ENR Flashcards by Fuck Off | Brainscape

Q

When is it permissible to automatically change comms to tower frequency on an approach?

A

The aircraft is established on final and has been cleared for the approach;
Frequency congestion has not allowed the pilot to report established or otherwise obtain a clearance to transfer to tower;
The aircraft is not greater than 4 nm from touchdown.

ENR 1.6 : 3.15

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Q

What does a steady green light signal mean to an aircraft in flight?

A

Authorised to land if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

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Q

A missed approach procedure is designed to provide a minimum obstacle clearance of:

A

100’ at a gradient of 2.5%.

ENR 1.5 : 1.10.1

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Q

What actions should the pilot take if in RVSM airspace and the primary altimeter systems disagree or diverge?

A

If the altimeters diverge by more than 200’:

Attempt to determine the defective system through established trouble-shooting procedures or by comparing with the standby altimeter;
If the defective altimeter can be determined, proceed as if one altimeter had failed. If the defective altimeter cannot be determined, proceed as if both altimeters had failed.

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.5

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Q

For a sector 1 or sector 2 entry, what timing applies?

A

For a sector 1 (parallel) entry: the applicable holding time;
For a sector 2 (offset) entry: the applicable holding time, up to a maximum of 1 minute, 30 seconds.

Both instances should respect limiting DME distances.

ENR 1.5 : 3.3.2 - 3.3.3

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Q

What is Mach Number Technique?

A

A term used to describe the method of clearing successive jet aircraft, operating along the same track, to maintain specified Mach numbers in order to maintain longitudinal separation.

ENR 2.2 : 1.2

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Q

What is required to conduct an ILS approach to the 800 m visibility minima?

A

The aircraft must be manually flown to the minima using a flight director or approved HUDLS, or with an autopilot coupled;
The aircraft must be equipped with a serviceable failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems;
High intensity runway edge lighting must be available.

ENR 1.5 : 4.7.3

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Q

What speed limits apply in class G airspace?

A

250 kts below 10,000’.

ENR 1.1 : 66.1

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Q

What requirements apply to the use of SLOP?

A

Any offset must only be used by aircraft with automatic offset tracking capability;
The offset must be to the right, and up to a maximum of 2 nm;
The offset may only be performed during the en route phase;
The offset may only be applied in OCA;
The offset must not be used in addition to other deviations or offsets (e.g. weather);
The offset must not be applied at levels where obstacle clearance would be affected;
If identified an aircraft may continue an offset, but must advise ATC prior to intiating or changing an offset.

ENR 2.2 : 2.2

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Q

What distance-based wake separation minima applies to a MEDIUM following a SUPER?

A

7 nm.

ENR 1.4 : 9.2.3

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Q

Before entering RVSM airspace, what mandatory equipment must be operating normally?

A

Two independent altimetry systems;
An SSR transponder;
An altitude alert system;
An autopilot with height lock.

ENR 1.1 : 40.3.1

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Q

What is the maximum speed permitted for Category E aircraft during the missed approach?

A

275 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

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Q

What is the maximum speed permitted for Category D aircraft during visual circling?

A

205 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

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Q

How is the circling area defined for each category of aircraft?

A

The circling area is created by drawing and joining arcs centred on the threshold of each usable runway. The arc distance is:

For Cat C: 4.2 nm

For Cat D: 5.28 nm

For Cat E: 6.94 nm

ENR 1.5 : 1.7.6

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Q

What steps should a pilot take in the event of a loss of communication?

A

Try to re-establish communication by other means;
Squawk 7600, and broadcast blind at suitable intervals on the ATS frequency and 121.5 (and 123.45 if required);
Watch for conflicting traffic visually and by reference to TCAS;
Turn on all exterior collision lights;
Maintain the last speed and altitude for 60 minutes following the last failure to report over a compulsory reporting point, and then proceed as per the flight plan.

ENR 1.1 : 21.2.8

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Q

What range of speeds is permitted for Category D aircraft during the intial and intermediate part of an approach?

A

185 - 250 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

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Q

If deviation from track is required to avoid weather and a revised ATC clearance cannot be obtained, what should a pilot do?

