ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What is torus palatinus?

A

A benign bony growth (exostosis) located on the midline suture of the hard palate.
It can be congenital or develop later in life. More common in women and Asian individuals.
Typically chronic and asymptomatic, usually <2cm but can gradually enlarge over time.
Dx: clinical
Tx: surgery (symptomatic mass that interferes with speech or eating, or causes problems with fitting dentures later in life)

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2
Q

What is a nasal septal perforation?

A

Less common, but more serious complication of rhinoplasty.
Etiology: likely resulting from a septal hematoma
Presentation: whistling noise during respiration following rhinoplasty

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3
Q

What is infectious epiglottitis?

A

A cellulitis of epiglottis, aryepiglottic folds, and other adjacent tissue
Epi: s. pneumo, h. influenzae; risk reduced with h. influ vaccination
RF: DM, obesity, preceding URI
Presentation: rapidly progressive and life threatening; fever, sore throat, drooling, muffled voice; airway obstruction (stridor, dyspnea); pooled oropharynx secretions, laryngotracheal tenderness
Dx: direct visualization; imaging (lateral neck XR)
Tx: early artificial airway (if needed); IV abx (ceftriaxone plus vancomycin)

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4
Q

What is oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Ulcerated tonsillar lesion in smoker is likely due to oropharyngeal SCC
RF: >40yo, tobacco use, etoh use, immunocompromised state, HPV in younger pts and absence of smoking hx
Presentation: sore throat, odynophagia due to tumor invasion or local irritation, halitosis; referred otalgia (CN 9 has afferent fibers innervating base of tongue, afferent sensory input from ext aud canal; CN 10 innervates parts of larynx and hypopharynx, provides sensory innervation to ext aud canal) or an isolated neck mass (representing regional nodal spread of disease/cervical lymphadenopathy; may be first and only apparent manifestation)
Dx: biopsy of tonsil lesion, evaluation of HPV status, neck imaging (CT scan), flexible laryngopharyngoscopy (endoscopic visualization) to identify primary tumor site

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5
Q

What is nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

Facial pain, wt loss, mass typically unilateral, dx in pts >50y

A

Assoc. w/ reactivation of Epstein-Barr virus; most commonly occurs in Asians (southern China), parts of Africa and the Middle East
RF: diet (salty fish), smoking, genetics
Presentation: obstruction - nasal congestion w/ epistaxis, headaches; mass effect - cranial nerve palsies, otitis media; spread - neck mass (cervical lymphadenopathy)
Early spread to the cervical lymph nodes is common and may cause a nontender neck mass
Dx: endoscope-guided biopsy of primary tumor
Tx: radiation therapy, chemotherapy

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6
Q

What is a peritonsillar abscess?

A

An acute bacterial infection of the region between the tonsil and pharyngeal muscles
Presentation: fever, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, trismus (spasm of the jaw muscles), muffled “hot potato” voice, swelling of peritonsillar tissues, uvula deviation away from enlarged tonsil, pooling of saliva
Tx: needle aspiration or incision and drainage + antibiotic therapy to cover group A hemolytic streptococci and respiratory anaerobes

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7
Q

What is a retropharyngeal abscess?

A

Presentation: neck pain, odynophagia, fever following penetrating trauma to posterior pharynx
Infection w/in the retropharyngeal space can drain into the superior mediastinum; spread to carotid sheath can cause thrombosis of internal jugular vein and deficits in CN 9, 10, 11, 12
Extension through the alar fascia into the “danger space” can transmit infection into the posterior mediastinum and result in acute necrotizing mediastinitis, a life threatening complication characterized by fever, chest pain, dyspnea, and odynophagia, and requires urgent surgical intervention
Infection can drain into the superior mediastinum. Extension through the alar fascia into the “danger space” can transmit infection into the posterior mediastinum and result in acute necrotizing mediastinitis.

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8
Q

What is sialadenosis?

A

A benign, noninflammatory enlargement of the salivary glands.
Presentation: bilateral non-tender enlargement of submandibular glands
Commonly found in pts with advanced liver disease (e.g., alcoholic and nonalcoholic cirrhosis); also seen in pts with altered dietary patterns or malnutrition (eg diabetes, bulimia)
Tx: no mgmt needed other than to address any underlying nutritional disorders

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9
Q

What is leukoplakia?

A

A reactive precancerous lesion that represents hyperplasia of the squamous epithelium.
RF: smokeless tobacco and alcohol use; 1-20% progress to squamous carcinoma
Plaques CANNOT be easily scraped off

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10
Q

What is recurrent respiratory papillomatosis?

A

Results in larygneal papillomas presenting as irregular, exophytic growths in clusters on surface of true vocal cords
Due to HPV 6 + 11
Tx: mainstay is surgical debridement

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11
Q

What is Lemierre syndrome?

A

Etiology: fusobacterium necrophorum
A life-threatening deep neck space infection progressing to supporative thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein
Presents with acute (<1 week) painful pharyngitis, odynophagia, toxicity (higher fevers >102), rigors, respiratory distress from assoc. septic pulmonary emboli

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12
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

Infection of middle ear fluid
Often follows URI
Presentation: decreased mobility on pneumatic insufflation (indicates middle ear effusion), bulging tympanic membrane (reflects middle ear inflammation)

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13
Q

What is chronic suppurative otitis media?

A

> 6 weeks; middle ear inflammation in addition to hearing loss + otorrhea.

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14
Q

What is serous otitis media?

