Epi Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Veterinary Public Health

A

contribution to the complete physical, mental, and social well-being of humans through an understanding and application of veterinary med

It serves to: Protect population of people from animal-related diseases (zoonosis) & Animal health affects, and reflects, human health

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2
Q

Most food borne diseases originate from:

  1. plants
  2. animals
  3. water
  4. minerals
A
  1. animals
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3
Q

Zoonotic diseases

A

diseases in humans with animals as natural reservoirs.

Examples: rabies, Salmonella, beef and pork tapeworms, SARS, ebola

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4
Q

Zoonoses account for ___% of emerging diseases

A

Zoonoses account for 75% of emerging diseases

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5
Q

SARS = Severe Acute Respiratory syndrome

A
  • first notes in February 2003 in China
  • originally a bat coronavirus –> jumped to civets, held in adjacent cages in wild animal markets –> jumped to humans at the market.
  • Emerged as a pandemic with person-to-person aerosol spread.
  • Spread to >25 countries within a few months. The end result was ~8,100 cases with >700 deaths.
  • was controlled by aggressive contact tracing, isolation and quarantine of exposed and the infected people.
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6
Q

How does public health affect daily clinical practice?

A
  • Keeping yourself and your technicians free from zoonotic diseases and from injuries
  • Advising clients about zoonotic diseases and answering their questions
  • USDA Accreditation, Rabies quarantine and exams
  • Deciding which treatments and vaccines to use in animals.
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7
Q

Define Epizootiology

A

Epizootiology: the study of the distribution and determinants of disease and other helth outcomes.

EPI = “on, upon” = Above and beyond the normal levels of diseases

EN = “in, within” = Within normal limits for disease occurrence.

ZOO = “Animals” = Refers to disease in animal populations ONLY.

DEMOS = “People” = Refers to disease in people, but MAY be used generically!

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8
Q

Compare the complementary approaches of the clinician and epidemiologist

A
  1. Clinicians: Individual Sick animal, hospital/Clinic, Rx Individual, ID disease à What is it and how do I treat the individual?
  2. Epidemiologist: Population (sick & well), Field (farm or kennel), Control and prevent, Identify patterns, What is it (frequency)? and which, where, why and how?
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9
Q

Disease transmission is a
result of the interaction
between: (name 3 things)

A

host, agent,
and environment

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10
Q

Who is John Snow and what did he do?

A

John Snow “Father of Epi”

  • In 1849, published
    evidence that cholera is
    transmitted by the fecal-oral
    route and by the water supply
  • Went door-to door and maped cholera cases in outbreak
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11
Q

Who was Typhoid Mary?

and what kind of carrier was she?

A

Asymtomatic Carrier

  • Irish immigrant who worked as a cook
  • Caused several outbreaks of typhoid fever (Salmonella Typhi = anthroponotic) between 1900-1915
  • Spent 20 years in isolation
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12
Q

What are two early discovered vector transmitted diseases?

A
  • 1897 - Ronald Ross discovered that malaria is
    transmitted by mosquitoes
  • 1900 - Walter Reed discovered that yellow fever
    is transmitted by mosquitoes
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13
Q

True or False:

Infection = Disease= Infectivity

A

FALSE!!!

  • Clinically ill animals that are reservoir competent are probably infectious
  • some asymptomatic animals = carriers
  • not all sick animals are reservoirs
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14
Q

What is more important to know in disease prevention:

mode of transmission

specific causative agent

A

mode of transmission

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15
Q

What is a reservoir and what are the 3 essential questions?

A
  • Reservoir = habitat in which an infectious agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies (humans, animals, or the environment)
  • Reservoirs maintain pathogens over time, from year to year or generation to generation!

3 Questions that must all be “YES”

    1. Is it naturally infected with the pathogen?
      2. Can that species of animal (etc.) maintain the pathogen over time?
      3. Can this source transmit the disease to a new, susceptible host?
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16
Q

Interactions Between Pathogens and Reservoirs include:

A
  • Pathogens can mutate to escape immunity, so that animals become “susceptible” again, over time
  • Pathogens can evade immunity, allowing reinfection to occur after a short time period
  • Pathogens can cause chronic infections with minimal symptoms (“balanced pathogenicity”)
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17
Q

Vertical Transmission

Define and Two types

A

from a reservoir host to its offspring

– Congenital – some pathogens can cross the
placenta, infect eggs, etc.
– Perinatal – during parturition, via colostrum

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18
Q

Horizontal Transmission

Define and two types

A

from the reservoir to a new host

– Direct – directly from the reservoir to a susceptible host
– Indirect – via any sort of intermediary, animate or inanimate

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19
Q

3 types of Direct Transmission

A
  1. Direct contact
    – Skin-skin contact, mucous membrane contact (including sexual transmission), direct contact with a soil reservoir, bite, scratch, etc.
  2. Direct projection (droplet spread)
    – Wet, large, and short range aerosols (sneezing, coughing or talking) “ same room, same time”
  3. Airborne
    – Considered to be a form of direct transmission because disease agents do not generally survive for extended periods within
    aerosolized particles
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20
Q

Vehicle Transmission

A

Indirect

An inanimate object which serves to communicate disease.

important for vets- our boots, vehicles, surgical equipment

  1. Common vehicle– Food, water – Contaminated IV drugs = things that are shared (can be single, multiple or continual exposure to contamination)
  2. Fomites– Object that can be contaminated and transmit disease on a limited scale. Most common cause of iatrogenic and nosicomical infections
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21
Q

2 Types of Vectors

A
  1. Mechanical = the agent DOES NOT multiply or undergo part of its life cycle while in/on the arthropod
  2. Biological = the agent undergoes changes or multiples while in the vector; these activities are required for transmission
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22
Q

Tularemia outbreak in Germany Case Study

A

index patient participated in hare hunt 2 months prior & had swollen lymph nodes

Performed a retrospective cohort study to determine how transmission occurred

Looked in environment, sampled meat and asked questions

meat samples showed that the meat was contaminated

major risk factor was those who rinced the hare or were within 5 meters of the cleaning were infected by droplet infection

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23
Q

Latent period

A

microbe is replicating but not yet enough for the
host to become infectious.

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24
Q

Incubation period

A

Incubation period = microbe is replicating but not symptomatic yet.
Does not always correlate with the latent period.

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25
Q

Infectious

A

Infectious- disease caused by the invasion and multiplication of a living agent in/on a host

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26
Q

Infestation

A

Infestation- invasion, but not multiplication of an organism in/on a host (fleas/ticks, sometimes parasites)

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27
Q

Communicable

Vs.

Contagious

A

Contagious- disease transmissable from one human/animal to another via direct or airborne routes.

Communicable- disease caused by an agent capable of transmission by direct, airborne, or indirect routes from an infected person, animal, plant or a contaminated inanimate reservoir.

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28
Q

Epidemic Curve

A

Represent the number of new cases of disease, over time.

Can tell you:
– Most probable source of the outbreak
– If the pathogen is contagious
– If the outbreak is ending – or will continue
– Incubation period of the pathogen (sometimes)
– About outliers (index case, source, early/late exposure)

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29
Q

What is a determinant?

