Epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 4 antiepileptics that can be given once daily at night due to their long half-lives

A

Parampanel, Lamotrigine, Phenobarbital, Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which risk category does gabapentin fall into in terms of keeping with the same manufacturer when supplying antiepileptics?

A

Category 3- Not necessary to provide same manufacturer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which risk category does lamotrigine fall into in terms of keeping with the same manufacturer when supplying antiepileptics?

A

Category 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which risk category does sodium valproate fall into in terms of keeping with the same manufacturer when supplying antiepileptics?

A

Category 2- Based on clinical judgement and patient circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which risk catergory does carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, and primidone fall into in terms of keeping with the same manufacturer when supplying antiepileptics?

A

Category 1- Manufacturer must be kept the same when supplying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When are symptoms likley to develop in antiepilepsy hypersensitivity syndrome?

A

Between 1-8 weeks after exposure to drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the symptoms of antiepilepsy hypersensitivity syndrome

A

Rash, fever, and lymphadenopathy most likley to occur, but multi-organ failure can occur when serious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is antiepilepsy hypersensitivity syndrome treated?

A

Withdrawal of causative drug and no further re-occurence to drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When can withdrawal of antiepileptics be considered?

A

If seizure free after 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are antiepileptics withdrawn?

A

Withdrawn over 3 months (benzodiazepines and barbiturates longer).
If on multiple epileptics, should be withdrawn one at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which classes of antiepileptics are associated with severe rebound seizures?

A

Barbiturates and benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long does the DVLA recommend not driving for after an unprovoked epileptic seizure or a single isolated seizure?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What criteria do people with epilepsy have to meet to be permitted to drive?

A
  • seizure free for 1+ years OR
  • confirmed history of seizures that do not effect level of conciousness/ ability to act.
  • Must not have history of unprovoked seizures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long is a person not permitted to drive for following a withdrawal of epilepsy treatment?

A

6 months after their last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which trimester is the highest risk of teratogenicity when using anti-epileptics?

A

first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which 4 antiepileptics demonstrate the highest risk of major congenital abnormalities in the foetus?

A

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, topiramate, and phenobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is folic acid recommended in the 1st trimester for a pregnant patient taking antiepileptics?

A

To prevent neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which 2 antiepileptics are particularly affected by physiological changes during pregnancy and post-partum?

A

Lamotrigine + phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What assessment must a pregnanct patient have if experiencing seizures in the seconf trimester?

A

eclampsia assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which therapy reduces the risk of neonatal haemorrhage associated with antiepileptic use?

A

Vitamin K given at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of seizure may lamotrigine exacerbate?

A

myoclonic seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

First line therapy for focal seizures

A

Levetiracetam/ Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

First line therapy for in pregnancy for epilepsy

A

Lamotrigine

24
Q

Second-line therapy for focal seizures

A

carbamazepine, oxcarbamazepine, zonisamide

25
Q

Third-line therapy for focal seziures

A

Lacosamide

26
Q

Fourth line therapy for focal seizures

A

Adjunctive treatment with 1st, 2nd, and 3rd line agents + topiramate

27
Q

First line therapy for generalised tonic-clonic seizure

A

Sodium valproate if unable to have children

28
Q

Second-line therapy for generalised tonic-clonic seizure

A

Lamotrigine/Levetiracetam

29
Q

Third-line therapy for generalised tonic-clonic seizure

A

Adjunctive therapy with 1st, 2nd, 3rd line options + perampanel, clobazam, topiramate.

30
Q

First-line therapy for absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

31
Q

Second-line therapy for absence seizures

A

sodium valproate if unable to have children- as monotherapy or adjunct

32
Q

First-line therapy for myoclonic seizures

A

sodium valproate

32
Q

Third-line therapy for absence seizures

A

Levetiracetam or Lamotrigine as monotherapy or adjunct

33
Q

Second-line therapy for myoclonic seizures

A

Levetiracetam

34
Q

Why is lamotrigine not used in myoclonic seizures?

A

Can exacerbate the seizure

35
Q

First-line therapy for atonic or clonic seizures

A

sodium valproate

36
Q

Second-line therapy for atonic or clonic seizures

A

Lamotrigine

37
Q

What is first line therapy in epilepsy syndromes such as dravet and lennox-gastaut syndrome?

A

Sodium valproate irrespective of being female- due to seriousness of conditions

38
Q

How are febrile convulsions treated?

A

Anti-pyretics used to bring temp down
Treated as status epilepticus if lasts 5+ minutes

39
Q

What is 1st line therapy in status epilepticus if patient does not have an emergency management plan in place?

A

buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam.
Lorazepam if IV access and resuscitation equipment available (can give a second dose in 5-10 mins if no response)

40
Q

Second line options in status epilepticus?

A

phenytoin, levetriacetam, sodium valproate, phenobarbital

41
Q

Third-line option in status epilepticus?

A

general anaesthesia

42
Q

What is the definition of prolonged convulsive seizure?

A

seizure lasting 2+ minutes more than a patient’s normal seizure

43
Q

What is the definition of repeated/ cluster seizures?

A

3+ seizures in 24 hours

44
Q

What condition is oral phenytoin contraindicated in?

A

Acute porphyrias

45
Q

What conditions is IV phenytoin contrainidicated in?

A

2nd/3rd degree heart block, stokes-adams syndromes, sino-atrial block, and sinus bradycardia

46
Q

What monitoring is needed when giving IV phenytoin?

A

ECG and BP monitoring

47
Q

How long a gap should there be between phenytoin and enteral feeds?

A

2 hours either side of dose

48
Q

What common side effects are associated with phenytoin?

A

vitamin d deficiency and electrolyte disturbances

49
Q

Why should IM phenytoin not be given?

A

Slow and erratic absorption

50
Q

What is the relationship between plasma drug concentrations and dose of phenytoin?

A

Non-linear

51
Q

What symptoms would raise red flags for a patient taking carbamazepine?

A

fever, rash, bleeding, bruising, mouth ulcers due to risk of leucopenia

52
Q

Name the contra-indications of carbamazepine

A

Acute porphyrias, AV conduction abnormalities, history of bone marrow suppression

53
Q

Which anti-epileptics are particualrly associated with a high risk of steven johnsons syndrome?

A

Carbamazepine, Levetriacetam, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital

54
Q

Which-anti-eplileptic should be withdrawn in cases of acute liver disease, or aggravated liver disease?

A

Carbamazepine

55
Q

Which anti-eplieptic has an increased risk of cutaneous adverse reactions with it’s use?

A

Carbamazepine