Envoy Flashcards
Decode a METAR and TAF
This is one of the first things they ask, know the abbreviations! They look for you to know this. Know Snow “SN” , Rain “RA”, Mist “BR”, Fog “FG” and Maintenance Required “$”. Like this Answer Flag Incorrect Answer (1) They asked me about FZRA on a TAF and If we could land at the airport at a certain time based on the tempo weather.
D-ATIS, what’s D stands for?
Digital
What does the $ sign mean?
At end of weather sequence, $ maintenance required
Convert Celsius to Fahrenheit
Formula
C→F
(C*1.8)+32
F→C
(F-32)/1.8
Rule of Thumb
C*2+30=F
F-30/2=C
What are the three types of icing?
Rime, Clear, and mixed is the answer they want but don’t forget Frost.
Structural Ice. Two conditions for formation: 1. Visible moisture (i.e., rain, cloud droplets), and 2. Aircraft surface temperature below freezing.
▷ Clear ice– The most dangerous type. Heavy, hard and difficult to remove. Forms when water drops freeze slowly as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Usually occurs at temperatures close to the freezing point (-10°to 0°C) by large supercooled drops of water ▷ Rime ice – Opaque, white, rough ice formed by small supercooled water drops freezing quickly. Occurs at lower temperatures than clear ice.
▷ Mixed ice – Clear and rime ice formed simultaneously.
■ Instrument ice – Structural ice forming over aircraft instruments and sensors, such as pitot and static.
■ Induction ice – ice reducing the amount of air for the engine intake.
■ Intake ice – Blocks the engine intake.
■ Carburetor ice – May form due to the steep temperature drop in the carburetor Venturi. Typical conditions are outside air temperatures of -7°to 21°C and a high relative humidity (above 80%).
■ Frost – Ice crystals caused by sublimation when both the temperature and the dew point are below freezing.
What are the different types of fog?
Radiation, advection, upslope, evaporation, ice, and frontal fog.
A cloud that begins within 50 ft of the surface. Fog occurs when:
■ The air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point, or
■ when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air.
Types of fog
■ Radiation fog – Occurs at calm, clear nights when the ground cools rapidly due to the release of ground radiation.
■ Advection fog – Warm, moist air moves over a cold surface. Winds are required for advection fog to form.
■ Ice fog – Forms when the temperature is much below freezing and water vapor turns directly into ice crystals.
Ice fog is common in the arctic regions, but also occurs in mid-latitudes.
■ Upslope fog – Moist, stable air is forced up a terrain slope and cooled down to its dew point by adiabatic cooling.
■ Steam fog – Cold, dry air moves over warm water. Moisture is added to the airmass and steam fog forms.
What is required for a thunderstorm to form?
- Unstable air 2. Moisture 3. Lifting Action*
- Sufficient water vapor (moisture).
- An unstable temperature lapse rate. Stability is the resistance of the atmosphere to upwards or downwards displacement. An unstable lapse rate allows any air mass displacement to further grow vertically.
- An initial uplifting force (e.g., front passages, orthographic lifting by typography, heating from below, etc.).
- Unstable air 2. Moisture 3. Lifting Action*
What are the stages of a thunderstorm?
cumulus, mature, dissipating
- Cumulus - (3-5 mile height) – The lifting action of the air begins, growth rate may exceed 3000 fpm.
- Mature (5-10 miles height) – Begins when the precipitation starts falling from the cloud base. Updraft at this stage may exceed 6000 fpm. Downdrafts may exceed 2500 fpm. All thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity at the mature stage.
- Dissipating (5-7 miles height) – Characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell dying rapidly.
Current Aircraft Systems
Engine
Engine
The Archer is equipped with a Lycoming, 4-cylinder, O-360 (opposed, 360 cubic inch) engine rated at 180 horsepower at 2700 RPM. The engine is direct drive (crankshaft connected directly to the propeller), horizontally opposed (pistons oppose each other), piston driven, carbureted and normally aspirated (no turbo or supercharging). Engine ignition is provided through the use of two enginedriven magnetos, which are independent of the aircraft’s electrical system and each other. Each magneto powers one spark plug per cylinder (for redundancy and more complete combustion), for a total of 8 spark plugs.
