such as hangovers or illnesses.
-Unwanted, unplanned, and unprotected sexual activity.
-Disruption of normal growth or sexual development.
-Physical and sexual violence.
-Increased risk of suicide and homicide.
-Alcohol-related motor vehicle crashes
-Memory problems.
-Misuse of other substances.
-Changes in brain development that may have life-long effects.
-Alcohol poisoning.

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58
Q

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?

A

Pound for pound women have less water in their bodies than men

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59
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

A

1.5 oz

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60
Q

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a “standard” drink?

A

14 grams

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61
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

A

5 oz

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62
Q

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?

A

12 oz

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63
Q

Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour? 

A

0.05%

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64
Q

Across the United States, a recorded Blood Alcohol Content (BAC) test of _____ or higher alcohol is proof of DUI without any other evidence.

A

0.08%

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65
Q

A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.

A

AUD or Alcohol use Disorder

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66
Q

A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.

A

180

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67
Q

Which of the following is required for self-referral for potential substance abuse?

A

Requesting through CDAR, Chaplain, Command, SAPS, or health care provider

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68
Q

Which statement reflects Coast Guard policy on tobacco use and abuse? 

A

CG discourages all forms and use of tobacco to protect people and environment.

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69
Q

Which example would constitute unauthorized use of a prescription drug?

A

No current prescription within 6 months or verified medical use that would account for popping on the urinalysis

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70
Q

Which of the following is considered prohibited substance abuse?

A

Controlled or Synthetic substances

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71
Q

Which of the following constitutes a drug incident?

A

1: Intentional use of druugs for non-medical purposes
2: Wrongful possesion of drugs
3: Traffiking of drugs
4: Intentional use of inhalants
5: A civil or military conviction for wrongful use, possesion

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72
Q

Urinalysis is the procedure employed to obtain urine samples under controlled conditions, maintaining a chain of custody on each sample, and_____.

A

Scientifically analyzing the samples to detect the presence of drugs

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73
Q

Which of the following would be the consequence of a drug incident? 

A

Separation

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74
Q

Which term is defined as self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, or intent to die?

A

Suicide

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75
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?

A

Self Harm

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76
Q

What term is defined as any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?

A

Suicide threat

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77
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die?

A

Suicide Attempt

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78
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with no injury is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm level 1

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79
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm with injury is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm level 2

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80
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, self-harm resulting in death is reported as _____.

A

Self Harm level 3

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81
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide attempt level 2

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82
Q

For reporting purposes within the Suicide Prevention Program, suicide attempt resulting in no injury is reported as _____.

A

Suicide attempt level 1

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83
Q

What term is defined as any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?

A

Suicide related ideations

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84
Q

What would be the cause to report a Self-Harm Level 3 in the Suicide Prevention Program?

A

Death

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85
Q

What term is defined as a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where intent is unknown?

A

Undetermined Suicide Related Behavior

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86
Q

Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.

A

Suicidal Ideations

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87
Q

In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.

A

Episode of suicidal thinking

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88
Q

What are any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?

A

Suicide related communication

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89
Q

What type of suicide-related communication is a proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior?

A

Suicide Plan

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90
Q

What type of suicide-related communication is a systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?

A

Suicide Plan

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91
Q

Which of the following is part of the mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?

A

Ideation, substance abuse, purposelessness, anxiety, feeling trapped, hopelessness, withdrawal, anger, recklessness, mood changes

Suicide Prevention Program COMDTINST 1734.1 (series)

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92
Q

_____ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention.

A

Asking

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93
Q

What may be helpful to lead into the question “Are you thinking about killing yourself?”

A

To consider how the conversation will go in your mind and role play to consider all the possibilities, help ease you into the ocnversation

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94
Q

What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?

A

A.C.E. Ask Care Escort

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95
Q

During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?

A

Ask

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96
Q

During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.

A

Care

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97
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?

A

Care

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98
Q

During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?

A

Care

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99
Q

In which step of suicide prevention is active listening likely to produce relief?

A

Ask

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100
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?

A

Care

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101
Q

You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?

A

Care

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102
Q

During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?

A

Escort

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103
Q

During which step of suicide prevention should you escort the person to the nearest emergency room, HCP, or mental healthcare professional?

A

Escort

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104
Q

If you ask a person “Are you thinking about killing yourself?” and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?

A

Ask Again

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105
Q

If a person tacitly indicates he/she has had thoughts of suicide, what information should you get on how bad the situation is?

A

How? Situation? History?

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106
Q

Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?

A

Regional Work Life Office

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107
Q

Which personnel are required to develop Personal Fitness Plans?

A

All AD and Select Reserve must submit a CG-6049

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108
Q

Who do your submit your completed Personal Fitness Plan to?

A

Supervisors in April and October

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109
Q

When must your completed Personal Fitness Plan be submitted?

A

Supervisors in April and October

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110
Q

The most current Personal Fitness Plan must be kept on file or electronically saved by _____.

A

The member or supervisor

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111
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include what amount of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?

A

Muscle strengthening activities on two or more days a week that work all major muscle groups

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112
Q

Physical fitness guidelines for general health as set forth by the CDC include muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?

A

2 days per week

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113
Q

All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.

A

Engage in a fitness activity as outlined in their PFP, minimum 180 mins a week

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114
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of cardiorespiratory activity.

A

150 mins/ week

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115
Q

It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.

A

60 mins

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116
Q

Because the effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.

A

10 mins

Coast guard health promotion manual COMDTINST M6200.1

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117
Q

In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?

A

3 days/week

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118
Q

Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a _____ level of intensity.

A

Medium to vigorous level

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119
Q

According to the CDC, adults should perform 150 minutes per week of aerobic activity at what level of intensity?

A

Medium intensity

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120
Q

What is the form number for the Personal Fitness Plan?

A

CG-6049

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121
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve _____.

A

Some level of risk

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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122
Q

What is a critical human factor that will increase the potential for error-induced mishaps if not managed?

A

mission analysis, leadership, adaptability and flexibility, situational awareness, decision making, communication, and assertiveness

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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123
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process _____ by reducing member exposure to hazards.

A

Increases mission success

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124
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the _____.

A

the expected risk exposure

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125
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?

A

The RM Process

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126
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

using GAR 2.0 to consider PEACE and STAAR elements.

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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127
Q

When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?