A

Factors that help DETERMINE the probability, distribution, or severity of a disease in an animal or population of animals.

Ex. Host susceptibility is one kind of determinant

Why is it important?

  1. Identifies animals at particular risk
  2. Disease prevention
  3. Aid to differential diagnosis

15

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30
Q

Primary Determinant

Vs.

Secondary Determinant

A
  • Primary = a MAJOR contributing factor, MUST
    ALWAYS be there in order for disease to occur – AKA “necessary causes”
  • Secondary = factors that make the disease more or less LIKELY; predisposing or enabling factors
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31
Q

Intrinsic Determinant

Vs.

Extrinsic Determinants

A
  • Intrinsic = determinants that are internal to the animal (age, breed, sex, etc.)
  • Extrinsic = determinants that are external to the animal (housing, medical treatment, etc.)
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32
Q

List 6 Environmental determinants

A
  1. “Demographics”
  2. Macroclimate
  3. Microclimate
  4. Housing and crowding
  5. Diet
  6. Stress
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33
Q

Genetic Disease

Vs.

Genetic susceptibilities

A
  • Genetic diseases are ENTIRELY determined by genotype
  • Genetic susceptibilities are PARTIALLY determined by genotype and partially by other factors
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34
Q

Herd Immunity

A
  • The idea that infectious diseases can be contained if the population’s resistance to infection is high enough
    • – Does NOT protect individuals
    • – Some non-immune individuals will probably become infected…
    • – Many others will be protected, indirectly, by the immunity of their herd-mates
  • Can be applied to populations of people as well as populations of animals!
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35
Q

Common Source Single Point Exposure Epi Curve

A
  • All animals are exposed at once tot he same source of infection.
  • Not contagious
  • Incubation period varies- cna use the curve to determine the minimum, average and Max icubation time
  • Happens withine ONE inducbation period
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36
Q
A

Common Sourse Continuous Exposure

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37
Q

Common Source w/ Intermittent Exposure

A
  • Animals are exposed at different times
  • Exposed to the same source
  • Incubation period is NOT clearly shown
  • Vet should intervene
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38
Q

Endemic (enzootic) vs. epidemic (epizootic)

A

A situation in which all factors influencing disease are relatively stable, resulting in little fluctuation in disease incidence over time
– New cases occur at a regular, usually low, level
– Young individuals may enter the population
– Old individuals die or are removed

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39
Q

Agent Factors

A

Infectivity
•Pathogenicity
• Virulence
• Immunogenicity
• Mutation rate (change in infectivity, host, toxins, evasion)
• Resistance (de novo, through mutation, or via lateral transfer from another organism)

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40
Q

Intrinsic Host Fators (6)

A

Age
• Sex & Behavior
• Genotype
• Breed
• Nutrition
• Immunity

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41
Q

Nutrition vs Diet

A

DIET is extrinsic, a management issue, but that the body
condition score of the animal and nutritional status are intrinsic!

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42
Q

Immunity Determinants

Intrinsic Vs Extrinsic Immunity

A

Immunity to the pathogen may be due to inherited or acquired factors

Giving a vaccine = extrinsic.
The status of the body being immune = intrinsic.

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43
Q

MMR Vaccine and Community Immunity

A
  • False study by Andrew Wakefield connected MMR vaccine to autism and enterocolitis. No body could repeat the results.
  • Measles require 80-90% herd immunity to prevent epidemic.
  • Reduced vaccination lead to spike in measles due to reduced herd/community immunity.
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44
Q

How many human death are caused by infectious disease annually?

A

15 million (>25%)

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45
Q

What precentage of human pathogens are zoonotic?

A

61% are zoonotic

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46
Q

How many human diseases have emerged in the last 20 years?

A

At least 30 new diseases

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47
Q

True or False

Emerging and Re-emerging diseases are a worldwide problem

A

True!!

Not only developing countries are affected.

Ie. FMD in europe, west-nile in US

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48
Q

Define Emerging Disease

A

Previously unkown disease that suddenly appears in a population

-or-

Known disease that suddenly appears in a new population (could be species, age, location etc)

Ex. West Nile Virus

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49
Q

Define Re-Emerging Disease

A

Known disease, previously on the decline, this is becoming morecommon and will likely continue to do so

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50
Q

What is the new term for exotic/foreign diseases?

A

Transbounding disease

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51
Q

What Happened with Foot and Mouth Disease in 2001? What were some repercussions?

A

Re-emerged in the UK (previous outbreak was in 1967) and spread rapidly throughout the country.

To control it there was massive culling on 1/2 million cows, 3.5 million sheep and 146,000 pigs. As well as a quarantine of both people and animals.

Repercussions:

  • Environemental effect of carcass disposal
  • Billions lost in repayment of farmers, control and HUGE economic/tourism losses
  • 62 farmers committed suicide
  • Stress, dispression and change in profession
  • Loss of valuable breeding lines
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52
Q

What are the 5 stages of pathogen emergence?

**Need to know**

A
  1. Pathogen exclusive to an animal reservoir
  2. Animal reservoir transmits to humans/other animals, but no transmission among them (dead-end)
  3. Animal reservoir transmits to humans/other animals with a few cycles of transmission among them
  4. Animal reservoir transmits to humans/other animals with sustained transmission among them
  5. Pathogen exclusive to humans/new animal reservoir
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53
Q

True or False

Many pathogens have multiple host species

A

True

62.7% of pathogens have more than one host speceis

Only 37.3% have only one known host

Exception to the first stage of the 5 stages of cross-species disease emergence

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54
Q

What are some examples of diseases that have dead end host / In Stage 2?

A
  • Rabies
    • Reservoirs are carnivores and chiroptera (bats)
    • Cattle and horses are dead end hosts
  • WNV, EEEV, WEEV
    • Reservoir: Birds
    • Humans, horses, and dogs are dead end hosts
  • Influenza H5N1
    • Reservoir: waterfowl and poultry
    • Humans are dead end hosts
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55
Q

H5N1 Avian Inflenza Outbreaks

A
  • First outbreak: 1997, Hong Kong
    • A few human respiratory cases
    • Acquired directly from chickens due to culture
    • 1.2 million chickens culled and it sucessfully controlled it
  • Southeast Asia, 2004…
    • Widespread outbreak; not controlled, in spite of massive culling of domestic poultry
  • End of 2012
    • Outbreaks continue to occur in chickens
    • 578 human cases have been reported since 2003, with a case fatality rate of 58%
    • Also jumped to other mammals, such as cats
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56
Q

What are examples of Stage 3 diseases?

A
  • Mycobacterium bovis
    • Reservoir: cattle, bison, elk
    • Transmitted to people via respiratory route
    • Poor human to human transmission
  • Nipah Virus
    • Reservoir: fruit bats
    • Human to human transmission
    • Pig to pig transmission
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57
Q

Tell me about Nipah Virus

A

Nipah Virus

Stage 3 disease that emerged in Malasia in 1998

Reservoir was initially fruit bats that infected humans/animals through secretions when they fed on palm sap and fruit that later was ingested by another host.