Lycoming
Horizontally Opposed
Air Cooled
Normally Aspirated
Direct Drive
Current Aircraft Systems
Landing Gear
Landing Gear
The landing gear is a fixed, tricycle-type gear, with oleo (air/oil) struts providing shock absorption for all three wheels. The nose wheel contains a shimmy dampener, which damps nose wheel vibrations during ground operations and centers the nose wheel in the air. The nose wheel is linked to the rudder pedals by a steering mechanism which turns the nosewheel up to 20° each side of center.
What is a critical engine?
The engine that when failed, most adversely affects the airplane.
The critical engine is the engine that, when it fails, most adversely affects the performance and handling qualities of the airplane.
What is V1?
The speed where you decide if the flight is to continue if there’s an engine failure. -basically, if you got an engine failure before hitting v1 you can abort T/O - and if you have an engine failure after hitting V1 you have to takeoff.
V1 means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance. V1 also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance.
What Is “Accelerate-Stop Distance”
includes the total distance to accelerate from a standing start, lose the critical engine just before V1, recognize the engine failure as you hit V1, and stop the airplane using idle thrust, brakes and spoilers.
the distance required to accelerate to V1 with all engines at takeoff power, experience an engine failure at V1, and abort the takeoff and bring the airplane to a stop using only braking action without the use of reverse thrust
“accelerate-go distance”
is the total distance it will take you to start your takeoff roll, lose an engine, continue the takeoff, and reach 35 feet at V2. V2 is your takeoff safety speed - the speed you’ll initially climb at after an engine failure.
includes the total distance to accelerate from a standing start, lose the critical engine just before V1, recognize the failure as you reach V1, and continue the takeoff to cross 35 feet at your takeoff safety speed (V2).
Balanced Field Length
V1 usually “balances the field.” V1 identifies an engine failure speed where the distance to abort and the distance to continue the takeoff are the same. That’s called a “balanced field.”
How do the flaps work on your current aircraft and how many degrees?
Flaps
The Archer is equipped with a manual flap system. The flaps are extended with a lever located between the two pilot seats. Flap settings are 0°, 10°, 25°, and 40°, and are spring-loaded to return to the 0 ° position.
Plain?
Define Altitudes of Class B airspace.
Class B airspace Altitude varies from one airport to another
Careful, DFW goes to 11 / ATL 12.5 / MIA 7
Individually Tailored
What are the dimensions of class D airspace?
Generally, that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually tailored and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain the procedures.
What are the dimensions of C?
5 NM radius core extends SFC-4,000AGL 10NM radius shelf extends 1,200-4,000AGL
What are the cloud clearances in D, B airspace?
D 3 - 152, B 3- COC
What is the speed limit below 10,000’
250
What is the speed restriction in class b and d airspace?
Within 4NM of the primary airport of a class C or D airport, the speed limit is 200KIAS. There is NO speed restriction inside class B airspace, the only limitation is the 250KIAS restriction below 10,000MSL. At airports where the class B goes above 10,000, there is no speed restriction above 10,000 within the class B. Reference FAR 91.117
Speed restriction within class c and b airspace.
250 kts max class B and below 10,000 MSL. 200 kts max in a VFR corridor through class B and below it’s lateral limits. 200 kts in class C and D within 4NM when below 2,500 AGL.
Airspace altitudes and airspeed
250 KIAS below 10,000’ MSL. 200 KIAS below corridor of Class B 200 KIAS within 4 NM of Class C or D primary airport and inside.
Above 10000 mach 1
What are the holding speeds at different altitudes?
At or below 6,000’ MSL - 200 KIAS 6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL - 230 KIAS Above 14,001’ MSL - 265 KIAS
How long are pilot certificates valid for?
Pilot certificates do not expire, and are valid if flight currency is maintained along with a current and appropriate medical certificate.
When is it required to have an FCC license?
Fly international
When must you notify the FAA of an address change?
Within 30 days
What does ARROW stand for?
Airworthiness Certificate, Radio Station License, Registration Certificate, Operating Limitations, Weight and Balance
What are IFR fuel requirements?
Enough fuel to fly to the destination then to alternate then thereafter for 45 mins at normal cruise
What regulation determines the limitations between flying and alcohol consumption
FAR 91.17 You cannot be under the influence of alcohol, taken a drink in 8 hours, or have a BAC of .04 or greater
What are flight time limitations for part 121 per day per week per month per year
FAR 121.471
1,000 hours in any calendar year
100 hours in any calendar month
30 hours in any 7 consecutive days
8 hours between rest periods
How long is a temporary FAA Certificate good for?