A

If possible, deviate away from an organised route or track system;
Broadcast at suitable intervals on the frequency in use and on 121.5 callsign, flight level, position including the route designator, and intentions;
Watch for conflicting traffic visually and by reference to TCAS;
Turn on all exterior lights;
For deviations greater than 10 nm, when the aircraft is approximately 10 nm from track, initiate a level change of 300’. If the aircraft deviates north, descend, if deviating south, climb;
Continue to try to contact ATC to obtain a clearance;
When returning to track and within approximately 10 nm of track, be at the assigned flight level.

ENR 2.2 : 1.6.2

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Q

What navigation tolerances apply before ATC must be notified?

A

For LLZ or VOR, half scale deflection or more;
For DME, 2 nm or more;
For RNP RNAV, where ANP exceeds RNP;
When navigating visually, 1 nm.

ENR 1.1 : 19.6.2

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Q

A missed approach must be executed if:

A

During the final segment, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance;
During an approach and below the MSA the navigation aid becomes suspect or fails;
Visual reference is not established before reaching the MAPt or DA;
A landing cannot be effected from the approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted;
Visual reference is lost while circling to land.

ENR 1.5 : 1.10.1

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Q

Descent below the MDA on a straight-in approach may only occur when:

A

Visual reference can be maintained;
All elements of the met minima are achieved;
The aircraft is continously in a position from which a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow a touchdown within the touchdown zone.

ENR 1.5 : 1.8.2

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Q

With respect to RAIM, when must ATC be advised?

A

If RAIM is lost for more than 5 minutes;
If RAIM is not available when ATC requests a GPS distance, or where an ATC clearance or requirement based on a GPS distance is imposed;
If the receiver is in DR mode, or experiences loss of navigation function, for more than one minute;
Where indicated displacement from track exceeds 2 nm.

ENR 1.1 : 19.11.2

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Q

Within what time frame should an aircraft endeavour to cross a feeder fix when allocated a crossing time?

A

The aircraft should cross the fix at the specified time or up to 30 seconds early.

ENR 1.9 : 4.2.3

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Q

What separation minima apply for a landing aircraft?

A

The landing aircraft will not be permitted to cross the threshold of the runway until:

the preceding aircraft is airborne, and has commenced a turn or is beyond a point where the landing aircraft could be expected to complete its roll or manoeuvre in the event of a missed approach;
the preceding aircraft has vacated and is taxiing away from the runway;
the preceding aircraft, if using a crossing runway, has stopped short or crossed the landing aircraft’s runway.

ENR 1.1 : 14.6.2

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Q

What does a flashing green light signal mean to an aircraft in flight?

A

Return for landing.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

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Q

What separation is provided in class E airspace?

A

IFR flights are only separated from other IFR flights, and where possible, receive traffic information on VFR flights.

ENR 1.4 : 2.1.4

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Q

What climb gradients normally apply to a SID?

A

2.5% for obstacles, plus 0.8% obstacle clearance from zero at the departure end of the runway. Where a gradient is provided for reasons other than obstacle clearance, it does not include the 0.8% margin.

ENR 1.5 : 8.5.2 - 8.5.3

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Q

What speed limits apply in class A airspace?

A

No speed limits apply.

ENR 1.1 : 66.1

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Q

Obstacles above what height are required to be reported?

A

360’

ENR 5.4 : 1.1

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Q

What actions should be taken in RVSM airspace if the autopilot fails?

A

Maintain cleared flight level;
Evaluate the aircraft’s ability to maintain altitude through manual control;
Assess any possible conflicting traffic;
Alert all nearby aircraft by turning on all exterior lights and, if not in contact with ATC, broadcasting on 121.5;
Notify ATC: “Negative RVSM” and the intended course of action.

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.8

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Q

What range of speeds are permitted for Category D aircraft during the final portion of an approach?

A

130-185 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

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Q

What is the maximum speed permitted for Category C aircraft during the missed approach?

A

240 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

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Q

How is each aircraft performance category defined?

A

With respect to V_AT, the performance categories are:

Cat C - from 121 to 140 kts,

Cat D - from 141 to 165 kts,

Cat E - from 166 to 210 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.2.1

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Q

When may an aricraft be cleared for a visual approach by night?