Causes severe disease in pigs and humans

In pigs there was respiratory signs and very rapid spread that led to the culling of 1.1 million pigs (out of 2.4 million)

265 people become sick with encephalitis and 40% fatality rate and neurological sequelae

Huge economic and cultural impact due to the important reliance of developing countries of their livestock.

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58
Q

What are some examples of stage 4 diseases?

(Stage 4= Animal reservoir transmits to humans/other animals with sustained transmission among them)

A
  • SARS: Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
    • Reservoir: fruit bats
    • Efficient transmission in humans
  • Schmallenberg virus
    • Reservoir species: ?
    • Efficient transmission in sheep, goats and cattle
  • 2009 Influenza H1N1 “Swine Influenza” “Mexican Flu”
    • Reservoir: swine
    • Very efficient transmission in humans- “pandemic”
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59
Q

What are some examples of Stage 5 dieases? original origin?

A
  • HIV/AIDs
    • Origin: non-human primates
  • Measles
    • Origin: cattle
  • Smallpox
    • Origin: likely camels (camelpox)
  • Dengue fever
    • Origin: Old world primates
  • Yellow fever
    • Origin: African primates
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60
Q

What precent of emerging diseases are zoonotic?

A

75%

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61
Q

What are (a) land use changes, (b) Environmental system, (c) food and agricultral systems and (d) human behavior all examples of?

A

Drivers of Pathogen Emergence

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62
Q

True or False

zoonotic pathogens are twice as likely to be associated with emerging disease

A

True

zoonotic pathogens are twice as likely to be associated with emerging disease

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63
Q

Which of the following pathogens have the highest risk of causing emerging diseases?

  • Viruses
  • Bacteria
  • Fungi
  • Protozoa
  • Helminths
A

Viruses!!!

especially RNA viruses

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64
Q

True or False

Pathogens that somehow cross between distantly related species often cause similar, often less severe, disease

A

FALSE!!!!!!!!

Pathogens that somehow cross between distantly related species often cause very different, often MORE severe, disease

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65
Q

True or False

Pathogens are more likely to cross between distantly related species than closly related ones

A

FALSE- its the other way around

Pathogens are more likely to cross between closely related species than distant ones

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66
Q

Why are humans and animals more susceptible to becoming new host species?

A

Due to Intensive agriculture: a lot of genetically similar hosts, managed under the same conditions, will have the same susceptibility

More of the populations with weakened immune systems: elderly, HIV/AIDS, cancer patients and survivors, organ transplant recipients

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67
Q

What are three factors that increase transmission from a reservoir to a new host?

A

Increasing abundance of the reservoir
Increasing pathogen prevalence in the reservoir
Increasing contact between the reservoir and the new host

Ex. Racoons

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68
Q

What are 4 portals of entry of transboundary disease?

A
  • Animals/animal products
    • global illegal animal trade
    • importation of live animals, animal meat/products
  • Vectors
  • Fomites
  • People
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69
Q

What are three examples of transmission from Intentional Release?

A

(1) Bioterrorism: Anthrax in US 2001
(2) Bio-Crimes: Salmonella on the salad bar in OR
(3) Agroterrorism: Foot and Mouth Disease???

Veterinarians should have situational awareness for these things at all times.

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70
Q
A
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71
Q

What are the 2 definitions of disasters?

**Learning Objective**

A

“A serious disruption of the functioning of a community or a society involving widespread human, material, economic or environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of the affected community or society to cope using its own resources”

A disaster is the result of a vast ecological breakdown in the relationship between humans and their environment, a serious and sudden event (or slow as in a drought) on such a scale that the stricken community needs extraordinary efforts to cope with it, often with outside help.”

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72
Q

Define Bioterrorism

*Learning Objective*

A

Bioterrorism: the deliberate release of viruses, bacteria, toxins, or other harmful agents used to cause illness or death in people, animals, or plants.

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73
Q

Define Agroterrorism

*Learning Objective*

A

Agroterrorism: the malicious attempt to disrupt or destroy the agricultural industry and/or food supply system of a population through the malicious use of plant or animal pathogens to cause devastating disease in the agricultural sectors

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74
Q

What are the 4 phases of disaster management?

A

Mitigation

Preparedness

Response

Recovery

75
Q

Why do we plan for disasters?

A

Reduces loss

enhances response

priotitizes needs

improves communication

maintains essential function

develops parternships

76
Q

What does a lack of planning for disasters cause?

A

increased chaos

decreased trust in authorities

increased recovery time

No planning= no funding

77
Q

What is the Mitigation Phase of Disaster Managment?

A

Mitigation:

Attempt to prevent hazards from developing into disasters -OR- reduces the effects of disasters

Focuses on long-term measures

Can be part of recovery, structural or non-structural/procedural changes)

Ie. dams, preventing development in flood planes

78
Q

What is the preparedness phase of disaster management?

A

Plans and preparations made to save lives and property, and to facilitate response operations.

Provisions to ensure that all the resources/services needed to cope with a disaster can be rapidly mobilized and deployed.

Examples of Vet Preparedness:

Evacuation plans, escape routes, adequate leashes and carriers for evacuation, animal transport, off-site animal shelter, alternative food/water, identification of animals, employee family plan, inventory of hazardous materials, adequately insured

79
Q
A
80
Q

What is the Response Phase of disaster management?

A

Actions taken to provide emergency assistance, save lives, minimize property damage, and speed recovery.

Includes:

Static and mobile vet clinics
Search and rescue operations
Provision of emergency food/water
Temporary shelters

81
Q

What is the Recovery Phase of disaster management?

A

Actions taken to return to a normal or improved operating condition following a disaster

Includes
Reconstructing physical structures
Restoring emotional, social, economic, and physical wellbeing
May include continued veterinary care

82
Q

What are some companion animal issues in disasters?

A

 Failure of people to evacuate because of their pets
 Animal abandonment
 Logistics of care and sheltering of animalsequipment, space, behavior concerns
 Animal identification
 Reuniting displaced animals with their owners
 Adoption

Now there is a service act in place to provide shelter for companion animals

83
Q

What are special consideration for large animal infectious disease outbreak?

*Learning objective*

A
  • Veterinary manpower
  • Carcass disposal from mass casualties
  • Animal identification and premise ID
  • Time from diagnosis to slaughter
  • Indemnity/insurance payments
  • Policy issues (vaccination vs. stamping out)
  • Environmental contamination (surface/groundwater and atmospheric pollution from carcass disposal)
84
Q

Why are vets involved in disasters?

A

They are one of the most trusted members of the community

Source of public education

Trained in herd health, food safety, environemntal and toxicology medicine

First point of detection/surveillance

First responders

85
Q

What are local disaster response teams vet can be involved in?

A

CART- County Animal Response Team

Intended for use by local government and agencies to take immediate action in providing a means of care to minimize animal suffering in the event of a large scale disaster
Rapid response – local!
Utilizes local resources
Established relationships with local agencies
Familiarity with territory and special considerations (special populations/features)

86
Q

What are state disaster response teams vets can be involved in?