(61.17) 120 days
How long do you have to notify the FAA if you lose your certificates?
61.29 - Replacement of a lost or destroyed airman or medical certificate or knowledge test report.
Must notify immediately…actual question is two parts, the other is how long is a temporary certificate good for, answer: 60 days
A person who has lost an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report may obtain, in a form or manner approved by the Administrator, a document conveying temporary authority to exercise certificate privileges from the FAA Aeromedical Certification Branch or the Airman Certification Branch, as appropriate, and the:
(1) Document may be carried as an airman certificate, medical certificate, or knowledge test report, as appropriate, for up to 60 days pending the person’s receipt of a duplicate under paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, unless the person has been notified that the certificate has been suspended or revoked.
What are the oxygen requirements for part 91?
- 211 Supplemental oxygen.
(a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry -
(1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
(2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
(3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
(b) Pressurized cabin aircraft.
(1) No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry with a pressurized cabin -
(i) At flight altitudes above flight level 250 unless at least a 10-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy paragraph (a) of this section, is available for each occupant of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization; and
(ii) At flight altitudes above flight level 350 unless one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed and that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet (MSL), except that the one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below flight level 410 if there are two pilots at the controls and each pilot has a quick-donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face with one hand from the ready position within 5 seconds, supplying oxygen and properly secured and sealed.
(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (b)(1)(ii) of this section, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember’s station.
If I leave the cockpit, and the flight attendant is occupying my seat, do you have to be on oxygen?
- 333 Supplemental oxygen for emergency descent and for first aid; turbine engine powered airplanes with pressurized cabins.
(c) Use of oxygen masks by flight crewmembers.
(1) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask so designed that it can be rapidly placed on his face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand; and so designed that after being placed on the face it does not prevent immediate communication between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers over the airplane intercommunication system. When it is not being used at flight altitudes above flight level 250, the oxygen mask must be kept in condition for ready use and located so as to be within the immediate reach of the flight crewmember while at his duty station.
(2) When operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250, one pilot at the controls of the airplane shall at all times wear and use an oxygen mask secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen, in accordance with the following:
(i) The one pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask at or below the following flight levels if each flight crewmember on flight deck duty has a quick-donning type of oxygen mask that the certificate holder has shown can be placed on the face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand, with one hand and within five seconds:
(A) For airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of more than 30 seats, excluding any required crewmember seat, or a payload capacity of more than 7,500 pounds, at or below flight level 410.
(B) For airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of less than 31 seats, excluding any required crewmember seat, and a payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less, at or below flight level 350.
(ii) Whenever a quick-donning type of oxygen mask is to be used under this section, the certificate holder shall also show that the mask can be put on without disturbing eye glasses and without delaying the flight crewmember from proceeding with his assigned emergency duties. The oxygen mask after being put on must not prevent immediate communication between the flight crewmember and other crewmembers over the airplane intercommunication system.
(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (c)(2) of this section, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 410, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his duty station.
(4) Before the takeoff of a flight, each flight crewmember shall personally preflight his oxygen equipment to insure that the oxygen mask is functioning, fitted properly, and connected to appropriate supply terminals, and that the oxygen supply and pressure are adequate for use.
What is the 1-2-3 rule?
§ 121.619 Alternate airport for destination: IFR or over-the-top: Domestic operations.
(a) No person may dispatch an airplane under IFR or over-the-top unless he lists at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release. When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal at least one additional alternate must be designated. However, no alternate airport is required if for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate -
(1) The ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation; and
(2) Visibility will be at least 3 miles.
(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a) of this section, the weather conditions at the alternate airport must meet the requirements of § 121.625.
(c) No person may dispatch a flight unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch release.
When is an alternate landing airport required?
When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate airport are marginal at least one additional alternate must be designated.
When do you need a take-off alternate?
§ 121.617 Alternate airport for departure.
(a) If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport, no person may dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate airport located within the following distances from the airport of takeoff:
(1) Aircraft having two engines. Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(2) Aircraft having three or more engines. Not more than two hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
(b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) of this section, the alternate airport weather conditions must meet the requirements of the certificate holder’s operations specifications.