A

The pilot has established and can maintain continuous visual reference to the ground or water;
Visibility along the flight path is not less than 5000m;
The aircraft is within 30 nm or, if being vectored, has been assigned the MVA and given instructions to intercept final or position within the circling area.

ENR 1.1 : 12.8.1

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Q

What does a flashing red light signal mean to an aircraft on the ground?

A

Taxi clear of landing area in use.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

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Q

Where a flight is planned to land at an aerodrome with electric lighting, when is an alternate required?

A

Provision must be made for an alternate unless:

the aerodrome has standby power, or
portable lights are available and a responsible person is in attendence.

ENR 1.1 : 59.4.2

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Q

What standard speed expectation applies to a SID?

A

Accelerate to 250 KIAS no later than 3,000’ AGL and maintain until 10,0000’.

ENR 1.5 : 8.4.3

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Q

For entry into a holding pattern, what are the three sectors for each entry?

A

For a sector 1 entry (parallel): An arc from the reciprocal of the inbound to 110 degrees on the traffic side;
For a sector 2 entry (offset): An arc from the reciprocal of the inbound to 70 degrees on the non-traffic side;
For a sector 3 entry (direct): A semi-circle starting at 70 degrees off the inbound course on the non-traffic side.

ENR 1.5 : 3.3.1

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Q

While operating in RVSM airspace, if all primary altimeter systems fail or are considered unreliable, what should the pilot do?

A

Maintain the flight level indicated by the standby altimeter at the time of failure;
Alert nearby aircraft by turning on all exterior lights and, if not in contact with ATC, broadcasting on 121.5;
Notify ATC: “Negative RVSM” and the intended course of action.

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.3

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Q

What bank angle are approach procedures predicated on?

A

The lesser of 25 degrees or rate 1.

ENR 1.5 : 1.23.1

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Q

The pilot of an aircraft not approved, or with any mandatory equipment item unservicable must advise what prior to entry into RVSM airspace?

A

“Negative RVSM”

ENR 1.1 : 40.3.2

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Q

An ASIR is required to be filed within what time frame?

A

For IRM, the matter must be reported as soon as possible by phone. For IRM and RRM, a written report must be filed within 72 hours.

ENR 1.14 : 1.2.3

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Q

What distance-based wake separation minima applies to a MEDIUM following a HEAVY?

A

5 nm.

ENR 1.4 : 9.2.3

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Q

Where greater than moderate turbulence impacts the ability of an aircraft to maintain the cleared flight level, what should a pilot do?

A

Watch for conflicting traffic and turn on all exterior lights;
Broadcast callsign, position, level, and nature and severity of the turbulence on 121.5 or 123.45 as a backup;
Notify ATC as soon as possible and request a level change if necessary;
If the CFL cannot be maintained, initiate contigency procedures to leave the assigned route.

ENR 2.2 : 1.7.1

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Q

If, following a failure of the autopilot in RVSM Oceanic class A airspace, the pilot cannot maintain the cleared flight level, what should be the next course of action?

A

If unable to obtain a revised ATC clearance, turn 90 degrees left or right off the assigned route, taking account of any adjacent routes.

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.9

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Q

What separation is provided in class D airspace?

A

IFR flights are separated from IFR and special VFR flights, and receive traffic information with respect to VFR flights.

ENR 1.4 : 2.1.3

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Q

What time-based wake turbulence separation minima apply to a MEDIUM following a SUPER?

A

3 minutes for landings,

3 minutes for departures from the full length,

4 minutes for an intermediate departure.

ENR 1.4 : 9.2.2

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Q

What is the order of precision for navigation aids?

A

LLZ,
GNSS,
VOR,
(NDB).

ENR 1.1 : 19.4.3

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Q

What navigation requirements apply where a flight is conducted with reference to radio navigation systems?

A

After allowing for a possible track error of 9 degrees, the aircraft must come within the rated coverage of a radio which can be used to fix the aircraft position; and,
The time between fixes cannot exceed two hours.

ENR 1.1 : 19.1.1

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Q

What standard timing applies in a hold?

A

Unless specified on the chart:

Up to and including FL140, 1 minute;
Above FL140, 1.5 minutes.

ENR 1.5 : 3.2.1

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Q

What alternate minima applies where an aerodrome forecase in unavailable or ‘provisional’?

A

Provision must be made for a suitable alternate.