A

RM is most effective when hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.

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128
Q

Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is _____.

A

continuous and adaptive

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129
Q

Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?

A

The five-steps of RM are described in “Risk Management Fundamentals”

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130
Q

What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?

A

Units are encouraged to use the Risk Assessment Matrix (RAM)

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131
Q

What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew endurance is a function of physiological and psychological factors

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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132
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to _____.

A

to address unique operational realities

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133
Q

Which is a model used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?

A

The GAR 2.0

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134
Q

_____ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.

A

RISK

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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135
Q

_____ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.

A

RISK

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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136
Q

How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

The Coast Guard has adopted a 5-step RM process that consists of 1) Identifying Hazards, 2) Assessing Hazards, 3) Developing Controls and Making Decisions, 4) Implementing Controls, and 5) Supervising and Evaluating Controls
RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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137
Q

Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Identifying Hazards

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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138
Q

What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?

A

The PEACE/STAAR analyses are captured in GAR 2.0

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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139
Q

What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?

A

PEACE MODEL

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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140
Q

What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?

A

GAR 2.0

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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141
Q

At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?

A

PEACE MODEL

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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142
Q

What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?

A

GAR 2.0

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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143
Q

Which models, when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?

A

PEACE/STAAR analyses

RISK MANAGEMENT (RM), COMDTINST 3500.3A

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144
Q

Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?

A

PEACE/STAAR analysis

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145
Q

What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?

A

GAR 2.0

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146
Q

Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?

A

unit commander, commanding officer, or officer-in-charge.

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147
Q

When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses and dependents?

A

Motor vehicles are authorized to transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity. No additional cost must be incurred by the Government and there must be free space available that is not needed for official purposes.

MOTOR VEHICLE MANUAL, COMDTINST M11240.9D

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148
Q

Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?

A

OFFICIAL PURPOSES, CEREMONIES, NON-CG EMPLOYEES IN OFFICIAL CAPACITY, SPOUSE AND DEPENDANTS WITH MEMBER, MILITARTY RECRUITS, OFFICIAL TRAVEL

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149
Q

Transportation of a member’s dependent would be authorized in a CG owned motor vehicle in which case?

A

Motor vehicles are authorized to transport an employee, spouse and dependents together from the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee is participating in an official capacity. No additional cost must be incurred by the Government and there must be free space available that is not needed for official purposes

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150
Q

Only Government employees that possess a _____ state, territorial, or District of Columbia driver license are permitted to operate a motor vehicle.

A

current and unrestricted

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151
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long-distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous _____ hours.

A

8 HOURS

MOTOR VEHICLE MANUAL, COMDTINST M11240.9D

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152
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed _____ hours of combined duty-hours and driving hours.

A

14 HOURS

MOTOR VEHICLE MANUAL, COMDTINST M11240.9D

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153
Q

Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?

A

SF-91

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154
Q

Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must _____.

A

COMPLETE a driver improvement course

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155
Q

What term is defined as the process (or steps) involved in managing one’s personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?

A

Personal financial management
1740.8

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156
Q

The definition of which term includes prudent day-to-day management of personal finances?

A

Personal financial readiness
1740.8

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157
Q

What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual’s or family’s income and expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?

A

Financial planning and counselling
1740.8

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158
Q

The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?

A

7

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159
Q

Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?

A

Education and training
Counselling
Information and referral
Command financial specialist program
Outreach
Collaboration and coordination
Cg suprt personal financial wellness program

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160
Q

Commands with at least _____ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS).

A

25

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161
Q

What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?

A

10% if under 59.5
1740.8

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162
Q

The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into _____ categories, based on level of compliance.

A

3

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163
Q

What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?

A

update your contact info in DA to include your preferred email

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164
Q

If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the _____ icon in the top-right corner of the “Skills” Tab.

A

get more information

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165
Q

What is a purpose of the EES?

A

A.To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members.
b. To inform enlisted members of the performance standards they will be measured against.
c. To provide a means by which enlisted members can receive feedback on how well they are measuring up to the standards.
d. To capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance so the Coast Guard may advance and assign members with a high degree of confidence.
e. To provide the Coast Guard with a tool to support a wide variety of human resource decisions including discharges, reenlistments, conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments and reductions in rate.
f. To provide members’ of boards and panels with the necessary information to make selections and decisions based on enlisted members observed performance and potential

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166
Q

Which of the functions is the evaluee’s responsibility within the EES?

A

Familiarization, performance, evaluation input, acknowledgement, verification

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167
Q

The _____ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.

A

Rating chain

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168
Q

Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?

A

Military- Measures ability to bring credit to CG Performance- measures willingness to acquire and use knowledge Professional Qualities- measures qualities the CG Values in it’s people Leadership- measures ability to direct, guide, develop, influence and support others
Enlistment Eval Manual M1000.2C

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169
Q

A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins _____.

A

The day after the effective date of the EER in which an UNSAT conduct mark was awarded. If confinement is imposed by NJP or CM, eligibility starts on the day of release regardless if on probation. IF no confinement is included in sentence, starts the day following conviction or awarding of NJP.

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170
Q

The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _____.

A

… may not be appealed to an appeal authority.  page 4-25
Enlistment Eval Manual M1000.2C

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171
Q

Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?

A

Written Appeal. If this meeting does not lead to an agreement between the approving official and the member, the member can appeal in writing and submit the appeal to the appeal authority indicated in the Enlisted Evaluation System Procedures Manual, PSCINST M1611.2 (series), via the commanding officer. If the member has been reassigned, they must submit the appeal to the appeal authority for the former command, via the commanding officer of that command.

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172
Q

What is the definition given in the Recruit Training Master Pamphlet for effective communication?

A

An effective communicator is successful in establishing an active two-way link with another individual or group.

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173
Q

What are the common barriers to effective communication?

A

Physical / Distance * Ambient Noise * Distracting Movement * Language (dialect, accent) Perceptual Barriers * Past experience - can lead to assuming intentions or behaviors of individuals. * Stereotypes - making large sweeping generalizations with different groups of people. * Emotional blocking - fear or worry can cloud the thought process. * Social status - people treat each other based on economic conditions

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174
Q

How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?