(c) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft from an airport unless he lists each required alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release.
What is the zipper line on the airport diagram?
It’s the boundary between the ground frequencies when you switch between them
Are there any Hot Spots at the DFW airport?
No
KDFW 18R takeoff distance available
13082 is only correct for an intersection departure. 13,400’ is the full length available for takeoff.
KDFW 18R landing distance available
12,240’ Listed under “Additional Runway Information, Usable Lengths, Landing Beyond Glide Slope”
On a low-altitude enroute chart: If you are on V123 (on the 250 radial) what radial would you be on if you crossed over the VOR?
Reciprocal
070
Dashed Lines on chart arrivals?
Transition
Identify and explain restricted areas
A restricted area is identified as a red hatched area labeled with R before a number. As long as they are not active they are under the control of the FAA, you may be able to fly thru them. However they are active and you may need permission from the controlling body, otherwise plan not to fly thru one, or expect ATC to reroute your flight plan
Does this VOR have DME?
High/Low altitude enroute charts
How wide is a Victor airway?
4NM either side of centerline
8 Miles
What is a green/blue airport?
On a Jepp chart it is a VFR only airport. On a FAA chart it means there are instrument approaches
blue
More precisely, these are airports that have published, Instr. approaches
What does CL RCLM mean?
CL = centerline lights; RCLM = runway centerline markings
Runway lighting questions
a. Runway Centerline Lighting System (RCLS). Runway centerline lights are installed on some precision approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions. They are located along the runway centerline and are spaced at 50-foot intervals. When viewed from the landing threshold, the runway centerline lights are white until the last 3,000 feet of the runway. The white lights begin to alternate with red for the next 2,000 feet, and for the last 1,000 feet of the runway, all centerline lights are red.
a. Runway edge lights are used to outline the edges of runways during periods of darkness or restricted visibility conditions. These light systems are classified according to the intensity or brightness they are capable of producing: they are the High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL), Medium Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL), and the Low Intensity Runway Lights (LIRL). The HIRL and MIRL systems have variable intensity controls, whereas the LIRLs normally have one intensity setting.
b. The runway edge lights are white, except on instrument runways yellow replaces white on the last 2,000 feet or half the runway length, whichever is less, to form a caution zone for landings.
What lighting is associated with a MALSR?
The MALSR (Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System With Runway Alignment Indicator Lights) is a medium approach intensity lighting system (ALS) installed in airport runway approach zones along the extended centerline of the runway.
The MALSR, consisting of a combination of threshold lamps, steady burning light bars and flashers, provides visual information to pilots on runway alignment, height perception, roll guidance, and horizontal references for Category I Precision Approaches
HIRL – High Intensity Runway Light system
MALSR – Medium intensity Approach Light System with Runway alignment indicator lights
TDZ/CL – runway Touchdown Zone and Centerline Lighting system
ALSF 1 – high intensity Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing lights, system length 2,400 to 3,000 feet
ALSF 2 – high intensity Approach Light System with Sequenced Flashing lights and red side row lights the last 1,000 feet, system length 2,400 to 3,000 feet
SALS/SALSF – Short Approach Lighting System, high intensity (same as inner 1,500 feet of ALSF 1)
SSALF – Simplified Short Approach Lighting system with sequenced Flashing lights and runway alignment indicator lights, system length 2,400 to 3,000 feet
MALD/MASLF – Medium intensity Approach Lighting, with and without Sequenced Flashing lights, system length 1,400 feet
ODALS – OmniDirectional Approach Lighting System with sequenced flashing lights, system length 1,400 feet
RAIL – Runway Alignment Indicator Lighted sequence flashing lights (which are only installed in combination with other light systems)
REIL – Runway End Identifier Lights (threshold strobes)
LDIN – sequenced flashing LeaD-IN lights
VASI – Visual Approach Slope Indicator
PAPI – Precision Approach Path Indicator
Know lost Comm
91.185
FLY THE HIGHEST OF: M.E.A –
■ M - Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
■ E - Expected (as in: “Expect 5000 10 min after departure”)
■ A - Assigned. Last altitude assigned by ATC.
SELECT THE ROUTE BY THIS ORDER: A.V.E.F –
■ A - Assigned route, if none:
■ V - Vectored (fly to fix/route/airway last vectored to), if none:
■ E - Last Expected route by ATC, if none:
■ F - Filed route