A

SART- State Animal Response Team

  • -Interagency organizations dedicated to preparing, planning, responding, and recovering during animal emergencies
  • -Public private partnership, joining governmental agencies with private goals
  • -Train to facilitate a safe and efficient response to disasters on the local, county, state and federal level
87
Q

What are federal disaster response teams vets can be involved in?

A

VMAT - under AVMA- have early assessment, Basic treatment and training

NVRT- under Dept. of Health- “big deal to apply”

NAHERC- under USDA-things that effect animals

US Public Health Service - one of seven uniformed services- full time job

***Must be requested ***

88
Q

What is NRF?

A

NRF- National Response Framework

*establishes a comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident response. Under homeland security.

  • Lists all levels of government (local, tribal, state, and federal), private sector, and nongovernmental organizations in a unified approach to emergency management
  • Builds on the National Incident Management System (NIMS) with its flexible, scalable, and adaptable coordinating structures
  • Aligns key roles and responsibilities across jurisdictions
  • Always in effect-can be partially of fully implemented
  • Best practices and procedures
89
Q

What is the NIMS?

A

NIMS- National Incident Management System

  • Homeland Security Presidential Directive -5
  • Core set of concepts, principles, and terminology for incident command and multiagency coordination
  • Mandates the use of the Incident Command System
  • Includes (1) Incident Command System (2) Multi-agency coordination system (3) Public information system
90
Q

What is a ICS?

A

ICS- incident command systems

  • Standardized, on-scene, all-hazard, incident management
  • Uses standard terminology
  • Modular, flexible, and adaptable can collapse or expand to adjust to incident size/complexity
  • Multiple agency cooperation
    • (1) efficient and effective management
    • (2) multiple sites or jurisdictions
  • Top-down structure:
    • ·only positions that are necessary will be filled
    • ·each element will have a person in charge - with usually 1:5 ration (sometimes 1:3 or 1:7)
  • 5 Management Functions:
    • Incident command
      ·Logistics
      ·Operations- veterinarians primarily
      ·Planning- veterinarians
      ·Finance and administration
91
Q

What parts of ICS management functions due vets usually fill?

A
  • *·Operations-** veterinarians primarily
  • *·Planning-** veterinarians
92
Q

What are some examples of incidents?

A

Incidents:

  • Fire, both structural and wildland
  • Natural disasters
  • Human and animal disease outbreak
  • Search and rescue missions
  • Hazmat incidents
  • Criminal acts and crime scene investigation
  • Terrorist incidents, including WMDs
  • National special security events (Presidential visits or the Super Bowl)
  • Other planned events (parades/demonstrations)
93
Q

What are the definitions for risk?

** Learning objective**

A

Risk=A probability or threat of damage, injury, liability, loss, or any other negative occurrence that is caused by external or internal vulnerabilities, and that may be avoided through preemptive action

Risk = Probability X Severity

Risk = Hazard + Outrage

94
Q

What are the equations for risk?

** Learning Objective**

A

Risk = Probability X Severity

Risk = Hazard + Outrage

95
Q

What is the human risk perception?

**Learning objective**

A

Combination of thought and emotion

Thinking (logic) focuses on the hazard and the probability it will occur

  • Hazard-something that can go wrong
  • Probability-likelihood of it happening

Feeling involves fear, anger, or other emotions that are evoked when considering potential consequences and value of what may be lost

  • Consequences-implications of the hazard
  • Value-subjective evaluation of the importance of what may be lost

Acceptance >> Fear >> Denile >> Panic

96
Q

Define Risk communication

**Learning Objective**

A

Public health activities to ensure that messages and strategies designed to prevent exposure, adverse human health effects, and diminished quality of life are effectively communicated to the public

Most often used to describe an organization facing a crisis and the need to communicate about that crisis to stakeholders and the public (two way communication)

Who says what and when, to whom, through what channels, with what effect

97
Q

What are 4 tasks of risk communication?

**Learning objective**

A
  1. When the hazard is high and outrage is low:
    • ·task = precaution advocacy
    • alerting insufficiently upset people to serious risk ·“Watch out!”
  2. When hazard is low and outrage is high: ·
    • task=outrage management
    • reassuring excessively upset people about small risks ·
    • “Calm down!”
  3. When the hazard is high and outrage is also high: ·
    • task= crisis communication
    • helping appropriately upset people cope with serious risks ·
    • “We’ll get through this together”
  4. When hazard and outrage are both intermediate:
    • sweet spot
    • dialoging with interested people about a significant but not urgent risk ·“And what do you think?”
98
Q

What is the risk communication life cycle?

** Learning objective**

A

Pre-crisis -> initial -> Maintenance -> Resolution -> Evalulation

Pre-crisis= be prepared, foster alliance, test messages

Initial= acknowledge event with empathy, inform the public in simple terms, establish spokespersion credibility, provide emergency courses of action, Commit to maintain communication.

Maintenance= Help public more accurately understand its own risks •Provide background and encompassing information to those who need it •Gain understanding and support for response and recovery plans •Listen to stakeholders and audience feedback, and correct misinformation •Explain emergency recommendations •Empower risk/benefit decision-making

Resolution =Improve appropriate public response in future similar emergencies through education •Honestly examine problems and mishaps, and then reinforce what worked in the response and recovery efforts •Persuade the public to support policy and resource allocation to the problem •Promote the activities and capabilities of the agency

Evaluation =Evaluate communication plan and performance •Document lessons learned •Determine specific actions to improve crisis systems or in the crisis plan

99
Q

What are the 11 Best Risk Communication Practices

**Learning objective**

A
  • 1) Risk and communication is an on-going process
  • 2) Conduct pre-event planning and preparedness activities (5 P’s)
  • 3) Foster partnerships with public-accept and involve as partners
  • 4) Collaborate and coordinate with credible sources
  • 5) Meet the needs of the media and remain accessible
  • 6) Listen to the public’s concerns and understand your audience
  • 7) Communicate clearly with compassion, concern, and empathy (within 30 seconds)
  • 8) Demonstrate honesty, candor, and openness
  • 9) Treat emotions as legitimate
  • 10) Accept uncertainty and ambiguity - say you dont know, but are working on it.
  • 11) Give people meaningful actions to do (build self-efficacy)
100
Q

According to Dr. Sandman, what is the most important fact about risk communication?

A

The most important fact about risk communication is the incredibly low correlation between a risk’s “hazard” (how much harm it’s likely to do) and its “outrage” (how upset it’s likely to make people)

101
Q

What are the Fear Factors?

A

It is automatic
 It comes early
 It is temporary (brain takes over)
 It is a small over-reaction
 It may need guidance
 It is slow to extinguish
 Easily re-established
 Contagious

102
Q

How do we reduce denial?

A

we legitimize the fear
·we take actions to address fear
·we make decisions to act from a given range of options

103
Q

Tell me three things about trust issues?

A

Trust is:
·slowly acquired
·readily extinguished
·difficult to re-establish

104
Q

What are factors that contribute to the growth of Risk communication?