A

Practice active listening to overcome barriers to communication. * Suspend judgment by practicing nonjudgmental listening. * Resist distractions; focus on the person. Make eye contact. * Wait before responding. Listen with an open mind before responding. * Make nonjudgmental comments. Ask open-ended questions. * Observe body language and voice tone. Overcoming Barriers Deterrents * Avoid assumptions; listen to the whole story. * Eliminate external and internal distractions. * Avoid push-button issues that you know have the potential to make the listener upset. * Avoid daydreaming. * Do not prepare your response while someone is talking.

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175
Q

What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?

A

Parroting - repeat back the same words you heard.
* Paraphrasing - the idea in words you can understand. This allows the sender to confirm the idea they sent.
* Clarifying - ask open-ended questions

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176
Q

What is one type of listening for effective communication?

A
  • Inactive - This is the kind of listening you want to avoid. It is inefficient and unproductive. “In one ear and out the other.”
  • Selective - This kind of listening is probably the most common. It’s when you hear what you want to hear.
  • Active - Listening is a conscious effort to listen for the complete message.
  • Reflective - Listening to the whole message and reflecting back on what was said. Reflective is used to clarify what is being said.
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177
Q

What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?

A
  • Achieve personal growth. * Receiver gains insight into something they may not have observed about themselves. * Feedback creates an open environment * It helps you prepare for the future by not dwelling on the past.
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178
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?

A
  • Be specific and to the point. Express exactly what happened. * Focus on behavior of the person and not on the person. * Direct feedback toward changeable behavior only. * Feedback must be solicited. When someone asks for help, that person is open to feedback. * Feedback must be timely. Do not wait to give it. * Check for understanding. Use active listening skills
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179
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?

A
  • Try to be open minded and receptive. Don’t be defensive. * Ask for relevant examples that they have seen. * Summarize to ensure understanding of the feedback. * Say “Thank you.” Remember, feedback is a gift and you should treat it that way
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180
Q

What is the Coast Guard’s definition of leadership?

A

A leader is one who influences and inspires others toward a goal.

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181
Q

The Coast Guard Leadership Development Framework consists of _____ categories of leadership competencies.

A

5 Categories; leading self, leading others and teams, leading performance and change, leading programs and coalitions, leading the cg

28 Competencies

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182
Q

How do you access and view your pay slip?

A

Direct Access Global Payroll > View my Payslips (AD/RSV) > select Payment Date

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183
Q

What dependent information in the pay slip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?

A

Marital Status

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184
Q

Which block of the pay slip contains a member’s basic pay?

A

Earnings

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185
Q

What information can be found in the tax data section of they pay slip?

A

FICA-MEDICARE, FICA-OASDI, FITW
With a Current column and YTD

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186
Q

In which section of your pay slip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?

A

EARNINGS

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187
Q

Which information can be found in the bottom section of the pay slip?

A

REMARKS:
TSP ELECTION, LEAVE CHARGED, YTD ROTH CONTRIBUTIONS

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188
Q

What information is found in the Net Pay Distribution block of the pay slip?

A

BANK ACCOUNT INFORMATION

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189
Q

Which section of the pay slip will show information unique to each member?

A

NAME, ADDRESS, EMPLID AND RANK INFO, MEMBER AND DEPENDENTS DOB’S, All of these at the top of the Payslip

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190
Q

Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?

A

CO of the ship or officers senior to the CO, to visiting officers, officers making inspections, officers when addressing someone.

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191
Q

You must render salutes to which of the following?

A

All officers of the armed forces, NOAA, Public Health Service, and foreign armed services. Also national ensign

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192
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should _____.

A

Stop vehicle, remain seated at attention

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193
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem, the driver shall _____.

A

Stop vehicle, remain seated at attention

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194
Q

When are salutes rendered by persons in motor vehicles?

A

By passengers. Never by driver

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195
Q

When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes you, you shall _____.

A

salute

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196
Q

When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag passes you shall _____.

A

Stand at attention

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197
Q

The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____ articles.

A

6

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198
Q

All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct _____.

A

“..while in combat or in captivity.”

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199
Q

Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?

A

MAY NOT, Speak before a partisan political gathering, including any gathering that promotes a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.
MAY NOT, Participate in any radio, television, or other program or group discussion as an advocate for or against a partisan political party, candidate, or cause.

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200
Q

Which of the following would be an authorized political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?

A

Attend partisan and nonpartisan political fundraising activities, meetings, rallies, debates, conventions, or activities as a spectator when not in uniform and when no inference or appearance of official sponsorship, approval, or endorsement can reasonably be drawn.

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201
Q

The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?

A

Bulletins and Alerts

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202
Q

Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?

A

Bravo

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203
Q

Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?

A

Bravo

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204
Q

Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?

A

Normal

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205
Q

Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?

A

Alpha

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206
Q

Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?

A

Charlie

207
Q

Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?

A

Stearns Model I600 Type I PFD or Standard Navy PFD

208
Q

Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?

A

transverse and longitudinal

209
Q

Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?

A

¼ “

210
Q

Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?

A

Will not extend below the top of the upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth.

211
Q

Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel who are diagnosed with Pseudo Folliculitis Barbae (PFB)?

A

Commanding officers or Officers-In-charge

212
Q

The USCG celebrates its birthday on _____ of each year.

A

August 4th 1790

213
Q

The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.

A

10

214
Q

In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?

A

Steamboat inspection service

215
Q

The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.

A

1831

216
Q

The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?

A

28 JANUARY 1915

217
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?

A

01 APRIL 1967

218
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?

A

01 MARCH 2003

219
Q

Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first _____.

A

Secretary of the Treasury

220
Q

Who was the Coast Guard’s first aviator?

A

Elmer Stone

221
Q

Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?

A

Ellsworth Price Bertholf

222
Q

On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____.

A

United States Revenue Cutter Service

223
Q

Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?

A

Signalman First Class (SM1) Douglas Munro

224
Q

Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?

A

Point Cruz, Guadalcanal during WWII

225
Q

SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, _____.

A

Guadalcanal

226
Q

What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?

A

USRC HARRIET LANE

227
Q

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.

A

torpedo from a German U-boat. 111 DIED

228
Q

An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.

A

Captain of the port

229
Q

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?

A

WW1

230
Q

During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?

A

6 (not named)

231
Q

During World War II, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

232
Q

Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day?

A

Captain Quentin R. Walsh

233
Q

During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted _____, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong.

A

Operation Market Time

234
Q

During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?

A

26

235
Q

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991?

