Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Y4 > ENT > Flashcards

ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What is BPPV?

A

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

Sudden dizziness and vertigo caused by change in head position.

Most common cause of vertigo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the features of BPPV?

A

Vertigo after changing head position
Lasts 10-20 secs
Nausea
Aged 55
Positive Dix-Hallpike Manoeuvre (rotatory nystagmus, vertigo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do you treat BPPV?

A

Epley manoeuvre for relief

Betahistine

Vestibular rehabilitation (Brandt-Daroff exercises)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is vestibular neuritis?

A

Inflammation of the vestibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the features of vestibular neuronitis?

A
  • Recent URTI
  • Vertigo (lasting hours/days)
  • Horizontal nystagmus
  • N&V
  • No hearing loss/tinnitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the differentials for vestibular neuronitis?

A

Viral labrynthitis (loss of hearing and tinnitus)

Posterior circulation stroke (HINTS exam: negative head impulse test, nystagmus, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you manage vestibular neuronitis?

A

Buccal/IM Prochlorperazine (anti-sickness: D2 antagonist) rapid relief for severe

Short course prochlorperazine or antihistamine in less severe cases (only acute phase as it delays recovery)

Vestibular rehab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the post-operative complications of a tonsillectomy?

A

Pain may increase for up to 6 days following.

Any bleeding post operatively requires immediate admission.

Within 6-8 hours post op= return to theatre immediately

5-10 days post op= admit for abx (wound infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is otosclerosis?

A

When normal bone is replaced with vascular spongy bone.
Often causes progressive conductive hearing loss as the stapes fixes to the oval window.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What mode of inheritance is otosclerosis?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the features of otosclerosis?

A

Conductive hearing loss
Onset in 20-40’s
Normal tympanic membrane (sometimes Schwartz Sign- redness of the promontory of the cochlea)
Tinnitus
FHx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can precipitate otosclerosis?

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you manage otosclerosis?

A

Stapedectomy

Hearing aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Alport Syndrome?

A

Renal failure

Sensorineural hearing loss

FHx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is tinnitus?

A

High pitched ringing sound which is heard in the ear and is not coming from an external stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What conditions cause tinnitus?

A

Meniere’s Disease
Otosclerosis
Viral labrynthitis
Sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss
Presbycusis
Impacted earwax
Drugs: NSAIDS, quinine, loop diuretics, ahminoglycosides-mycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you assess a complaint of tinnitus?

A

Audiological assessment

Unilateral: MRI of internal auditory meatus

Pulsatile tinnitus: magnetic resonance angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you manage tinnitus?

A

Investigate and treat cause

Amplification devices (if associated hearing loss)

Psychological therapy may help

Tinnitus support groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Reactivation of the Varicella Zoster virus within the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the features of Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

CN7 palsy
Vesicular rash around ear
Ear pain
Tinnitus/vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome?

A

Oral aciclovir and corticosteroids.

Ocular lubricants and tape eye shut at night

Treatable if the medication is given within 72 hours of symptom onset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is laryngopharyngeal reflux?

A

GORD resulting in inflammatory changes to larynx mucosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the features of laryngopharyngeal reflux?

A

Globus (lump in throat, problems swallowing saliva, not food)
Heartburn
Intermittent hoarse voice
Chronic cough
Dysphagia
Sore throat

External examination: may have erythematous pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you manage laryngopharyngeal reflux?