A

Otitis media w/ effusion, lack of acute inflammatory signs (fever, tympanic membrane bulging).
Can be asx and present weeks following AOM treatment or if chronic can lead to hearing loss.

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15
Q

What is cholesteatoma?

A

Congenital or acquired secondary to chronic middle ear disease
Benign growth of squamous epithelium w/ accumulation of keratin debris w/in middle ear;
dx should be suspected in any pt w/ continued ear drainage for several weeks despite appropriate abx
chronic middle ear disease leads to formation of a retraction pocket in the TM, which can fill w/ granulation tissue and skin debris, leading to chronic otorrhea and conductive hearing loss
Exam: pearly white mass
Complications: hearing loss, CN palsies, vertigo, life-threatening infections
Dx: CT and/or surgical visualization to confirm dx
Tx: surgical excision

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16
Q

What is malignant otitis externa?

A

Osteomyelitis of the external auditory canal and skull base.
Typically develops in elderly pts w/ DM.
Can cause discharge and hearing loss, but is typically characterized by severe ear pain, prominant discharge, and external auditory canal erythema.

17
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

Autosomal dominant with incomplete penetrance
Results from imbalance of bone resorption and deposition that leads to stiffening and ultimately fixation of the STAPES, dampening transmission of sound energy from the TM to the cochlea
May progress during pregnancy
A condition in which there is bony overgrowth of the stapes footplate that results in conductive hearing loss.
NO ear drainage present; excessive bony resorption can expose underlying blood vessels leading to REDDISH hue seen behind TM
Paradoxical improvement of speech understanding in noisy environment (paracusis of Willis) b/c conductive hearing loss dampens competing background noise, thereby allowing speech to be heard more clearly
Tx: hearing amplification or surgical reconstruction of the stapes

18
Q

What is a perilymphatic fistula?

A

Debilitating complication of head injury or barotrauma
Causes leakage of endolymph from the semicircular canals and cochlea into surrounding tissues resulting in
-progressive sensorineural hearing loss caused by damage to cochlear hair cells from loss of endolymph
-episodic vertigo w/ nystagmus triggered by pressure changes in the inner ear due to acutely increased endolymph leakage (loud clap + nystagmus = Tullio phenomenon; valsava triggers vertigo + nystagmus)
Tx: advised to limit activities that increase inner ear pressure, ENT referral

19
Q

What is the treatment for allergic rhinitis?

A

Intranasal glucocorticoids.

Nasal decongestant sprays can reduce mucosal edema but are less effective overall than glucocorticoids and can cause rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa).

20
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Caused by the reactivation of varicella zoster virus from the geniculate ganglion w/ subsequent spread to CN8
Presentation: vesicular ear rash and facial droop; painful erythematous vesicular rash on auditory canal or auricle + ipsilateral facial paralysis
Many pts also develop vestibular (vertigo, n/v), hearing, and taste disturbances, but systemic sxs (fever) are rare.
Tx: valacyclovir may speed resolution and limit adverse otucomes; however many pts are left w/ residual facial muscle weakness or paralysis

21
Q

Serous otitis media + HIV

A

Most common middle ear pathology in pts w/ AIDS
Due to the auditory tube dysfunction arising from HIV lymphadenopathy or obstructing lymphomas.
Presentation: middle ear effusion w/o evidence of acute infection
Conductive hearing loss is the most common symptom experienced by patients w/ serous otitis media and examination typically reveals a dull tympanic membrane that is hypomobile on pneumatic otoscopy.

22
Q

What is necrotizing (malignant) otitis externa?

A

Severe infection of the external auditory canal that extends to the skull base and is usually caused by P. aeruginosa.
Most frequently in elderly pt w/ DM.
Tx: IV cipro

23
Q

What is the Rinne test?

A

Normal: Air conducted sound (over the ear) is perceived as louder than bone conducted (on mastoid bone) sound.

24
Q

What is the weber test?

A

Tuning fork midline: sound carried by bone conduction is normally heard equally in both ears.
Vibration heard louder in one ear is abnormal.
Sensorineural hearing loss: lateralization to the UNAFFECTED ear b/c inner ear works on that side and can better hear sound
Conductive hearing loss: lateralization to the AFFECTED ear b/c conductive deficit masks the ambient nose in the room, allowing the sound to be better heard.

25
Q

Menieres, presbycusis, vestibular schwannoma

A

Cause sensorineural hearing loss.

26
Q

What is sialodenosis?

A

Benign
Commonly found in pt w/ advanced liver disease (eg alcoholic and nonalcoholic cirrhosis)
Nontender enlargement of submandibular glands

27
Q

What is pleomorphic adenoma?

A

Benign neoplasm affecting salivary glands

Presents as a firm nodule

28
Q

Airway emergency

Ballotable neck swelling = enlarging fluid collection

A

A postop neck hematoma should be recognized promptly and drained to avoid potentially lethal upper airway obstruction.

29
Q

Aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease

A

Assoc. w/ development of nasal polyps
Consists of asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis w/ nasal polyposis, and bronchospasm or nasal congestion following the ingestion of aspirin or NSAIDs
Bland tasting food (secondary to anosima), recurrent nasal discharge/congestion are typical

30
Q

Adenoid hypertrophy

A

The most common etiology of persistent nasal obstruction in the peds population.
It may present as chronic congestion refractory to medical management; mouth breathing, sleep disturbances/snoring due to apnea
Affected children are predisposed to recurrent otitis and sinusitis.