A

Persian Gulf For Desert Shield/Storm

236
Q

The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on _____.

A

9/11

237
Q

In which year did the United States Coast Guard conduct the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina?

A

2005

238
Q

The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following _____.

A

9/11

239
Q

In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days.

A

87 days

240
Q

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?

A

Bronze Star with Combat “V”

241
Q

Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?

A

Nathan Bruckenthal

242
Q

How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?

A

26

243
Q

The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.

A

13

244
Q

The _____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

245
Q

The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.

A

Coast Guard Ensign

246
Q

The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters.

A

CG Ensign

247
Q

On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the _____.

A

CG Ensign

248
Q

During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with _____.

A

43 Battle Streamers

249
Q

The design of the _____ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.

A

Coast Guard Standard

250
Q

The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign.

A

Coast Guard Standard

251
Q

This flag is used during parades and ceremonies.

A

CG Standard

252
Q

What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?

A

Battle Streamers

253
Q

Battle streamers are attached to the _____, replacing cords and tassels.

A

CG Standard

254
Q

Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.

A

Battle streamers

255
Q

Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers.

A

Major headquarters commands

256
Q

The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the _____.

A

u.s. marine corps

257
Q

The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.

A

43

258
Q

The _____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port.

A

Union jack

259
Q

The _____ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel.

A

Union jack

260
Q

The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag.

A

Union jack

261
Q

The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.

A

Commissioning Pennant

262
Q

The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings.

A

CG Seal

263
Q

The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard.

A

CG Seal

264
Q

The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in _____.

A

1927

265
Q

The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.

A

Emblem

266
Q

The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.

A

Shield

267
Q

The _____ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed.

A

CG Stripe

268
Q

The _____ was developed in the 1960s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith, Inc.

A

CG Stripe , 1964 proposed 1967 implemented

269
Q

Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning: _____.

A

Always Ready OR Ever Ready

270
Q

When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?

A

Per the book October 1896 and May 1897
Also 21 May 1897 is specifically mentioned

271
Q

The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of _____, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham.

A

New Orleans

272
Q

What language did Semper Paratus originate from?

A

Latin

273
Q

The music for Semper Paratus was written by _____.

A

Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck

274
Q

What is a Safety Data Sheet (SDS)?

A

detailed informational document prepared by a manufacturer or importer of a hazardous chemical

275
Q

What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?

A

SDS

276
Q

If the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?

A

The manufacturer

277
Q

The standard Globally Harmonized System (GHS) format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.

A

16

278
Q

Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____ to prevent improper use or handling.

A

SDS

279
Q

The Globally Harmonized System (GHS) provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of _____.

A

SDS

280
Q

What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?

A

2 years

281
Q

Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?

A

CSEL, RFMC, SEL
CSEL- command senior enlisted leader

282
Q

What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?

A

Relocation Assistance Program

283
Q

Who can provide you with community information, demographics information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?

A

Transition/Relocation Managers

284
Q

Transition/Relocation Managers may provide _____ with local resource information.

A

Welcome Packages

284
Q

How should you contact your Transition/Relocation Manager?

A

Regional Worklife staff

285
Q

Your _____ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program.

A

Family Resource Specialist

286
Q

Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?

A

Family Resource Specialist

287
Q

What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program (SNP)?

A

dd-2792

288
Q

What is the title for staff members at Health, Safety, and Work-Life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?

A

Family Advocacy Specialist

289
Q

One purpose of the Family Advocacy Program is to _____.

A

Prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.

290
Q

One purpose of the _____ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.

A

Family Advocacy Program

291
Q

CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s _____.

A

Office of work life

292
Q

Members can call _____ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor.

A

CG SUPRT

293
Q

The _____ has been designed to capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance, so the Coast Guard can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

294
Q

The _____ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

295
Q

The _____ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

296
Q

The _____ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

297
Q

The _____ has been designed to set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System
COMDTINST M1000.2C

298
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grades are the last day of which months?

A

E-1 January (all) & July (AD only)
E-2 January (all) & July (AD only)
E-3 February (all) & August (AD only)
E-4 March (all) & September (AD only)
E-5 April (all) & October (AD only)
E-6 May (all)
E-7 September (all)
E-8 February (AD only) or November (Reserves)
E-9 June (all)
COMDTINST M1000.2C

299
Q

The evaluee must perform which of the following functions within the EES?

A

Familiarization, Performance, Evaluation Input, Acknowledgement, Verification
COMDTINST M1000.2C

300
Q

When do you need to need to provide evaluation input for your EER?

A

not later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period
COMDTINST M1000.2C

301
Q

What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?

A

unit provides the evaluee the original counseling sheet
COMDTINST M1000.2C

302
Q

Your signature on the member’s signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgement of _____.

A

The counseling and review of their evaluation report; The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility; The appeal time frame; and Their advancement potential and recommendation.

303
Q

The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date.

A

9
COMDTINST M1000.2C

304
Q

The _____ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.

A

The rating Chain
COMDTINST M1000.2C

305
Q

What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?

A

“how the evaluee performed in each competency consistently throughout the period, except for conduct, which must be adhered to every day of the period.´per the manual
COMDTINST M1000.2C

306
Q

What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?

A

Competencies
COMDTINST M1000.2C

307
Q

How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?

A

Military, Performance, Professional Qualities, Leadership
COMDTINST M1000.2C

308
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures the member’s ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?

A

Military
COMDTINST M1000.2C

309
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures a member’s ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?

A

Leadership
COMDTINST M1000.2C

310
Q

Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____ in each competency.

A

2,4,6
COMDTINST M1000.2C

311
Q

If a member receives an unsatisfactory conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their _____.

A

Advancement
COMDTINST M1000.2C

312
Q

Appeals to the approving official’s decision on the advancement recommendation _____.

A

15 days after the signature date on the acknowledgement section of the counseling sheet
COMDTINST M1000.2C

313
Q

What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?

A

Ready, Not Ready, Not Recommended
COMDTINST M1000.2C

314
Q

What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?

A

The approving official must counsel the member on why this mark was assigned
COMDTINST M1000.2C

315
Q

The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on which of the following?

A

Incorrect Information, Prejudice, Discrimination Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances
COMDTINST M1000.2C

316
Q

What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?

A

The specific competencies in dispute and supporting documentation
COMDTINST M1000.2C

317
Q

What responsibility does the member have in the EER appeal process?

A

Request and audience
Written appeal
The appeal letter
Submission deadline
Appealing After the Deadline If appealing more than 15 calendar days (45 calendar days for reservists) after the date the member signed the evaluation report acknowledgment section, the member must explain the circumstances that precluded them from submitting the appeal within the prescribed time limit.

318
Q

As a result of an EER appeal, what actions may an approving official take?

A

The approving official may meet with the member and come to a resolution
COMDTINST M1000.2C

319
Q

What is the deadline for active duty members to submit an appeal for their EER?

A

15 calendar days
COMDTINST M1000.2C

320
Q

What is the deadline for reservists to submit an appeal for their marks?

A

45 Calendar Days
COMDTINST M1000.2C

321
Q

What are EER forms CG-3788A-G used for?

A

Enlisted Evaluation Report Form
COMDTINST M1000.2C

322
Q

The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____.

A

Hazing
COMDTINST M1600.2

323
Q

Hazing can include which of the following?

A

Abusive tricks
Throwing personnel over the side
Tacking on crows
Forcing consumption
Group wrestling
Encouraging excessive amounts of alcohol consumption
Abuse of water
Shaving/Cutting hair
branding
coercing to Disrobing
Taping or tying limbs
Handcuffing
Using LE restraints
Placing foreign liquids
Offensive touching
Striking
Threatening violence
Oral or written berating

324
Q

Which directive requires a commanding officer to “prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel”?

A

United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3 (series)
COMDTINST M1600.2

325
Q

Which is true of hazing?

A

-, actual or implied consent does not eliminate the perpetrator’s culpability
- Traditional service initiation ceremonies, including Chief’s Initiations and equator, international dateline, and Arctic and Antarctic Circle crossings, are authorized, provided commands comply with governing directives when conducting such ceremonies.
COMDTINST M1600.2

326
Q

Subjecting an individual military member to harassment or ridicule for the purposes of “inclusion” is defined as _____.

A

Hazing
COMDTINST M1600.2

327
Q

Which is true of hazing and bullying?

A

Hazing and bullying erodes mission readiness and will not be tolerated
COMDTINST M1600.2

328
Q

If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, ____.

A

May be held accountable as well
COMDTINST M1600.2

329
Q

Which of the following would be an example of an appropriate relationship?

A

(1) Two crewmembers going to an occasional movie, dinner, concert, or other social event. (2) Members jogging or participating in wellness or recreational activities together.
COMDTINST M1600.2

330
Q

An interpersonal relationship in a professional work environment would be prohibited in what case?

A

Supervisors and subordinates in private business together
Supervisors and subordinates in a romantic relationship
COMDTINST M1600.2

331
Q

Which of the following is an example of unacceptable conduct?

A

Supervisors and subordinates gambling
Giving or receiving gifts
Changing rosters or work schedules
Instructors/Recruiters soliciting, proving alcohol, lending money, using personal vehicles to transports possible recruits, employing a possible recruit for personal services

332
Q

Which would be an acceptable romantic relationship?

A

Enlisted to enlisted / officer to officer peer to peer relationship
Military and Civilian CG employee
COMDTINST M1600.2

333
Q

Officer instructors at officer entry level accession programs engaging in a romantic relationship with an individual who has graduated from, or who last attended, an entry level accession program within the preceding 365 days _____.

A

Prohibited
COMDTINST M1600.2

334
Q

Engaging in sexually intimate behavior in which of the following situations would be prohibited?

A

Aboard any Coast Guard vessel, or in any Coast Guard-controlled work place
COMDTINST M1600.2

335
Q

Which of the following would be a prohibited relationship?

A

Supervisors and subordinates in private business together
Supervisors and subordinates in a romantic relationship
COMDTINST M1600.2

336
Q

A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?

A

365 days after last contact

337
Q

Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?

A

Article 92
COMDTINST M1600.2

338
Q

Which of the following is an example of prohibited use of government office equipment?

A

Using government equipment for sexual material
Intentionally creating, copy, or transmitting material that may be discriminatory to fellow employees
Loading personal or unauthorized software
Making unauthorized configuration changes
Using equipment as a staging ground
Deliberate introduction of viruses
Intentionally creating, copying, or transmitting SPAM
Subscribing or downloading media not authorized by the CG
Connecting personally-owned IT equipment
Misuse of sensitive information

339
Q

Which of the following is an example of inappropriate use of government office equipment?

A

Accessing personal email sites
Using a CG email address for subscriptions non-work related
Accessing social media
Engaging in any fundraising activity not sanctioned by the CG
Supporting private or personal business
Using office equipment for private, non-profit, commercial business or activities
Using office phones for personal calls
Accessing personal shopping sites
COMDTINST M1600.2

340
Q

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?

A

$20 or less no more than $50 in one year

341
Q

Where are deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

A

PDE CGMS Message

342
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to what point?

A

Terminal Eligibility Date TED
TIS – 20 points
TIR- 10 points
1000.2

343
Q

On your Personal Data Extract, award points are earned up to what point?

A

10 points/ until SWE Eligibility Date SED
1000.2

344
Q

Sea Time points on a Personal Data Extract (PDE) are calculated at what rate?

A

2 points per year or 0.166 per month
1000.2

345
Q

On your Personal Data Extract (PDE) you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

01JAN 2010
1000.2

346
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your Personal Data Extract (PDE)?

A

Note them on the printed copy, sign it, and provide it to your admin personnel
1000.2

347
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?

A

Return to previous page, enter member comments
DA Self Service Guide

348
Q

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

A

Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?

349
Q

You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?

A

Re-submit a corrected E-resume the following day after submission
DA Self Service Guide

350
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan (IDP)?

A

CG- 5357

351
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is NOT _____.

A

A performance method
Contract for training
Means for clarifying a position description
To be solely filled out by individual
Handed to individual

352
Q

A first term enlisted member’s Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.

A

30 days

353
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

is a lack of deliberate and systematic RM during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities
COMDINST 3500.3A

354
Q

What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?

A

effective teamwork and communication
COMDINST 3500.3A

355
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Hazard identification
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

356
Q

In step 1 of the Risk Management (RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A

PEACE
Planning, Event complexity, Asset selection, Communications, and Environmental conditions
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

357
Q

In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, “Why” analysis is used in which action?