ENR 1.1 : 59.2.12

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Q

What range of speeds is permitted for Category E aircraft during the final portion of an approach?

A

155-230 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

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Q

What elements of a PDC must be read back to ATC?

A

SID, including RWY
STAR, if issued
Transponder code

ENR 1.1 : 3.25.7

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Q

If a loss of RAIM results is a missed approach, by reference to what should the pilot track the missed approach procedure?

A

If the RAIM warning ceases as the missed approach is selected, GNSS may be used. Should the RAIM warning remain or the accuracy of the GNSS receiver is in doubt, alternative means should be used.

ENR 1.5 : 1.12.3

Q

What time-based wake turbulence separation minima apply to a HEAVY following a SUPER?

A

3 minutes for landings,

2 minutes for departures from the full length,

4 minutes for an intermediate departure.

ENR 1.4 : 9.2.2

Q

What two conditions would render GNSS information unreliable?

A

Loss of RAIM for more than 5 minutes; or
DR mode.

ENR 1.1 : 19.11.2

Q

What should a pilot do if issued a breakout instruction off a PRM?

A

Manually fly the aircraft to the required heading without delay;
Climb or descend to the specified altitude;
Read back the ATC instruction.

ENR 1.1 : 24.3.3

Q

What are the minimum altitude requirements for a visual approach by night?

A

Maintain not less than the applicable LSALT, MSA, DGA step, or 500’ above the lower limit of CTA, or, if being vectored, operate not below the last assigned altitude, until the aircraft is:

within the circling area and the aerodrome is in sight; or
within 5 nm, aligned with the centreline and not below ‘on slope’ on the T-VASIS or PAPI (or 7nm if equipped with an ILS/GLS); or
within 10 nm, and established not less than full scale LLZ deflection and not below the GP (14 nm for runways 16L and 34L YSSY).

ENR 1.1 : 12.8.6

Q

What constitutes a positive fix?

A

Station passage over a VOR, TACAN, DME or (NDB);
The intersection of two or more position lines, interesecting with an angle of not less than 45 degrees, obtained from VOR, LLZ, DME or (NDB) in any combination, and within the rated coverage of the aid; or
GNSS, being TSO-129 or better.

ENR 1.1 : 19.5.1

Q

What speed limits apply in class C airspace?

A

250 kts below 10,000’, except where specified or varied by ATC.

ENR 1.1 : 66.1

Q

What does a flashing red light signal mean to an aircraft in flight?

A

Aerodrome unsafe - do not land.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

Q

Where deviations from track are required for reasons other than weather (e.g. rapid descent, severe turbulence, or diversion) and a revised clearance is not immediately available, what actions should the pilot take?

A

If possible deviate away from an organised route system;
Broadcast at suitable intervals on the frequency in use and 121.5 (or as a backup, 123.45) callsign, flight level, position including route designator, and intentions;
Watch for conflicting traffic visually and on TCAS;
Turn on all exterior lights;
If a clearance is still not available, leave assigned track by turning at least 45 degrees right or left to acquire a 15 nm offset. If intending to continue in the same direction consider limiting the intercept to 15nm, if intending to reverse course turn as required to intercept an opposite direction offset and consider other traffic and a climb or descent at 10 nm;
If able to maintain level, climb or descend at 10 nm from track, by 500’ at or below FL410, or 1000’ above FL410;
If unable to maintain level, minimise rate of descent where possible and select a final flight level which differs by 500’ or 1000’ if above FL410, and consider aircraft may be flying a SLOP;
If diversion across adjacent traffic is required, while maintaining a 15 nm offset expedite a climb above FL410 or below FL285 and then maintain a level 500’ different from those normally used. If a climb or descent is not appropriate, maintain a 500’ deviation from levels normally used.

ENR 2.2 : 1.8

Q

What does a flashing white light signal mean to an aircraft on the ground?

A

Return to starting point on aerodrome.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

Q

In the event a go around is required from a visual approach, what should the pilot do?

A

Climb on runway track, and remain visual, or
At YSSY only, a visual go-around must be conducted in accordance with the ILS missed approach procedure for the runway in use.

ENR 1.1 : 16.1 - 16.2

Q

What indicates a partial runway lighting failure, and what impact does this have on a flight?

