Epigenetic regulation of stem cell developmental potential Flashcards

1
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Undifferentiated proliferation-competent cells capable of both self-renewing and differentiating into multiple specialised cell-types

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2
Q

What is developmental potential?

A

The capacity for embryonic, foetal or adult stem cells to self-renew and/or commit to distinct programmes of cell differentiation

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3
Q

What are the 3 types of stem cell developmental potential?

A
  • Totipotency
  • Pluripotency
  • Multipotency
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4
Q

What is the potency of a fertilised egg? (2)

A
  • Totipotent
  • Gives rise to all embryonic and extra-embryonic cell types
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5
Q

What is the potency of embryonic stem cells? (2)

A
  • Pluripotent
  • Can self renew and give rise to all definitive embryonic cell types
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6
Q

What is the potency of adult stem cells e.g. haematopoietic stem cells? (2)

A
  • Multipotent
  • Can self-renew and give rise to all haematopoietic cell types
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7
Q

Where are pluripotent embryonic stem cells found? (2)

A
  • Inner Cell Mass of preimplantation stage embryo (blastocyst)
  • Gives rise to germ layers (endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm)
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8
Q

What happens to CpG methylation upon zygote formation? (3)

A
  • Genome wide active CpG demethylation to erase epigenetic marks from gamete genomes
  • Persists into early preimplantation stages of development
  • Followed by de novo DNA methylation
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9
Q

What are DMRs? (2)

A
  • Differentially methylated regions
  • Genomic regions with different methylation statuses among multiple samples (tissues, cells, individuals etc.)
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10
Q

What are the gamete-specific differences seen in de novo methylation? (3)

A
  • Oocyte contributed DMRs decrease and remain low/decline further
  • Sperm contributed DMRs decrease and then a subset are re-established during re-methylation
  • This is evidence that global DNA demethylation in the preimplantation blastocyst removes epigenetic barriers to acquisition of pluripotency
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11
Q

What are the 2 types of enzymes involved in re-methylation?

A
  • De novo methylation done by DNA methyltransferases DNMT3A and DNMT3B
  • Long term persistence of methylation in dividing cell populations requires maintenance DNA methyltransferase DNMT1
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12
Q

What happens to DNA methylation in dividing cells? (3)

A
  • Fully methylated DNA becomes hemi-methylated after DNA replication and cell division
  • DNMT1 converts hemi into fully methylated DNA (maintenance)
  • Methylation modifications would be diluted/lost passively in the absence of maintenance methyltransferases in proliferating cells
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13
Q

How does active demethylation occur? (3)

A
  • TET demethylases do a series of oxidation reactions on 5-methylcytosine
  • Forms an intermediate recognised by thymine deglycosylase which removes the base from the DNA
  • Base excision repair (BER) process restores the double stranded DNA by replacing with a normal cytosine
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14
Q

What does the blastocyst give rise to? (2)

A
  • Epiblast (pluripotent embryonic cells)
  • Trophectoderm (differentiating extraembryonic tissue)
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15
Q

What is the difference between day 6 and day 7 mouse blastocyst? (2)

A
  • Day 6 epiblast cells are pluripotent, best time to derive pluripotent stem cells
  • Day 7 egg cylinder cells are multipotent ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm layers
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16
Q

How do you get embryonic stem cells? (2)

A
  • Take cells from epiblast of preimplantation blastocyst and can maintain in 2i culture indefinitely
  • Get self-renewing pluripotent embryonic stem cells (ESCs)
17
Q

What is the definition of pluripotency?