A

Action 3
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

358
Q

How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?

A

the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

359
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfall?

A

Over optimism
Misrepresentation
Alarmism
Indiscrimination
Prejudice
Inaccuracy
Enumeration
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

360
Q

Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

STEP 3
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

361
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the _____ approach.

A

STAAR
Transfer
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

362
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

Spread Out STAAR
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

363
Q

What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?

A

Avoid STAAR
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

364
Q

Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?

A

STAAR

365
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

366
Q

In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?

A

Step 4 Implement controls Action 2
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

367
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Action 1—Make Implementation Clear
Action 2—Establish Accountability
Action 3—Provide Support
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

368
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall Risk Management (RM) process?

A

Step 5 (Supervise and Evaluate/Review)
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

369
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the Risk Management (RM) process?

A

3 Monitor, Eval, Feedback
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

370
Q

In step 5 of the Risk Management (RM) process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?

A

Action 1 Monitor
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

371
Q

In the Risk Management (RM) process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Step 5, Action 3 Feedback
Risk Management Process and Operational Considerations

372
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A

Define Conflict
Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person

373
Q

Which of the following is a behavioral clue that a conflict with a peer may exist?

A

Avoid interaction
Interaction has stopped
Rumors of discontent
Professional verbal interaction decreased
Decreased involvement in activities
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

374
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?

A

Escalation
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

375
Q

What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?

A

Increasingly aggressive
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

376
Q

What is the first stage of conflict escalation?

A

Stage 1 Disagreement
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT
note stage 2 is confrontation

377
Q

Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?

A

Stage 3 escalation
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

378
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?

A

Stage 4 deescalation
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

379
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is _____.

A

Collaborating
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

380
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.

A

Competing
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

381
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.

A

Accommodating
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

382
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.

A

Compromising
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

383
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?

A

Stage 5 Resolution
CG. Performance Support Tool, EPQ 5.3.3 - RESOLVE A CONFLICT

384
Q

The service stripe is placed at a ______ angle on the SDB jacket.

A

45 degree
COMDTINST M1020.6K

385
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E-7?

A

Gold
COMDTINST M1020.6K

386
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4?

A

Scarlett
COMDTINST M1020.6K

387
Q

What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?

A

The double Windsor men and women can wear this with all uniforms now IF WEARING OVERBLOUSE, WOMEN MUST WEAR TAB TIE

388
Q

When wearing the women’s overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.

A

Overblouse bottom shall not be visible.
COMDTINST M1020.6K

389
Q

Which does the women’s long sleeve light blue shirt have?

A

Button front closure
Soft stand-up collar with stays
Shoulder epaulets
One patch pocket with flap and button closure on each side of the shirtfront
COMDTINST M1020.6K

390
Q

What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?

A

Sleeves of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened
COMDTINST M1020.6K

391
Q

Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?

A

Moisture wicking
COMDTINST M1020.6K

392
Q

What is required for wear with all uniforms?

A

Undershirts with quarter length sleeves
COMDTINST M1020.6K

393
Q

What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?

A

Light blue shirt and overblouse
COMDTINST M1020.6K

394
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform, men are required to wear _____.

A

Oxford black shoes
COMDTINST M1020.6K

395
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS), what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?

A

Oxfords, pumps, or flats
COMDTINST M1020.6K

396
Q

What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?

A

Combo cap or garrison
COMDTINST M1020.6K

397
Q

What is NOT authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?

A

Ribbons
COMDTINST M1020.6K

398
Q

Oxfords are not authorized _____.

A

When skirt is worn
COMDTINST M1020.6K

399
Q

The women’s shirt and women’s slacks align with the belt so that the _____.

A

tab edge touches the wearer’s RIGHT side of the buckle
COMDTINST M1020.6K

400
Q

In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the _____.

A

Fly
COMDTINST M1020.6K

401
Q

Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?

A

Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?

402
Q

What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?

A

Sunglass frames must be conservative (unadorned black or navy blue material; gold or silver wire) and lenses must be black or brown in color (mirrored lenses are prohibited).
COMDTINST M1020.6K

403
Q

You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.

A

One
COMDTINST M1020.6K

404
Q

Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?

A

Prohibited examples include diamond covered, neon, white, and bright colors
COMDTINST M1020.6K

405
Q

Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring.

A

Class/wedding ring
COMDTINST M1020.6K

406
Q

According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are _____.

A

Watches
COMDTINST M1020.6K

407
Q

COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that _____ rings are not authorized.

A

Thumb rings
COMDTINST M1020.6K

408
Q

Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member?

A

For E-1 through E-3 a miniature version of the Coast Guard medallion, approximately 1 inch in size.
For E-4 through E-6 appropriate collars rate/pay grade insignia.
For E-7 through E-9 and MCPOCG, the garrison cap anchor is approximately 1-3/8 inches high
COMDTINST M1020.6K

409
Q

What is correct for an E-9 wearing the garrison cover?

A

For E-7 through E-9 and MCPOCG, the garrison cap anchor is approximately 1-3/8 inches high
COMDTINST M1020.6K

410
Q

While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges and _____.

A

(1) inch and parallel from the leading edge
(2) COMDTINST M1020.6K

411
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.

A

Insignia, recent qualification or qual most relevant to unit
COMDTINST M1020.6K

412
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.

A

Name tag, CO/OIC device
COMDTINST M1020.6K

413
Q

While conducting a personnel inspection you notice a member is wearing their ribbons out of order. What reference can you advise them to consult to properly align their awards?

A

1650.25
COMDTINST M1020.6K

414
Q

Which of the following awards has the highest precedence?

A

Medal of Honor

415
Q

How do you access the Coast Guard Business Intelligence (CGBI)?

A

Dashboard Pixel
Coast Guard Business Intelligence Basic Training Guide

416
Q

_____ are just one of the tools to assure compliance with 29 C.F.R. § 1960, and to keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards.

A

Unit/Workplace safety and health inspections
Safety and Environmental Health Manual CIM 5100.47D

417
Q

How do you submit a Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form?

A

through your unit safety supervisor, safety officer or other anonymous methods if necessary.
Safety and Environmental Health Manual CIM 5100.47D

418
Q

How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?

A

How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?

419
Q

What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all workspaces?

A

At least annual
Safety and Environmental Health Manual CIM 5100.47D

420
Q

The purpose of form CG-4903 is to _____.