A

PPI
Avoid food triggers
Sodium alginate solutions (gaviscon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which red flags do you have to rule out before diagnosing laryngopharyngeal reflux?
Problems swallowing food. Permanent hoarse voice. Unilateral discomfort
26
What is viral labrynthitis?
Inflammation of the membranous labyrinth of the ear (cochlea and vestibular end organs)
27
What are the features of viral labrynthitis?
Vertigo/dizziness (exacerbated by movement) Hearing loss (sensorineural) Tinnitus N&V Recent URTI Horizontal nystagmus towards unaffected side Gait disturbance Abnormal head impulse test
28
How do you manage viral labrynthitis?
Self limiting Prochlorperazine/antihistamines
29
What is vestibular neuritis?
Inflammation of the vestibular nerve leading to vertigo and dizziness.
30
What is the most common organism causing otitis externa?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - gram negative rod - treated with acetic acid, topical ciprofloxacin
30
What is the most common organism causing otitis externa?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - gram negative rod - treated with acetic acid, topical ciprofloxacin
31
What is tympanosclerosis?
Chronic inflammation and scarring of the tympanic membrane leading to subsequent calcification of the tympanic membrane and associated structures. White patches in membrane. Hearing aid can help
32
What are some thyroid surgery complications?
- Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve - Bleeding within a confined space. Haematoma can compress on trachea causing respiratory distress. (remove surgical clips to allow it to drain) - Damage to parathyroid glands can result in hypocalcaemia (seizures, oral paraesthesia, spasms, prolonged QT, irritability)
33
What is Black Hairy Tongue?
Common condition caused by dysfunctional desquamation of the filiform papillae. Black, pink, green
34
What are the risk factors for Black Hairy Tongue?
Poor oral hygiene IV drug use Abx H&N radiation HIV
35
How do you manage Black Hairy tongue?
Swab to ensure it is not candida Tongue scraping Use topical anti-fungals if candida is present.
36
What is malignant otitis externa?
Inflammation of the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus which extends to the bony ear canal leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis. Occurs in immunocompromised and diabetic patients. Uncommon
37
What is malignant otitis externa caused by?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
38
What are the features of malignant otitis externa?
Severe otalgia Purulent discharge Swollen canal Immunocompromised/DM Pyrexial Temporal headache Dysphagia, hoarseness, facial nerve dysfunction
39
How do you investigate malignant otitis externa?
CT scan
40
How do you treat malignant otitis externa?
IV ciprofloxacin Urgent ENT referral
41
Why do you need prompt treatment for auricular haematomas?
To prevent formation of cauliflower ears
42
What is the management for auricular haematomas?
Incision and drainage (preferred over needle aspiration) Same day assessment by ENT
43
In whom is auricular haematomas most common?
Rugby players and wrestlers
44
What nerve is the tensor tympani innervated by?
Mandibular division of the Trigeminal nerve (CN V-3)
45
What are the signs of a basal skull fracture?
Head injury Reduced consciousness Battle's sign= bruising of the mastoid process Raccoon eyes Rhinorrhoea (CSF from ear) Cranial nerve palsy Bleeding from nose/ears Haemotympanum (blood visible behind the tympanic membrane)
46
What investigation would you do if you suspect a basal skull fracture?
CT head
47
What investigation would you do if you suspect a basal skull fracture?
CT head
48
What is the most common mouth cancer?
SCC (RF- heaving smoking and drinking, HPV)
49
What is the most common mouth cancer?
SCC (RF- heaving smoking and drinking, HPV)
50
What is the imaging modality of choice for a neck lump?
USS of neck (allows for USS guided biopsy)
50
What is the imaging modality of choice for a neck lump?
USS of neck (allows for USS guided biopsy)
51
What is Lemeirre's Syndrome?
Infective thrombophlebitis that can develop as a result of untreated bacterial throat infections. Can lead to bacteraemia and septic emboli.
51
What is Lemeirre's Syndrome?
Infective thrombophlebitis that can develop as a result of untreated bacterial throat infections. Can lead to bacteraemia and septic emboli.
52
How do you manage an inhaled foreign body?
Halo- circular radio opaque forge in body is a button battery Magill forceps= if located in oropharynx and laryngeal inlet Rigid bronchoscopy= lower airway obstruction (wheeze)
53
In whom are nasal polyps more common?
2-4x more common in males. Uncommon in children and elderly.
54
What conditions are nasal polyps associated with?
Aspirin insensitivity Asthma (late onset) CF Infective sinusitis Kartageners syndrome Churg Strauss Syndrome
55
What is Samter's Triad?
Aspirin insensitivity Asthma Nasal polyposis
56
What are the features of nasal polyps?
Reduced smell/taste Nasal obstruction Rhinorrhoea Sneezing
57
What are red flag features of nasal polyps?
Unilateral Bleeding
58
How do you manage nasal polyps?
Routine referral to ENT Topical corticosteroids for 4-6 weeks, polyps should shrink
59
What medications should be avoided in Samter's Triad?
NSAIDs Aspirin As they can precipitate an asthma exacerbation
59
What medications should be avoided in Samter's Triad?
NSAIDs Aspirin As they can precipitate an asthma exacerbation
60
What is the most common malignant tumour in the nasal cavity?
SCC
61
What is the most common malignant tumour in the nasal cavity?
SCC
62
What can cause gingival hyperplasia?
AML Phenytoin CCB (nifedipine) Ciclosporin
63
What is the first line investigation used when someone complains of hearing difficulties??
Audiogram
64
How do you interpret an audiogram?
Above 20 dB is normal Sensorineural: bone and air conduction impaired Conductive: air conduction impaired Mixed: bone and air conduction impaired
64
How do you interpret an audiogram?
65
What are the 2 types of epistaxis?
Anterior - Visible bleeding - Keisselbach's plexus (Little's Area) Posterior - Not visible - From deeper structures - Older people - Profuse - Increased risk of aspiration and airway compromise
66
What are the causes of epistaxis?
Nose picking/blowing Trauma Foreign body insertion Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia Granulomatous with polyangiitis Bleeding disorder Juvenile angiofibroma (benign tumour that is highly vascularised seen in adolescent males) Cocaine use (obliteration of septum)
67
How do you manage epistaxis?
A to E assessment Arrest epistaxis Ensure no shock Haemodynamically stable - Lean forwards with mouth open - Pinch cartilaginous part of nose for 20 mins and breathe through mouth If successful - topical antiseptic (base-tin- neomycin and chlorhexidine) to reduce crusting and risk of vestibulitis (avoid in peanut/soy/neomycin allergies) - admission if comorbidity or under 2 If that does not work: - Cautery (visible) - Packing (not visible) Haemodynamically unstable - A to E - Control bleeding Epistaxis that has failed all other management - Sphenopalitine ligation under GA
68
What is mastoiditis?
Infection spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid air spaces of the temporal bone.
69
What are the features of mastoiditis?
Severe otalgia, behind ear Recurrent otitis media Unwell Protruding external ear Otorrhoea if perforated eardrum Swelling/erythema/tenderness of mastoid process Fever
70
What imaging do you do for mastoiditis, if any?
Clinical diagnosis CT only if suspected complications
71
How do you manage mastoiditis?
IV abx Admission to hospital Mastoidectomy if: - CN7, sigmoid sinus, brain or inner ear are at risk
72
What are the complications of mastoiditis?
Osteomyelitis CN7 palsy Hearing loss Meningitis
73
What causes a perforated tympanic membrane?
Infection Trauma Barotrauma
74
What are the features of a perforated tympanic membrane?
Conductive hearing loss Relief of symptoms and discharge Increased risk of otitis media
75
How do you manage a perforated tympanic membrane?
Should heal within 6-8 weeks. Avoid olive oil and sodium bicarbonate drops. Abx not indicated unless the peforation is secondary to acute otitis media.

Y4 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions