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Community/Population Health > Epidemiology, Infections and Communicable Disease > Flashcards

Epidemiology, Infections and Communicable Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the latency period?

A

replication before shedding

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2
Q

What is the interval between invasion by an infectious agent and the first appearance of S/S of disease?

A

incubation period

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3
Q

What is the interval during which an infectious agent may be transferred?

A

communicable period, usually starts before start of S/S

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4
Q

What is the incubation and communicable period for chicken pox?

A
  • 2-3 wks

- 1-2 days before development of a rash, until lesions crust over (appx. 5 days)

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5
Q

Signs of a localized infection?

A

inflammation, redness, warmth, selling, pain/tenderness, loss of function, drainage, cellulitis

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6
Q

Signs of generalized infection?

A

weakness, HA, malaise, fever, increases pulse, hyhpotension

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7
Q

When are neutrophil counts increased?

A

in most bacterial infections

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8
Q

Increased eosinophils are indicative of what?

A

an allergic reaction

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9
Q

Lymphocytes are increased in which diseases?

A

chickenpox, mumps, measles, mono, viral hepatitis (viruses)

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10
Q

When will Monocytes be increased?

A

TB and in the convalescent phase of acute infections

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11
Q

What does the term “shift to the left” indicate?

A

active infection with an increased number of immature neutrophils

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12
Q

What is C-Reactive Protein an indicator of?

A

inflammation

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13
Q

Sedimentation rate is a marker of what?

A

inflammation and infection

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14
Q

What is it called when a disease or condition is regularly found in a particular area/population?

A

an endemic

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15
Q

What is a secular pattern of disease?

A

long-term patterns, greater than 10 yrs

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16
Q

What is a point epidemic?

A

time and space related event (ex. food poisoning at a picnic)

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17
Q

What is a cyclical pattern of disease?

A

seasonal fluctuations (flu/cold)

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18
Q

People having reactions to the same vaccine at different places and at different times is an example of what type of disease pattern?

A

Event-related cluster

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19
Q

What factors make up the epidemiologic triangle?

A

Host, Agent, environment

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20
Q

Definition of “agents” of disease?

A

causes of the disease (bacteria, poison, cholesterol)

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21
Q

What is a prevalence rate?

A

number of all cases of a specific disease at a given point in time

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22
Q

What is an incidence rate?

A

number of new cases in a population in a specified period of time

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23
Q

How to calculate the incidence rate?

A

(new cases at a specified period in time/total population at risk) x factor (1, 10, 100…)

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24
Q

How to calculate the prevalence rate?

A

(existing cases at a specified period in time/totoal population at risk) x a factor (10, 100….)

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25
Q

What is an attack rate?

A

proportion of persons exposed to an agent and who develop the disease

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26
Q

How to calculate the attack rate?

A
  • (number of cases/ total population exposed) x 100

- is listed as a percentage

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27
Q

What is the term for the probability of an event occurring in the exposed group versus the control (non-exposed) group?

A

relative risk (RR)

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28
Q

How to calculate the relative risk?

A

RR = incidence of disease in exposed population/incidence of disease in non-exposed or control population

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29
Q

What are the stages of the natural history of disease?

A

1) pre-exposure (risk factors present for disease)
2) pre-pathogenesis or preclinical stage (exposure to causative agent)
3) pathogenesis (disease is present)
4) resolution (problem resolved)

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30
Q

Stages of HIV?

A

1) primary infection (< 1 month)
2) clinical latency (no symptoms)
3) symptomatic disease (AIDs)

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31
Q

What is the definition of sensitivity in a screening test?

A

quentifies ho accurately the test identifies those WITH the condition or trait (true positives)

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32
Q

What is the definition of specificity in a screening test?

A

indicates how accurately the test identifies those WITHOUT the condition or trait (true negatives)

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33
Q

How is the validity of a screening test measured?

A

by specificity and sensitivity

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34
Q

What is Latency in disease development?

A

replication before shedding

35
Q

What is the interval between invasion by an infectious agent and the first appearance of signs and symptoms?

A

incubation period

36
Q

What is the interval during which an infectious agent may be transferred?

A

communicable period - usually starts before s/s present

37
Q

Which WBC is increased in most bacterial infections?

A

neutrophils

38
Q

Which WBC is increased during an allergic reaction?

A

eosinophils

39
Q

A patient presents with a viral infection, which WBC would you expect to increase in number?

A

lymphocytes

40
Q

The term for an infectious agents ability to produce an immune response?

A

antigenicity

41
Q

What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence?

A

Pathogenicity Is the microbes ability to cause disease and virulence refers to the severity of the disease

42
Q

TB stats:

1) infectivity
2) pathogenicity
3) virulence

A

1) low
2) low
3) high

43
Q

Routes of horizontal transmission of disease?

A

1) direct/indirect
2) common vehicle (water, food)
3) airborne
4) vectorborne

44
Q

What is a fomite?

A

an inanimate object that is able to carry infectious agents (clothes, toys)

45
Q

Transmission-based Precautions - Airborne?

A

used with pathogens smaller than 5 microns & droplets or dust particles suspended in air; private room with monitored negative air pressure; door closed; mask for transport; wear N-95 HEPA filter or fit-test respirator mask

46
Q

Transmission-based Precautions - dropplet?