A

Report hazardous conditions before resulting in a mishap

421
Q

How many Administrative remarks entry types are there?

A

9

422
Q

You have been directed to prepare a CG-3307 to document counseling for inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?

A

PD-12
Authorized CG-3307 Administrative Remarks Entries (uscg.mil)

423
Q

Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?

A

PD-07
Authorized CG-3307 Administrative Remarks Entries (uscg.mil)

424
Q

If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should _____.

A

If a member is not available for signature, so state, and include the reason(s).

425
Q

What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?

A

The words “member refused to sign” under the member’s signature block along with date counselled
Personnel & Pay Procedures Manual (PPPM) PPCINST M1000.2b

426
Q

Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the IPDR?

A

Commander, Personnel service center
Personnel & Pay Procedures Manual (PPPM) PPCINST M1000.2b

427
Q

What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?

A

Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person.
Performance Support Tool 6.2.5

428
Q

In which stage of conflict would members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?

A

Stage 2 – Confrontation
Performance Support Tool 6.2.5

429
Q

In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?

A

Stage 3 – Escalation
Performance Support Tool 6.2.5

430
Q

What is the final stage of conflict?

A

Stage 5 – resolution
Performance Support Tool 6.2.5

431
Q

Stage 5 – resolution
Performance Support Tool 6.2.5

A

5
Stage-1 – Disagreement , Stage-2 – Confrontation, Stage-3 – Escalation, Stage-4 – De-Escalation, Stage-5 – Resolution

432
Q

What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?

A

Training Code 1 – Train to Memory
Trainee, Professional Development Coach (PDC) and Reviewer Gui

433
Q

When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility, _____ lines may be used.

A

THRU
COMDINST M5216.4D

434
Q

What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the Federal Government?

A

The Coast Guard Memo.

435
Q

Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum?

A

Above the date
COMDINST M5216.4D

436
Q

Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memorandum?

A

“From” line
COMDINST M5216.4D

437
Q

Every memorandum must include a _____.

A

Date and “from” line
COMDINST M5216.4D

438
Q

What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?

A

An Endorsement
COMDINST M5216.4D

439
Q

When are “Thru” lines used on a memorandum?

A

When one or more offices/units outside yours must see the memo before reaching addressee
When writing internal command memo requiring chain of commands vis
COMDINST M5216.4D

440
Q

What is placed centered two lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memorandum?

A

#

441
Q

Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memorandum be found?

A

The Standard Distribution List, COMDTNOTE 5605

442
Q

During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?

A

The scribe

443
Q

During a meeting, who has responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group’s train of thought?

A

Recorder

444
Q

What is a responsibility of a timekeeper in a meeting?

A

Keeps track of time, notifies group when time is up
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

445
Q

What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting?

A

-Gives input, ideas, opinions
-Listens to others
-Clarifies
- Uses good team process skills
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

446
Q

What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?

A

-Timekeeper, Scribe, Recorder, Co-Facilitator, Participant, Subject Matter Expert
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

447
Q

Time spent planning your meeting will ensure _____.

A

“a better outcome”

448
Q

Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established?

A

Step C… or step 3 depending on verbiage

449
Q

Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made?

A

Step C- Establish Ground Rules
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

450
Q

When should the parking lot items from a meeting be discussed?

A

At the end of a meeting
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

451
Q

What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?

A

Where issues that are important but not relevant to the topic at hand can be parked
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

452
Q

What is another form of parking lot or board used in a meeting?

A

An Issues, Decisions, and Actions record (IDA)

453
Q

After a meeting, action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?

A

80 hours
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

454
Q

Consensus discussions are part of what step in facilitating a meeting?

A

Step H- Evaluate the Meeting
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

455
Q

The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facilitation?

A

Step H Evaluate the Meeting
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

456
Q

What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?

A

Step H Evaluate the Meeting
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

457
Q

How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there during the Evaluate the Meeting phase?

A

4 types
Round Robin, Consenses Discussions, plus/delta (a chart of positives and negatives), meeting surveys
Performance Support Tool Facilitate a meeting

458
Q

Who in the evaluee’s chain of command has appeal authority for any annual or semiannual evaluation report?

A

First flag officer
COMDINST M1000.2C

459
Q

Within the EES, each competency is defined in terms of _____ performance standards.

A

3 low, middle, high
COMDINST M1000.2C

460
Q

Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period?

A

Unit rating chain
COMDINST M1000.2C

461
Q

How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member’s past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to _____.

A

Ensuring future Success
COMDINST M1000.2C

462
Q

How many days does a supervisor have to counsel a reservist evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?

A

45 days
COMDINST M1000.2C

463
Q

How many days does a supervisor have to counsel an active duty evaluee after the end of the evaluation report period ending date?

A

No later than 21 days
COMDINST M1000.2C

464
Q

An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is mandatory for _____.

A

First term enlisted and junior officers. Both active and reserve
COMDINST 5357.1B

465
Q

For first-term members reporting to a new duty station, supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within _____ days of reporting.

A

30

466
Q

An Individual Development Plan is _____.

A

A tool to facilitate a conversation that supervisor and mentor if desired discuss personal and professional goals
COMDINST 5357.1B

467
Q

Supervisors have which of the following responsibilities in relation to the IDP?

A

Become familiar with the form and its purpose
Asses the units mission, shor and long term
Act as a coach
Identify unit resources available to support IDP
Keep a bile of blank IDP’s on hand
After a mbr attends training follow up on new knowledge
COMDINST 5357.1B

468
Q

Where is IDP counseling documented?

A

Individual is encouraged to keep for records, supervisor must keep and document at unit level.

469
Q

As a general rule, military members are not entitled to _____.

A

to cash awards, gratuities, gift certificates, or coupons for recognition of superior performance of duty
The Standards of Ethical Conduct Manual, COMDTINST M5370.8 (series) for complete policy

470
Q

The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared _____.

A

Will be typed and error free, “landscape”, 1 inch margins and 2 inch bottom margin to fit the 2 inch diameter seal. Seal will be aligned with left margin can’t exceed 12 lines.

471
Q

Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be _____.

A

prepared in memorandum format with supporting documentation and forwarded through the chain of command to CG PSC-PSD-ma

472
Q

Where can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member?

