ENT Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

what are the signs of nasal trauma?

A
bruising, swelling
tenderness
deviation (loss of C line)
epistaxis
infraorbital sensation
CNs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what must be excluded in nasal trauma?

A

sub-perichondrial haematoma

  • collection of blood between the cartilage of the nasal septum and the perichondrium
  • can cause necrosis of cartilage as the nasal septum has no direct blood supply and gets all its nutrition from the perichondrium
  • can cause abscess, infection etc
  • medical emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how is a nasal fracture diagnosed and managed?

A

clinical diagnosis based on deviation and cosmesis
management
- check breathing
- review in ENT clinic 5-7 days post injury
- consider digital manipulation (reduce the fractured bone) in under 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name 4 possible complications of nasal fracture

A

epistaxis (mainly anterior ethmoid artery)
CSF leak
meningitis
anosmia (due to cribiform plate fracture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why is bleeding common in the nose?

A

vasculature runs just under the mucosa (not squamous epithelium like vasculature under external skin e.g - arms)
arterial to venous anastomoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

where is epistaxis likely to occur from?

A

sphenopalatine artery
ethmoidal arteries
greater palatine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how is a minor epistaxis managed?

A
local treatment
external pressure to nose
ice
cautery
nasal packing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is more severe epistaxis managed in hospital?

A

resuscitate on arrival if needed
arrest/slow flow pressure (pressure/ice/topical vasoconstrictor +/- lignocaine + adrenaline/Co-phenylcaine
remove clot (suction and nose blowing)
anterior rhinoscopy
cautery/pack
30 degree rigid nasendoscopy
cauterise vessel (silver nitrate/diathermy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

management of epistaxis if bleeding is controlled?

A

arrange admission if packed/poor social circumstances

FBC, G&S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how is epistaxis managed if bleeding not controlled?

A

consider arterial ligation (SPA, ant ethmoid, external carotid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

systemic epistaxis treatment?

A

reversal of effect of anticoagulants
correction of clotting abnormalities
platelet transfusion
treatment of hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what can cause a CSF leak and how is this usually managed?

A

can be due to fracture of cribiform plate
often settle spontaneously within 10 days
- if not then need repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a pinna haematoma?

A

trauma to ear causes collection of blood between cartilage and perichondrium (nutrient supply to cartilage as no direct blood supply)
cartilage dies and shrivels and grows abnormally
results in cauliflower ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is pinna haematoma managed?

A

aspirate
incision and drainage
pressure dressing
no good evidence which technique is best

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pinna haematoma is also known as?

A

sub-perihondrial haematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is laceration to the ear managed?

A

debridement
closure (primary or reconstruction)
usually lignocaine + adrenaline
antibiotics (to prevent chondritis as microbes can access exposed cartilage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what features may be associated with temporal bone fractures?

A
hearing loss
facial palsy
vertigo
CSF leak
associated injuries
18
Q

what characteristic sign is seen in base of skull (e.g temporal) fracture?

A

brusing (Battle’s sign)

19
Q

how are temporal bone fractures classified?

A

longitudinal vs transverse

otic capsule involved vs spared

20
Q

what type of temporal bone fracture is most common and how does it occur?

A

longitudinal fracture

lateral blow to the head

21
Q

features of longitudinal temporal bone fracture?

A

fracture line parallels the long axis of petrous pyramid
bleeding from external canal due to laceration of the skin and ear drum
haemotympanum (blood in middle ear behind the tympanic membrane - leads to conductive deafness)
ossicular chain disruption (conductive deafness)
facial palsy (only in 20%)
CSF ottorhoea

22
Q

what causes a transverse fracture and what are the features of this?

A

frontal blows to the head
fracture at right angles to the long axis of the petrous pyramid
can cross the internal acoustic meatus causing damage to auditory and facial nerves
sensorineural hearing loss due to damage to 8th cranial nerve
facial nerve palsy (in 50%)
vertigo

23
Q

what 3 things can cause conductive hearing loss?

A

fluid
TM perforation
ossicular problem

24
Q

how are temporal fractures managed?

A

may need facial nerve decompression if no recovery and EMG studies
may need to manage CSF leak (however most settle)
may need hearing restoration (hearing aid or ossiculoplasty)

25
Q

what is sudden sensorineural hearing loss?

A

hearing loss within 3 days of at least 30 decibels at 3 frequencies
- medical emergency

26
Q

how is sudden sensorineural hearing loss managed?

A

test with Weber test
high dose steroids for 3 days
urgent referral to ENT

27
Q

most foreign bodies in the ear can usually wait until urgent clinic for removal, what 2 things cannot wait?

A

watch batteries - must be removed immediately

live animals - drown with oil and can then be removed the next day

28
Q

zone 1 injuries include injury to what areas?

A
trachea
oesophagus
thoracic duct
thyroid
vessels (brachiocephalic, subclavian, common carotid, thyrocervical trunk)
spinal cord
29
Q

what structures are included in zone 2?

A
larynx
hypopharynx
CN 10, 11, 12
vessels - carotids, internal jugular
spinal cord
30
Q

what structures are included in zone 3?

A

pharynx
cranial nerves
vessels - carotids, Internal jugular, vertebrals
spinal cord

31
Q

what is the platysma?

A

broad sheet of muscle extending from the clavicle to the angle of the jaw

32
Q

what investigations are required for a penetrating injury to the neck?

A

FBC, G&S/XM (if platysma penetrated)
AP/lateral neck imaging (look for foreign body)
CXR - haemo pneumothorax, emphysema
CT angiogram - vascular, pseudoaneurysm, laryngeal, aerodigestive tract
MRA

33
Q

how is neck laceration managed?

A
urgent exploration
- expanding haematoma
- hypovolaemic shock
- airwy obstruction
- blood in aerodigestive tract
laryngoscopy, bronchoscopy, pharyngoscopy and oesophagoscopy
angiography - embolize, occlude
34
Q

what is deep neck space infection and how does it present?

A
extension of infection from tonsil or oropharynx into deeper tissues
ore throat
unwell
limited neck movement
febrile
trismus
red/tender neck
35
Q

what site of deep neck space infection is the most dangerous?

A

infection in the retropharyngeal space can track down and enter the mediastinum

36
Q

how is deep neck space infection managed?

A

fluid resuscitation
IV antibiotics
incision and drainage of neck space

37
Q

where is a solid foreign body likely to lodge in a child and how is it managed?

A

cricopharyngeus
AP and lateral imaging
urgent removal

38
Q

what is the weak point of the orbit?

A

infra-orbital groove

39
Q

how will an orbital fracture present?

A
pain, decreased acuity, diplopia
hypoaesthesia in infraorbital region
periorbital echhymosis
oedema
enopthalmos
restriction of ocular movement
bony step of orbital rim
40
Q

how is orbital fracture investigated?

A

CT of sinuses - tear drop sign

blow out fracture - medial wall and floor of orbit

41
Q

how is an orbital fracture managed?

A
conservative
surgical repair of bony walls if
- entrapment
- large defect
- significant enopthalmos
42
Q

how is a le fort fracture managed?

A

reduce fracture and fix alone buttress lines