A

Cells have the capacity to give rise to all differentiated cell types (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm, germline) when experimentally transplanted into a host embryo

18
Q

How are embryonic stem cells maintained in a state of pluripotency in vitro? (3)

A
  • Inhibition of FGF signalling via MEK inhibition (downstream of FGF)
  • Inhibition of GSK3 which is a negative regulator of wnt signalling
  • Results in inhibition of FGF signalling and potentiation of wnt signalling
19
Q

What are the OSN transcription factors? (2)

A
  • Oct4, Sox2 and Nanog
  • Required in ESCs to maintain pluripotency
20
Q

What is the difference in ESCs in 2i culture vs serum? (3)

A
  • Demethylation of Nanog in 2i culture compared to in serum
  • Better for maintaining pluripotency because demethylation allows expression of pluripotency genes such as Nanog
  • Presence of hydroxymethylcytosine in 2i culture ESCs is proof of active demethylation to maintain pluripotency
21
Q

What is the effect of forced expression of the OSKM group in fibroblasts?

A

Reverses differentiation and makes them induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs)

22
Q

What is the OSKM group? (2)

A
  • Pioneer transcription factors Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, Myc which are powerful regulators of phenotypic plasticity
  • Includes OSN factors Oct4 and Sox2
23
Q

How do the OSN factors maintain pluripotency in ESCs? (3)

A
  • Oct4, Sox2, Nanog form a complex at genes that are required to maintain pluripotency/undifferentiated cell state e.g. Jarid2 in ESCs
  • Recruit histone acetyltransferase p300/CBP which performs H3K27ac modifications to promote gene expression
  • H3K27ac prevents H3K27me by PRC2 at pluripotency genes
24
Q

Which residues do histone acetyltransferases target? (2)

A
  • Non-specific so will add acetyl groups to multiple lysines in the N-terminal tails of ALL core histones at transcriptionally active genes
  • H3K27 (methylation target of E(z)) acetylation by p300/CBP prevents H3K27 methylation
25
What is the structure of p300/CBP? (4)
- Histone acetyltransferase domain ('writer') - Bromodomain which binds acetylated histones ('reader') - Zinc finger domain which binds H3K4 methylation (trithorax target) which isn't a silencing modification - Recognises and boosts local acetylation
26
Which genes are frequently mutated by chromosomal translocation in leukaemia? (2)
- CBP - Trithorax
27
How are pluripotent embryonic stem cells poised for differentiation? (3)
- A class of developmental regulatory gene promoters exhibit bivalent (opposing) H3 histone modifications in their promoters i.e. H3K4me and H3K27me - Genes that are poised for transcription but inactive - Many of these are transcription factor encoding
28
What is a characteristic of the ES cell pluripotent state?
Bivalently modified transcriptionally silent genes
29
Which genes are transcriptionally active when pluripotent cells are differentiating into neural cells? (3)
- Nkx2.2 - Sox21 - Zfpm2
30
What is associated with H3K4 methylation?
Gene activation
31
What is associated with H3K27 methylation?
Gene repression
32
What happens to methylation of regulatory gene promoters during differentiation into neural cells? (2)
- Nkx2.2, Sox21, Zfpm2: retain H3K4 methylation and lose H3K27 methylation, transcriptional activation - The genes that aren't required retain H3K27me and lose H3K4me, remain silent
33
What is marked by bivalent histone modifications? (2)
- Developmental regulatory genes that are required for differentiation - Contain opposing H3 modifications in the same stretch of chromatin (H3K4me and H3K27me) so are poised for activation by signals
34
What is the location of bivalent modifications? (4)
- H3K27me3 is either side of the TSS (adjacent nucleosomes) - H3K4me3 is directly on the TSS - They are on slightly different nucleosomes - RNA polymerase sits ready on the TSS until it gets the signal to start transcription
35
What is a mammalian orthologue for trithorax? (2)
- Mll2 - Required for H3K4 methylation at bivalent promoters
36
What is the function of PRC2 in ESCs?
Catalyses H3K27me2,3
37
What is the effect of loss of PRC2 function in ESCs? (2)
- Loss of H3K27me on differentiation genes - Induces spontaneous differentiation into meso-endodermal tissue
38
What is the function of polycomb and trithorax proteins in differentiation genes? (2)
- Functionally antagonistic - Polycomb repress (PRC2, H3K27me), trithorax activate (H3K4me)