A

A partial lighting failure is indicated by a doubling of runway edge light spacing, i.e. from 60 m to 120 m. When this occurs, the prescribed minimum visibility for an instrument approach is less than VMC must be multiplied by a factor of 1.5.

ENR 1.1 : 59.4.8

Q

While operating in RVSM airspace, one altimeter fails. What should the pilot do?

A

Couple the operational system to the autopilot with height lock;
Maintain increased vigilance in altitude-keeping;
Notify ATC: “For information, operating on one primary altimeter only”

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.2

Q

What separation is provided in class C airspace?

A

IFR flights are separated from all other flights.

ENR 1.4 : 2.1.2

Q

Where a flight is conducted at night and an alternate is required, what lighting requirements apply to the alternate?

A

The aerodrome lighting must be:

not pilot activated, or
served by PAL, but there is a responsible person in attendence.

Where the alternate requirement arises due to no standby power or PAL at the destination, the alternate need not have standby power or standby portable lighting.

ENR 1.1 : 59.4.4, 59.4.6

Q

If PEC is not available, what correction must be applied?

A

PEC must be applied only to precision approaches. Where a PEC is not available, 50’ must be added.

ENR 1.5 : 1.19.3

Q

What is the maximum speed permitted for Category E aircraft during visual circling?

A

240 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

Q

What range of speeds is permitted for Category E aircraft during the intial and intermediate part of an approach?

A

185 - 250 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

Q

Where a TTF includes two visibilities, which creates an operational requirement for an alternate?

A

An alternate will be required if the higher of the two is less than the alternate minimum.

ENR 1.1 : 59.2.10

Q

What amount of deviation from flight plan speed is allowable before ATC must be advised?

A

+/- 10 knots, or +/- M0.02

ENR 1.1 : 12.1.1

Q

What actions should be taken if, in RVSM airspace, the altitude alert system fails?

A

Notify ATC: “Negative RVSM”

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.7

Q

The 25 and 10 nm MSAs provide what obstacle clearance?

A

1000’

ENR 1.5 : 2.2.1

Q

Where a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with PAL, when is an alternate required?

A

An alternate is required unless a responsible person is in attendence to manually switch on aerodrome lighting.

ENR 1.1 : 59.4.3

Q

What is the takeoff minima?

A

0’ and 800 m; or
0’ and 550 m, if the runway has illuminated edge lighting at spacing not exceeding 60 m and centreline lighting or markings. If the aerodrome is not controlled the takeoff must be conducted by day only.

ENR 1.5 : 4.3.2

Q

What should a pilot do if fuel dumping is required?

A

Request authority from ATC before commencing the dump,
Notify ATC immediately after the dump,
Take reasonable precautions to ensure the safety of persons or property in the air or on the ground, and
Where possible, conduct the dump in clear air above 6,000’, and in an area nominated by ATC.

ENR 1.1 : 67.5.2

Q

On an approach that is not runway aligned, when may the pilot maoeuvre to align the aircraft with the runway centreline?

A

Within the circling area;
Visual reference can be maintained;
Continuously in sight of the ground or water.

ENR 1.5 : 1.8.4

Q

What distance-based wake separation minima applies to a HEAVY following a SUPER?

A

6 nm.

ENR 1.4 : 9.2.3

Q

Any deviation from assigned level greater than how much require a report to be submitted?

A

300’

ENR 1.1 : 40.7.1

Q

What airspeed should not be exceeded in the circuit?

A

200 kts

ENR 1.1 : 42.1.3

Q

During a visual departure, a pilot must:

A

maintain the track/heading assigned by ATC;
remain not less than 500’ above the lower limit of CTA; and,
visually maintain obstacle clearance.

ENR 1.1 : 6.3.2

Q

The minimum obstacle clearance minima for a circling approach is:

A

Cat C and D: 400’

Cat E: 500’

ENR 1.5 : 1.7.6

Q

What are the capture regions for a GNSS approach?

A

For approaches with three waypoints:

At the centre waypoint, within 70 degrees of the inbound course;
At the outside waypoints, the capture region boundary is parallel to the inbound course.

But for approaches with two waypoints:

The centre waypoint capture region boundary is parallel to the outside waypoint course.

ENR 1.5 : 2.4.1

Q

What terms should be used to describe braking characteristics?