A

 Public interest in health, safety, and environmental issues, and media coverage of them

 The demand for information generated by public concern about risks from the past, present, and future activities

 The number and reach of right-to-know laws relating to exposures to risk agents  Mistrust in risk management authorities and public demands for the right to participate as a full partner

 Awareness by gov’t and industry that risk controversies often threaten the achievement of their organizational goals

 Awareness by all sides that the public’s response to a risk can be amplified or attenuated by those who wish to manipulate it

105
Q

What are harmful behaviors during crisis?

A

Demands for unneeded treatment
Disorganized group behavior (looting/stealing)
Bribery/fraud
Increased tobacco and alcohol use
Increased multiple unexplained physical symptoms (MUPS)

106
Q

What are two common risk communication mistakes in vet med?

A

(1) Withholding information: not divulging information about a potentially zoonotic disease that has been identified in animals in the area -with the intent to prevent panic- may actually lead to panic down the road if people become ill and discover that the disease had been found in animals months earlier

(2) Over-assurance of audience: telling a client that there is no risk of disease in their animals if the animals are vaccinated- to lessen their fear -may lead to greater fear/panic if the animals later become ill

107
Q

What should you have in any risk/crisis?

A

EMPATHY!!

108
Q

What is the international layer of regulation for reportable diseases?

A

OIE= World Organization of Animal Health

For internationally reportable animal diseases

Associated with trade barriers b/w free and diseased countries

Membership countries MUST report diseases within 24 hours

109
Q

What is the USDA’s role in regulatory animal disease?

A

Surveillance for foreign disease introduction.

Surveilance and eradication for USA diseases

Makes list of OIE-reportable diseases that are not found in the USA as notifiable

FAD= foreign animals disease (48 for USA)

Regulates all animal imports/exports

Every state has a USDA vet (AVIC) that investigates FAD

Use two reporting/monitoring systems = NAHRS and NAHMS

110
Q

What is a AVIC?

A

Area Veterinarian in Charge

USDA vet assigned to the state.

Monitors movement b/w states and countries

Manages animal disease control programs

Investigates possible FAD

Investigates animal cruelty cases

Provides guidence to vets

111
Q

What role does the state government play in regulatory animal diseases?

A

Make their own list of notifiable diseases that vary by state

you must report these diseases to your state veterinarian

112
Q

What is the role of Clinical Vets in regulatory diseases?

A

Critical for animal disease detection

Provide vaccination and testing

Perform exams and complete health certificated for animal movement (if USDA accredited)

113
Q

When should you report a FAD to your state/federal vet?

  1. When you suspect it
  2. After you have confirmed your diagnosis
  3. When the animal dies
  4. When the disease spreads
A

When you suspect it!

(Acceptable time-line depends on the consequence of the disease)

When you tell them, a vet with special FAD training will come in to examine animal and test it at the USDA lab.

114
Q

Where do you send tests for reportable FAD so they “count”?

  • Idexx
  • State Lab
  • USDA lab
A

USDA lab!

115
Q

What can GP vets do in response to a confirmed FAD?

A

Biosecurity

Mass culling

Ring Vaccination

Treatment

116
Q

Why do vets need to be USDA accredited?

A
  • Know the signs of FAD’s and other reportable diseases
  • Know proper procedured for vaccinating and testing animals
  • To know how to fill out legal forms for these activities
  • Know who, when and how to report diseases
  • Perform Health certificate for animal travel
  • Perform activites related to regulatory diseases (Bo TB test, EIA test, Brucellosis test and vaccine, rabies vaccination)
117
Q

Which animals are part of the USDA Category I accreditation?

A

Companion animals (dogs, cats, lab animals. non-human primates, rabbits, ferret, mink, gopher, amphibian, reptile, native non-ruminant wildlife, and marine animals)

(Excludes :”food and fiber” species, horses, birds, farm-raised aquatic animals, zoo animals that transmit disease to livestock)

requires 3 units of training every 3 years

118
Q

Which animals are part of the USDA Category II accreditation?

A

ALL ANIMALS!!

Requires 6 units of training every 3 years.

119
Q

What is Zoonosis? How important is it!

A

– Infectious diseases that people get from animals, either directly or indirectly
– Animals are the ultimate reservoir for the disease!

It is very important, it can infect anyone, anywhere (except the arctic ~ maybe?), its very diverse, it happens many ways and vets are responsible for protecting the public/employees/themselves.

120
Q

True or False: All of the following are NOT Zoonoses

Poisoning / envenomation by animals
Bites, kicks, and scratches from animals
Allergies against animals
Anthroponoses – even if animal-derived food serves as a vehicle

A

True

121
Q

What are the costs of zoonotic diseases?

A

ALOT! Both in human health (life and productivity) and economically (for treatment, prevention, control, loss of trade/tourism)

122
Q

What is the vets role in zoonosis?

A
  • Surveillance
    • – Animals are sentinels
  • Prevention and Control
    • – Minimizing animal reservoirs
    • – Educating owners
  • Occupational safety
    • – Protecting yourself and your staff from daily exposure to zoonotic diseases!
123
Q

What are Zoonotic Viral Diseases?

A

Influenza

Yellow fever
Herpesvirus B

West Nile virus
Hendra

Rift Valley fever
Hantaviruses

Rabies
Equine encephalitides

Nipah
Ebola

Monkeypox

Colorado tick fever

ANY MANY MORE!!!!

124
Q

Bacterial examples of zoonosis?

A

Yersiniosis

Listeriosis

Tularemia
Leptospirosis

Salmonellosis
Bartonellosis

Relapsing fevers
Campylobacteriosis

Q fever
Brucellosis

Psittacosis

Anthrax

Plaque

Lyme Disease

125
Q

Protozoal and Helminths Zoonotic Diseases?

A
126
Q

Mycotic Zoonoses?

A

Dermatophytoses

Cryptococcosis
Histoplasmosis
Blastomycosis
Coccidiodomycosis

127
Q

Familiarize yourself with these…

A

And these..

128
Q

Familiarize yourself with these…

A

and these..

129
Q

Defin Surveillance

A

Systematic continuous observation of populations, and collection and analysis of data from many varied sources
FOR:
Rapid detection and timely, appropriate response to important health events
AND:
Production and communication of valid information about the health and disease status of the population

130
Q

Goals of Surveillance?

A

Maintain and improve: animal health/welfare and economic viability of animal production

Protection of public health from zoonotic and foodborne diseases

131
Q

5 Purposes of Surveillance

A
  1. Rapid detection of disease outbreaks
    * early detection of endemic, foreign and emerging diseases prevents losses and cost (both direct and indirect)
  2. Support Dz control/eradication
  • Situation intelligence and identification of infected farms during an out breeak
  • identify infected farms for control eradication programs
  1. Assess population health and safety of food
  • OIE membership essential for trade
  • OIE requires surveillance, vet services, diagnostic labs, and legislation to facilitate disease control. It is necessary to report suspected diseases.
  • Risk status: Negligible, controlled, undetermined
  1. Produce information about disease - distribution, risk factors
    * Sets research priorities, emergency preparedness, control programs and management of disease
  2. Evaluate disease control/biosecurity programs
    * detects failure of biosecurity and border security
132
Q

What are the 3 components of Surveillance

A

Must have all three to be considered surveillance (EXAM QUESTION)

  1. Detection - collection and interpretion of data from a population. Goal is to be timely and ID important disease events, ID changes in health status and ID changes in risk factors for disease in the population.
  2. Response - must be immediate, timely and appropriate to minimize impact and minimine the cost of response
  3. Communication
133
Q

What are the 4 broad categories of surveillance?

