Epilepsy Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four key mechanisms for AEDS?

A

reduce electrical excitability of cell membranes
enhance GABA mediated synaptic inhibition
inhibition of calcium channels
unknown mechanisms

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2
Q

name six sodium channel blockers

A
phenytoin
carbamazapine
oxcarbazepine
lamotragine
ezcarbazine
lacosamide
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3
Q

name potassium channel opener

A

retigabine

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4
Q

give four examples of GABAa acting drugs

A

Barbiturates
Tiagabine
Vigabatrin
Benzodiazepines

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5
Q

what are the four types of calcium channel acting drugs

A

T type (Ethosuxamide, Zonisamide)

L TYPE (barbiturates, felbamate)

N type (Lamotragine, barbiturates, oxcarbazepine)

P/Q type (Lamotragine, oxcarbazepine)

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6
Q

give an example of an AED that acts on glutamate

A

parampenel

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7
Q

the decision to treat first seizure is controversial because the risk of recurrent seizures on average is…

A

30-30% in 2 yrs
24% with normal EEG and MRI
65% with lesion

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8
Q

under what circumstances does nice (2004/2012) recommend treating after a first seizure?

A

if there is: neurological deficit,
EEG unequivocally epileptogenic.
Structural abnormality on imagine,
risk of further fit unacceptable to pt

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9
Q

what percent of people are seizure free after one one AED is trialed?

A

70%

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10
Q

what percent of people are seizure free after two AEs are trialed?

A

5 to 10% (70% with 1)

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11
Q

what percentage still have seizures after two AEDs are trialed?

A

20%

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12
Q

what is the procedure for AED therapy

A

sequential monotherapy,

Start with one AED and push dose to clinical toxicity or seizure control.

2) if seizures continue: start a second drug: titrate to adequeate dose, then remove first AED.
3) If seizures continue: repeat with a third drug. 4) if seizures continue: reconsider diagnosis, consider combination therapy.

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13
Q

serum AED monitoring can be useful to:

A

check for adherance,
assess dose related side effects,
to guide phenytoin/phenobarbital treatment

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14
Q

what are some reasons for poor compliance?

A
poor communication, 
poor memory, 
poor understanding of instructions, 
mis-information,
side effects, 
poor dose regimens, 
difficulty swallowing/poor taste
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15
Q

what two drugs are most useful for the treatment of focal epilepsy?

A

carbamazepine (tegeratol)

lamotragine (lamictal)

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16
Q

name 5 drugs most useful for treatment of idiopathic generalised epilepsy

A
sodium valporate, 
lamotrigine, 
levitacetam, 
ethosuxamide, 
phenytoin
17
Q

treatment choice of AED for patial epilepsy depends largely on

A

side effect profile and patient’s preference/concerns

18
Q

choice of AED for generalised epilepsy depends on

A

predominant seizure type as well as side effects and preference

19
Q

what does NICE recommend as first line treatment for focal seizures, and what adjunctives?

A

carbamazepine OR lamotragine,

add ons: clobazam, gabepentin, topiramate,

20
Q

what does NICE recommend as first line treatment for newly diagnosed generalised tonic clonic seizures?

A

sodium valporate

(others: lamotrigine, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine)

add ons: clobazam, levetiracetam, topiramate

21
Q

what first line treatments does NICE reccoemend for absense seizures and what should be avoided?

A

ethosuxamide OR sodium valporate

(add ons: clobaam, clonazepam, levetiracetam, topirimiate, zonisamide,)

AVOID: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, pregabalin.

22
Q

what does NICE 2012 recommend for first line treatment of myoclonic seizures

A

sodium valporate,

(add ons clobazepam, clonazepam, piracetam, zonisamide)

AVOID : carbamazepine, gapapentin, oxcarbazine, phenytoin, pregablin, tiagabine, vigabrtin.

23
Q

what dos NICE 2012 recommend as first line treatment for tonic/atonic seizures?

A

lamotragine

(add ons: rufinamide, topiramate)

AVOID: carbamazepine, gabapentin, oxcarbazepine, pregablin, tiagabine, vigabatrin

24
Q

what AEDs can induce metabolism of other drugs?

A

carbamazepine,
phenytoin,
phenobarbitol,
primidone

25
what AEDs can inhibit metabolism of other drugs?
valporate, | felbamate
26
aspirin and warfarin can react with which drugs and alter International Normalised Ratio?
``` phenytoin, carbamazepine, Phenobarbitol, primidone, valpropic acid ```
27
which AEDs reduce the effectiveness of the PILL:
``` CBZ, OXZ, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, primidone, topiramate, rufinamide, (enzyme inducing) lamotragine (Non enzyme inducing) ```
28
which AEDs do not reduce the effectiveness of the pill
``` clonazepam, clobazam, zonisamide, levitiracetam, sodium valporate, vigabratrin, pregablin, gabapentin, ethosuxamide ```
29
name four common adverse affects of AEDs (all AEDS)
diziness, fatigue, ataxia, diplopia,
30
name some uncommon but serious side affects of AEDS
``` renal stones, anhydrosis, heat stroke, glaucoma, hyponatremia, hepatic failure, peripheral vision loss, rash. ```
31
what percentage of patients experience a rash attributed to AEDs?
15.90%
32
what types of rash can occur as a result of AEDs?
Stevens Johnson Syndrome, | Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis.
33
when should AED withdrawal be consideres (NICE 2012),
after 2 yrs of seizure freedom. Withdrawal should occur slowly, especially from benzos and barbiturates. Withdrawal of one drug at a time.