A

Enclosure 24 aka back of 1650.25E
1650.25E

473
Q

Which mobile app can you refer members to for information about the Coast Guard support programs and services to members and their families?

A

MYCG
Office of worklife CG 1k1

474
Q

Which mobile app can be used to find a unit Ombudsman using the “Ombudsman Locator” feature?

A

MYCG
Office of worklife CG 1k1

475
Q

Which Office of Work-Life program is responsible for ensuring that necessary financial information and resources are available to Coast Guard personnel and their family members?

A

Personal financial management program
Office of worklife CG 1k1

476
Q

Where can you access a comprehensive list of recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors?

A

SAPR
Office of worklife CG 1k1

477
Q

Where can you print the two-page document from Office of Work-Life Programs, Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) to provide financial counselling resources?

A

OFFICE OF WORKLIFE PROGRAMS  Personal financial management program fact sheet
Office of worklife CG 1k1

478
Q

Which Office of Work-Life Program can you refer members to who are seeking a business opportunity for their spouse by providing child care in a home environment?

A

Worklife programs –> Family child care

479
Q

At which Office of Work-Life Program site can you find a list of EAPCs?

A

Worklife programs –> Critical incident stress response program

480
Q

Which Health, Safety, and Work-Life staff has the overall objective to support the well-being of active duty, reserve and civilian employees and family members?

A

The CG Work life program managed by the office of worklife

481
Q

Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers information on psychological first aid?

A

Worklife program –> critical incident stress response program

482
Q

Which Office of Work-Life Program site allows you to download the ACE card?

A

Worklife program –> suicide prevention program

483
Q

Which Work-Life Program site offers a link to download parental leave policy flyers?

A

office of worklife programs –> parent resources

484
Q

Where can you find information on the Ombudsman Program, which has served as a vital link between the Coast Guard commands and families?

A

Work life programs –> ombudsman program

485
Q

What is the purpose of the Sea Legs, found at the Work-Life site?

A

To help support a smooth transition into military life

486
Q

The purpose of the Critical Incident Stress Response (CISR) program is to _____.

A

To help individuals exposed to critical incidents identify and cope with responses to events

487
Q

What is the National Suicide and Crisis Lifeline number?

A

1-800-273-TALK (8255)

488
Q

What is the telephone number for the SAPS Duty Line?

A

757-628-4329

489
Q

What acronym should you use to respond to a member who is contemplating suicide?

A

ACE ASK CARE ESCORT

490
Q

What are members of the Substance Abuse Prevention Team called?

A

SUBSTANCE ABUSE PREVENTION SPECIALISTS (SAPS)

491
Q

The objective of the Work-Life Subsistence Program is to _____.

A

Provide policy and support to 1200 CS’s and enable the successful and efficient operation of 360 cgdfS SERVICE WIDE

492
Q

What type of facility provides, on a regularly scheduled basis, developmentally appropriate programs designed to foster social, emotional, physical, creative, and intellectual growth to groups of children from age six weeks to kindergarten that are federally licensed and nationally accredited?

A

Military child development centers CDC

493
Q

Scholarships and school liaison programs within the Office of Work-Life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab?

A

Family support

494
Q

Discussions of individual personal finances with a Personal Financial Manager (PFM) are _____.

A

Confidential

495
Q

You can download a PDF version to provide members with the SAPRR program’s “How Do I report a Sexual Assault?” from what source?

A

SAPRR program website (sexual assault prevention response and recovery)
Office of worklife CG 1k1

496
Q

What program can you refer members to for improving communications between the command and Coast Guard family members?

A

Office of work-Life Programs: Ombudsman Program

497
Q

Where can you refer members for information about childcare?

A

Office of Work-Life Programs: Child Development Services (CDS)

498
Q

How can you view information for Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT) provided to TRICARE beneficiaries?

A

Phone, Online and In‐person

499
Q

What can you provide to members requesting information about self-referrals and seeking treatment for substance abuse?

A

Office of Work-Life (CG-111): Substance Abuse Prevention Program (SAPP)

500
Q

A friend asks you for help in reporting a sexual assault. How can you find answers about how ALCOAST 292 changed reporting requirements?

A

Sexual Assault Prevention Response & Recovery (SAPRR) – (CG-114)
Confiding in Another Person ALCOAST Change Notice Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) and Answers

501
Q

Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers the Coast Guard Nutrition Video Series by LCDR Trocchio?

A

Office of Work-Life Programs: Personal Wellness

502
Q

The Unit Health Promotion Resources site provides a link to which directive, which includes physical fitness responsibilities for all CG AD and SELRES personnel?

A
  1. Coast Guard Weight and Body Fat Standards Program Manual - COMDTINST M1020.8H
503
Q

The Health Promotion Program encourages members to utilize Tobacco Cessation services available at what web site?

A

WWW.YouCanQuit2.ORG

504
Q

If your roommate confides that he/she has been sexually assaulted, what should you do?

A

Decide whether to make a restricted or unrestricted report. A victim confiding in another person does not automatically create an Unrestricted Report and does not automatically preclude a victim from making a Restricted Report.

505
Q

Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request?

A

Your Health Promotion Manager (HPM)

506
Q

How can you access tobacco cessation resources available through EAP?

A

CGSUPRT.com

507
Q

What is a fact about quitting smoking found at the Work-Life Tobacco Cessation Program site?

A

Within 24 hours your lungs will start to clear out mucous
Within 48 hours your sense of smell and taste will improve
Within 72 hours you can breathe easier and have more energy
Within 12 weeks, coughing, breathing, and wheezing problems will improve
Within one year, your risk of heart disease is reduced to 50% of a continuing smoker
Within 10-15 years your risk of cancer is similar to that of someone who never smoked

508
Q

It is Coast Guard policy to _____ tobacco products.

A

Discourage

509
Q

What would be the minimum number of Victim Advocates assigned to a unit with 250 members?

A

3

510
Q

What would you be able to provide to members who ask what Work-Life resources are available for spouses?

A

Office of Work-Life Programs: Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

511
Q

Which Work-Life Program offers telephonic assistance for financial and legal concerns?

A

Office of Work-Life Programs: Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

512
Q

What information can be found at the SAPRR program site?

A

How to report, policy, and resources

513
Q

“Sexual assault” is defined as _____, characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent.

A

Intentional Sexual contact

SWE EPME (2 decks)

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