A
  1. Animal Health Surveillance – Surveillance of animals for diseases of importance to animals and people
  2. Public Health Surveillance – Surveillance of people for human diseases
  3. Biosurveillance – Surveillance of humans, animals and plants for diseases affecting any or all of them
  4. Food Safety Surveillance – Surveillance of food production chains and people for food safety risks and foodborne disease
134
Q

Define Passive Surveillance

A

Submission is initiated by and at the discretion of the sample/data provider with little/no control over who provides samples/data

MOST COMMON type of surveillance

Ex, Reportable disease programs (although manditory, it is still up to their discretion)

Ex. Sero-survey at aution markets or slaughter plants (not random, only subset of populations)

Ex. Diagnostic lab submission- it is up to the owner/vet to descide if they want to test

135
Q

Syndromic/Real time Surveillance

A

Type of passive surveillance

non-specific (based on symptoms) but very fast

Ontained by emergency/doctor records, sales of pharmaceuticals and absentees from school/public service

136
Q
A
137
Q

Pros and Cons of Passive Surveillance

A

Pros:
• Reportable disease programs provide continuous surveillance – Great for early detection of important, obvious, easy to diagnose diseases
• Laboratory surveillance can detect emerging diseases
Inexpensive

Cons:
Little control over who provides data/samples
• Not a representative sample of the population
Won’t work for less valued animals that don’t use veterinary services
• If disease is stigmatized farmers won’t report

138
Q

Define Active Surveilance

A

Involves the committed effort of the veterinary/health authority to identify subjects for data or samples

  • They initiate the sample/data collection by identifying the surveillance subjects and initiate sample/info collection
  • They call, visit, etc., the sample/data providers and actively seek out cases of disease or data
139
Q

Pros and cons of Active Surveilance

A

Pros

  • Can be representative of the population– Can make valid estimates of the amount of disease and importance of disease in the population
    • – Requires being able to identify all individuals in the population

Cons

  • Very expensive, labor intensive
  • Usually done once or intermittently
    • Not good for early detection of disease outbreaks, or emerging diseases
  • Sometimes may not be representative of the population
    • If you can’t identify all individuals in the population you can’t get a representative sample
140
Q

Define Sentinel Surveillance and provide examples

A

A small group is monitored as an indicator of the greater population health or disease risk (A site, a group, even a different species)

  • Eg. sentinel farms, veterinary practices, physicians
  • Eg. chickens act as sentinels for estimating the risk to human populations from EEE/WEE
  • Eg. horses, wild birds, and mosquitos act as sentinels for the risk to human populations from WNV
141
Q

Pros and Cons of Sentinel Surveillance

A

Pros
• Less expensive than monitoring the whole population
• Often the only method available
• Allows intensive, multiple testing…early warning

Cons- May not be representative of the population

142
Q

Target Surveillance (define, Ex., pros, cons)

A

Targets a specific segment of the population to enhance detection of disease
Eg. Targeting downer cattle for BSE testing

Pros – Enhance efficiency, reduce cost
Cons– May not be representative of the population

143
Q

What are the three different levels of disease prevention and eradication

A
  1. Primary Prevention- aimed at maintaining a healthy population and preventing disease. Includes: Vaccines, border security, meat hygien, inspection, HACCP, & removing specific risks.
  2. Seconday Prevention- minimizes damage after disease has occurred. Includes: screening for cancer, annual PE, test and slaughter.
  3. Tertiary Prevention- rehabilitation after primary and secondary prevention have failed in order to reduce complications, slow down progression and reduce severity of symptoms. Applies mostly to the individual to maintain the best quality of life possible.
144
Q

Define Eradication and its two types

A

Eradication: final step in disease control efforts; it consists of complete elimination of the disease-­‐producing agent from a defined geographic region.

Total eradication – Disease agent has been completely removed from the area of concern

  • e.g. smallpox

Practical eradication – Elimination of organism from the reservoirs of importance to humans or their domestic animals, as opposed to total eradication

  • e.g. eradication of canine rabies in the USA (still present in raccoons, skunks, bats, foxes)
145
Q

What are the 3 principles of disease control and eradication?

A
  1. Reservoir Neutralization -
  • removing infected individuals (slaughter and mass therapy)
  • rendering infected individuals non-shedders
  • Manipulating environment (parasite and vector control)
  1. Reducing contact potential (between infected and susceptible)
  • Isolation or treatment of cases (not ideal when non-symptomatic sheddders)
  • Quarantine
  • Population control/reduction
  1. Increasing host resistance
  • Genetic selection and good welfare (Ndama and west african short horns are trypanotolerant)
  • Chemoprophylaxis
  • Vaccination
146
Q

What are the 5 components of National Dz Control Components?

A

1. Animal Health Law and Regulations

  • International- WTO/SPS/OIE - Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures Agreement (SPS)
  • National- Animal Health Act & Quarantine laws
  • State level

2. Disease Control Management Agency

  • USDA-APHIS
  • State animal health authorities- deliver federal programs and control state and inter-state inspections/disease issues

3. Veterinary/Inspection Services

  • USDA-APHIS Veterinary Services (250 total vets)

4. Laboratory Services

  • Ames, Iowa
  • Plum Island
  • National Animal Health Lab Network

5. Surveillance, Information, Education, Communication and Training

  • CEAH- Center for Epi and Animal Health- Colorado
  • National Center for Ani Health Emergency Management and Animal Health Programs - Maryland
147
Q

Name three Enzootic Bacterial”Category A” Agents classified by the CDC? Why are they consiered category A?

A

Bacillus anthracis

Yersinia pestis

Francisella tularensis

These all have MULTIPLE routes of infection. Their aerosol
potential makes them “bioweapons” but veterinary risks are
more diverse and include necropsy and treatment of animals. They are also environmentally stable

148
Q

Francisella tularensis

Animals affected? Reservoir? Transmission Routs?

A

Animals Affected:
– Humans
Domestic cats

sheep

_Wildlife are the primary, long-­‐term, reservoi_r
Rodents and lagomorphs (“rabbit fever”)

Transmittion
– Sheep: usually tick-­‐borne
– Cats: usually from eating infected rodents
– People: most often ticks or direct contact with
animals/carcasses; aeroso
l exposure less common

149
Q

Yersinia pestis

Animals affected? Vector? Tranmission?