A

used with pathogens transmitted by infectious droplets; droplets larger than 5 microns; private room, can leave door open; mask for transport

47
Q

Airborn precautions used for which diseases?

A

measles (rubeola), TB, Varicella, shingles

48
Q

Dropplet precautions used for which disease?

A

diphtheria, pneumonia, meningitis, rubella, mumps, pertussis

49
Q

Transmission-based Precautions - Contact?

A

needed with physical skin-to-skin contact; private room; clean, non-sterile gloves and gown (remove before leaving pt. room), dedicated equipment

50
Q

Transmission-based Precautions - Neutropenic?

A

to prevent infection among clients with immunosuppression

51
Q

Contact precautions used for which diseases?

A

MRSA, herpes, clostridium difficile, RSV, pediculosis, scabies, excess wound drainage, fecal incontinence, rotavirus, Hep A

52
Q

Passive vs Active immunity?

A

passive is given to the patient (mom to baby), active is produce by the patients own body

53
Q

The bacterium Yersinia pestis is resonsible for causing what disease?

A

plague

54
Q

Recommended routine childhood immunization schedule in U.S.

A

Hepatitis B, diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, Haemophilus influenzae type B meningitis, Streptococcus pneumoniae-related illnesses, polio, measles, mumps, rubella, varicella, rotavirus, Hepatitis A, influenza, HPV and meningococcal disease

55
Q

Overall contraindications to immunizations:

A
  • Severe febrile illness
  • Live viruses should not be given to anyone with altered immune system
  • Previous allergic response to vaccine
  • Recently acquired passive immunity i.e. blood transfusion, immunoglobulin
56
Q

an acute, highly contagious disease with symptoms of high fever, sneezing and coughing, conjunctivitis, small white spots on the inside of the cheek (Koplik’s spots), red, blotchy rash

A

measles

57
Q
  • a virus that causes a mild febrile disease with enlarged lymph nodes and a fine, pink rash that is often difficult to distinguish from measles or scarlet fever
A

Rubella (german measles)

58
Q

How is pertussis transmitted?

A

airborne droplets

59
Q

a bacterial disease characterized by sudden onset (within 48 hours) of headache, abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, sometimes vomiting, and almost always fever; dehydration may be severe

A

salmonellosis

60
Q

What is the most common waterborne viral agent?

A

Hep A

61
Q

Waterborne bacterial diseases?

A

are cholera, typhoid fever, and bacillary dysentery

62
Q

Clinical signs of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever?

A

sudden onset of moderate to high fever, severe headaches, chills, deep muscle pain, and malaise

63
Q

What is the most common vectorborne disease in the U.S.

A

lyme disease

64
Q

What is the characteristic sign of lyme disease?

A

bull’s eye skin lesion

65
Q

Stages of Lyme disease?

A

1) responds to tetracycline or PCN
2) skin lesions,HA, neuro changes
3) arthritis or arthralgia

66
Q

What is Zoonosis?

A

an infection transmitted under natural conditions from a vertebrate animal to a human

67
Q

Examples of zoonotic diseases?

A

West Nile virus, monkey pox, hantavirus, mad cow, rabies

68
Q

1st AIDs case was identified in what year?

A

1981

69
Q

Common symptoms of TB?

A

Cough, fever, chills, fatigue, hemoptysis, chest pain, weight loss, night sweats, loss of appetite

70
Q

TB is more common in which ethnic groups?

A

Asian and Hispanic/Latino groups

71
Q

How many casualties are needed for a mass casualty and multiple casualty classifications?

A
  • 100 or greater

- 2-99

72
Q

Characteristics of Disasters?

A
  • frequency, or how often
  • predictability
  • preventability
  • Imminence or speed of onset
  • Scope or geographic area affected and number of casualties
  • Intensity or level of destruction
73
Q

Components of the Disaster Management Cycle?

A

prevention, mitigation, preparedness, response and recovery

74
Q

How often is the National Health Security Strategy (NHSS) revised?

A

q 4 yrs

75
Q

What is the National Incident Management System (NIMS)?

A

the nations’ common platform form disaster response

76
Q

What does the acronym “START” stand for in a triage situation?

A

Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment

77
Q

What do the following colors mean in a disaster triage situation:

1) green
2) yellow
3) red
4) black

A

1) minor (ambulatory)
2) delayed
3) immediate
4) expectant

78
Q

What are the criteria for an immediate (red) classification during triage?

A
  • RPM-30-2-Can Do

Resp (30 > RR), Perfusion (cap refill > 2 secs), Mental Status (can’t follow commands)

79
Q

Stages of Community Reactions?

A

1) heroic
2) honeymoon phase
3) disillusionment
4) reconstruction

80
Q

When people notice help may not be coming and begin to despair characteristic of which community reaction stage?

A

disillusionment

81
Q

What is the honeymoon phase following a disater?

A

people rejoice becasue they have survived

82
Q

During a flood, Chuck sees a child struggling to hold on to a fallen tree and may drown. He jumps in and saves the child. Which community reaction is chuck displaying?

A

heroic

83
Q

What ist hardest part of a disaster?

A

recovery

84
Q

What is therole of public health nursing in disaster recover?

A
  • ongoing community assessments
  • comunity resilience
  • pyschosocial support

Community/Population Health (3 decks)

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