A

Animals Affected

  • Primary Cycle: rodent-flea-rodent
    • Hosts include: squirrels, prairie dogs, mice, wood rats,
      chipmunks, rats, mice
    • 31 species of flea are competent vectors
      • Xenopsylla cheopis (oriental rat flea) is #1
  • CATS- susceptible and act as a bridge to infect humans
    • exposed by hunting rodents
  • Coyotes/Dogs are seroconverted but rarely ill
  • People- infected via (1) flea bite (2) aerosol from pneumonic cases (3) infected animal blood or abcesses
150
Q

Yersinia pestis in cats

A

Exposed by hunting infected rodents and aerosol (if pulmonary envolvement)

Localized infection (black eschar) followed by sepsis + pneumonia

Lymphadenopathy / Buboes of cervical region

Fever, lethargy, anorexia, sepsis

151
Q

Yersinia pestis in humans

A

plague eschars
– High fever and high case fatality rate are seen in
septic/ pneumonic cases
Circulatory collapse with blackened extremities

Risk reduction when treating affected cats! – Lymph node aspirates are highly infectious. Use PPE

152
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

Spore-forming bacteria in the SOIL

Impossible to erradicate due to long survival in soil

Affects most mammals - ALL by inhilation

Cattle are most common in vet med (ingest spores or inhale)

Common to have outbreaks after heavy rainfall, seasonal

CS: necrotic eschar, atypical pneumonia, exotoxins –> edema, shock. Death following DIC

Post- mortem signs:

  1. Blood not clotted
  2. Spores in blood on microscopy
  3. Rapid bloating
  4. Lack of rigor mortis
  5. Blood from orifices
153
Q

postmortem signs of anthrax in cattle?

What should you do with the carcass?

A
  • *1. Blood not clotted**
    2. Spores in blood on microscopy
  • *3. Rapid bloating
    4. Lack of rigor mortis**
    5. Blood from orifices

Carcass: NO necropsy (will cause spore formation), BURN IT!!

154
Q

Hantavirus

A

Bunyaviridae (ssRNA virus)

Limited to a specific reservoir host and geographical region

rodents are reservoirs - both sylvantic** and pet- usually asymptomatic

AEROSOL TRANSMISSION (primary transmisson)- of urine or feces

Bite = secondary transmission

Risk factors: contact with rodents

2 syndromes:

  • Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)
    – “new world” disease = USA strains
    – Starts as fever, chills, myalgia, headache –> Increased vascular permeability in the lungs
    Fatal in up to 40% of human cases
  • Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS)
    – The “old world” disease
    – Petechial hemorrhage, renal damage, and cardiovascular shock = fatal in up to 15% of cases
155
Q

What are the two syndromes associated with Hantavirus? What are their fatality rates?

A

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)
– “new world” disease = USA strains
– Starts as fever, chills, myalgia, headache –> Increased vascular permeability in the lungs
– Fatal in up to 40% of human cases

Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS)
– The “old world” disease
– Petechial hemorrhage, renal damage, and cardiovascular shock = fatal in up to 15% of cases

156
Q

What are fungal pulmonary infection in which infection is from spores in the environment?

A

Saprophytic soil fungi
Blastomyces dermatitidis- soil fungus. affects people (50% asymptomatic), dogs, cats, horses etc.

Coccidiodes immitis - soil is the reservoirs

157
Q

Which Fungal Pulmonary Infections have Birds/Bats as reservoirs? (their fecal excretion contaminate the soil)

A

Histoplasma- birds (pigeons, chickens) & bats. People/dogs/cats are 90% asymptomatic

Cryptococcus

158
Q

True or False

Fungal Pulmonary Infected humans, dogs, cats, are not infectious

A

True!!

people, dogs and cats body temperatures are too high for sporulation of these fungi.

BUT if body cools during post-mortem, they can become infectious

159
Q

Animal to human transmissionof influenza is only documented for
______ & _______

A

birds and swine

160
Q

What are the clinical signs of influenza in humans? Avian? Swine?

A
  • Humans- flu like. complications/death if immunocompromised
  • Avians- LP= repro and pulmonary signs HP= high mortality, sudden death

  • Swine- high morbidity (100%= pulmonar & repro signs) and low morality.
161
Q

True or False

You should give antiviral to treat non-human animals for flu

A

FALSE

not approves, fear of resistance

162
Q

Q Fever

agent? host species? transmission? clinical signs?

A

Agent: Coxiella burnetti

Host: sheep, cattle, goats, birds, dogs, cats, humans

Transmission: airborne in dust, birth product (sheep** and cats), milk (why we pasturize milk), feces, urine, tick borne (mainly animal to animal)

Human CS: flu like

Ruminant CS: ABORTION , anorexia

Control: PPE, vaccinate livestock, biosecurity

163
Q

What is a cause of abortion in ruminants? especially those exposed to sheep birth fluids…

A

Q- FEVER- Coxiella burnetti

164
Q

CHLAMYDOPHYLIA

agent? two forms? CS in humans & animals? transmission?

A

Agent: Chlamydophilia psitacci (birds mostly, psittacine >domestic )

2 forms: infectious elementary body (very stable) & reticulate body (non-infectious, not stable)

CS HUMANS: flu like –> complications ( hepatitis, endocarditis, myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis)

  • exposed by direct handing of infected birds

CS ANIMALS: morbidity & mortality in psittacine birds

  • exposed by fecal-oral
  • SHOULD ALWAYS CONSIDER in sick birds with lethargy, non-specific signs, especially if stressed
    *
165
Q

Toxoplasma gondi

Routes of transmission? Prevention? Disease in humans?

** Learning objective**

A

Transmission:

  1. Ingestion of bradyzoites in undercooked meat (+++ pork)
  2. Ingestion of oocytes in cat feces/soil- cleaning litter box, gardening, sand boxes, unwashed vegetables
    • takes 1-5 days to be come infectious (sporulate)
    • cats (+++ kittens, asymptomatic) usually only shed oocytes for 1-3 weeks
  3. Vertical Transmission - increases as pregnancy continues (most likely in 3rd trimester), but CS are more severe if infected early on in pregnancy (1st trimester)

Prevention:

  • clean litter box everyday with PPE, have someone else clean it if pregnant
  • cook meat or freeze meat >5 days
  • hygeine when working with soil, sand or cats
  • wash and cook vegetables
  • avoid getting a new kitten when pegnant
  • CANNOT control the disease in cats, it is too common
  • pregnanct/expecting women can get serological testing for antibodies to determine if previously exposed
  • there is ALWAYS a risk of exposure….

Disease:

  • asymtomatic in immunocompenent adults and children
  • Problems in immunocompromised (AIDs) and during pregnancy (tachyzoites get out of control)
  • Babies of mothers exposed during pregnancy have varying degrees of neurological sign. CS severity is high the earlier in pregnancy the mother is infected
166
Q

Toxocara spp.

A

Visceral/Cutaneous/Ocular/Neurological LarvalMigrans (= the migrating larvae in a paratenic host)

Risk factors: children 1-4 y/o, pica and geophagia (20-40% of soil/sand in parks is contaminated), exposure to puppies and kittens.

Disease:

asymptomatic (almost 100% of humans are seropositive)

rare, but severe, ocular and neurologic diseases

167
Q

Baylisascaris procyonis

A

Emerging roundwrom of racoons that causes severe ocular and neurological migrans in children (rare, but increasing due to close association with racoons).

Dogs and many other animals act as alternative definitive and intermediate hosts.

Racoons shed eggs in high numbers and it has a LOW infection dose (bioterrorism?)

168
Q

What 4 zoonotic cestodes can human acquire by ingesting meat of intermediate hosts?

A

Taenia saginata & Taenia solium (Beef and Pork Tapeworm)

Diphyllobothrium (fish tapeworm)

Diphylidium caninum (rare- dog tapeworm)

169
Q

What 3 zoonotic tapeworms can humans acquire by ingesting larved eggs?

A

Echinococcus granulosus
Echinococcus multilocularis
Taenia solium
(Cysticercosis)

Have cyst development in the liver, lungs, brian etc.

170
Q

Echinococcus granulosus

Transmission? Prevention? Disease? Distribution?

A

Hydatid cyst disease - individual large, fluid filled cyst in the liver, lungs and possibly the brain. Takes 10-20 years to produce clinical symptoms

Humans= intermediate/aberrant host

Transmission: ingestion of larvated eggs

Reservoir: canids (dogs and wolves). sylvantic cycle b/w wolves and moose (does not affect humans)

Prevention: avoid fecal material (dog, soil), regular treatment of dogs with praziquantel, stray dog control, prevent dogs from eating offal (especially of sheep), hygeine, education

Distribution: sporadic in US (cali, native americans), endemic in canada (sylvantic cycle)

171
Q

Echinococcus multiocularis

A

Alveolar Cyst Disease - small, multifocal, solid cysts in intermediate host (humans). Commonly develop in liver with secondary metastasis to lungs (infiltrative, destructive). Clinical signs occur in ~10 years. Rare, but high fatality rate if untreated.

Transmission: ingestion of larvated egg

Reservoirs: natural cycle is b/w foxes and rodents. Cats and dogs can act as hosts

Prevention: bi-anual treatment of dogs, treatment of foxes, reduce dog/cat exposure to rodents, education, stray dog control

Distribution: USA = endemic in wild lifem but not humans. CHINA- very common. Europe= uncommon, sporadic, re-emerging

172
Q

Foot and Mouth Disease

A

USDA prohibited import disease

Acute, highly infectious viral disease of cattle (indicator), pigs (amplifier), sheep/goats (maintenance), wild cloven foot animals (Cape Buffalo).

Vesicular eruption on the mouth and feet (coronary band)

CS: pigs > cattle > sheep/goats

  • pigs - painful, lameness, snout & oral vesicles
  • cattle- oral lesions, excessive salivation, nasal discharge, loss of BCS, teat lesions (decrease milk production), hoof lesions –> lameness.
  • sheep/goats- mild, fever, lameness, oral lesion. Difficult to diagnose
173
Q

FMD host classification and transmission?

A

** important to know**

174
Q

Rinderpest

A

Disease of ruminants, esp. cattle, caused by a paramyxovirus
Characterized by fever, dysentery, inflammation of the mucous membranes; very high mortality (within 6-12 days), constipation –> hemorrhagic diarrhea, nasal/ocular discharge, necrosis/erosion of oral mucosa (picture), enlarge lymph nodes
Single strain/one vaccine/lifetime immunity
Spread almost exclusively by contact between infected and susceptible animals.
Eradicated world-wide!!!

175
Q

Classical Swine Fever

A

Highly infectious, often fatal disease of swine caused by a flavivirus (genus Pestivirus)

CS: fever (105 F), loss of appetite, weakness, huddling, conjunctivitis, diarrhea, staggering, cyanosis, erythematous lesions especially in light-skinned animals, skin hemorrhages and severe leukopenia

Low pathogenicity isolates in Americas
Single strain/one vaccine/lifetime immunity - Spread almost exclusively by contact between infected and susceptible animals.

176
Q

African Swine Fever

A

An acute highly contagious usually fatal disease of swine that is caused by a dsDNA virus (genus Asfivirus, family Asfarviridae), that resembles but is more severe than CSF, and that is indigenous to Africa

Reservoirs warthogs, other suidae

Multiple strains, types; no cross-protection.

No vaccine – possible disease enhancement with KV vaccines

Incubation period <5-19 days

CS:

High fever
Moderate anorexia
Erythema, cyanosis
Recumbency
Bloody diarrhea
Abortion
Death

177
Q

Swine Vesicular Disease (SVD)

A

No vaccines
Single-stranded icosahedral RNA virus; family Picornaviridae
Antigenically related to the human coxsackievirus B5 but unrelated to other known porcine enteroviruses
HIGHLY RESISTANT IN ENVIRONMENT: Can survive for long periods in the environment; resistant to heat up to 157F (69C) and pH from 2.5 to 12; can survive up to 2 years in dried, salted, or smoked meat

Highly contagious, low mortality, strong immunity, lower mobidty and less severe lesion compared to FMD

178
Q

Clinical comparison of vesicular lesions

A

Compare all the things!

179
Q

BSE (Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy)

A

LONG incubation: 2- 8 years

CS: intitally suble neurosigns (behavior changes), then in final stages you will see Excitable, hyperreflexia, hypermetria, ataxia, muscle fasciculation, tremors. IF terminal state: decrease reumination, weight loss despite good appetite. 100% mortality. 2-3% morbidity.

origin: unclear, contaminated feed (most likely)? muations? maternal transmission?

NO treatment or vaccine - just cull animal and offspring

180
Q

Virulent Newcastle Disease (vND)

A

Three types:

  1. Mesogenic
  2. Velogenic neurotrophic
  3. Velogenic viscerotrophic- aka Exotic ND (END) in USA

Transmission

  • Direct contact with feces or respiratory secretions
  • Indirect via water, feed, equipment, human clothing

Clinical Signs

  • Drop in egg production
  • Numerous death withing 24-48 hours that containue for 7- 10 days.
  • Surviving birds may have neuro and repro damage =(

Vaccination: ONLY reduces clinical signs

  • does not prevent virus replication or shedding
  • Still must maintain good management, biosecurity… blahblah blah
181
Q

Avian Influenza

A

Avian Flu = Orthomyxovirus, 16 H & 9 N

Two types:

  1. HPAI - severe disease, mortality, only subtypes H5 & H7
    • affected species: water fowl, cage birds, poultry, mammals
  2. LPAI- mild disease, includes all non- HPAI H subtypes
    1. BUT LPAI H5 and H7 subtypes can mutate into HPAI subtypes ( by anigenic shift or drift)

Epidemic Requirements:

  1. New influenza subtype emerges
  2. AI must produce disease in that species
  3. Sustainable transmission must occur within new host species (Asian H5N1 has not met this criteria in humans)

Prevention in Birds:

  • vaccination requires approval by state vet and USDA
  • vaccine is not routely done
  • vaccine does not prevent virsus shedding
  • Use DIVA vaccine
182
Q

USDA interstate movement…

A

 BOVINE TUBERCULOSIS (White Tail Deer)
 BOVINE BRUCELLOSIS (Bison)
 SCRAPIE
 JOHNE’S DISEASE
 CHRONIC WATING DISEASE
 EXOTIC NEWCASTLE DISEASE
 VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC SEPTICEMIA
 PSEUDORABIES

183
Q
A