A

GOOD - The conditions may not be as good as operating on a dry runway, but the pilot should not experience any directional control or barking difficulties because of the conditions.

MEDIUM - Braking action may be such that the achievement of landing or accelerate-stop performance depends on precise handling techniques.

POOR - There may be significant deterioration both in braking performance and directional control.

ENR 1.1 : 62.2.2

Q

What does a white cross next toa wind direction indicator mean?

A

The aerodrome is completely unservicable.

ENR 1.5 : 13.3

Q

When may an aircraft be cleared for a visual approach by day?

A

When the aircraft is within 30 nm;
The pilot has established and can maintain continuous visual reference to the ground or water;
Visibility along the flight path is not less than 5000m, or the aerodrome is in sight.

ENR 1.1 : 12.8.1

Q

Where a flight is conducted at night, what are the applicable periods during takeoff and landing where lighting requirements apply?

A

For takeoff - at least 10 minutes before departure to 30 minutes after takeoff,

For landing - at least 30 minutes before ETA until the landing and taxiing has been completed.

ENR 1.1 : 60.3.1

Q

What does a steady green light signal mean to an aircraft on the ground?

A

Authorised for takeoff if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

Q

During changes of level in RVSM airspace, and aircraft must not over- or under-shoot its assigned altitude by how much?

A

150’

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.1

Q

A flight which is conducted at night may avoid the requirement to carry an alternate if what holding fuel is carried?

A

Holding fuel for first light + 10 minutes at the destination.

ENR 1.1 : 59.4.5

Q

On a circling approach, descent below the MDA is only permitted when the pilot:

A

Maintains the aircraft within the circling area;
Maintains visibility not less than that prescribed;
Maintains visual contact with the runway landing environment (i.e. threshold or approach lighting or markings identifiable with the runway); and,
From a position within the circuit makes a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates or descent and manoeuvres normal for the type while maintaining the minimum obstacle clearance, or,
By day only, maintains visual contact with any obstacles and respects the minimum obstacle clearance.

ENR 1.5 : 1.7.6

Q

What range of speeds is permitted for Category C aircraft during the final portion of an approach?

A

115-160 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

Q

What separation is provided in class A airspace?

A

Only IFR flights are permitted and are seperated from each other.

ENR 1.4 : 2.1.1

Q

What tracking requirements apply to a visual approach?

A

The pilot must maintain assigned track or heading until:

by day, within 5 nm;
by night, within the circling area.

ENR 1.1 : 12.8.4

Q

In Oceanic class A airspace, following an RVSM failure where a revised clearance is not available or practicable, what can a pilot do?

A

Initiate a lateral offset with the intention of returning to track as soon as possible:

If possible, establish communication with other aircraft on 123.45;
Initiate a lateral offset (one or both aircraft), not exceeding 2 nm;
Notify ATC as soon as possible of the offset; and
Notify ATC as soon as the aircraft are re-established on the assigned route.

ENR 1.1 : 40.6.2

Q

What is the maximum speed permitted for Category D aircraft during the missed approach?

A

265 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

Q

How is a 45/180 reversal turn carried out?

A

A specified outbound course and timing for 1 to 3 minutes from a fix;
A 45 degree turn away from that course for 1 minute, 15 seconds;
A 180 degree turn to intercept the inbound course.

ENR 1.5 : 2.7.2

Q

What conditions are required to conduct an DGA approach?

A

The database must be current;
The co-ordinates of the destination aid must not be capable of modification by the crew;
RAIM must be available before descending below the LSALT/MSA;
The nominated azimuth aid must be used for track guidance;
A missed apporach must be conducted any time the GNSS information is in doubt or a RAIM warning or failure occurs.

ENR 1.5 : 12.2.2

Q

What is required to apply special alternate minima?

A

Duplicated approach capability, i.e. 2 x LOC, GP, DME or marker beacons (if required by the approach);
METAR/SPECI forecasting services must be available;
An aerodrome control service must be provided.

ENR 1.5 : 6.2

Q

What does a flashing green light signal mean to an aircraft on the ground?

A

Authorised to taxi if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

Q

What actions should be taken in RVSM airspace if the SSR transponder fails?

A

Notify ATC: “Negative RVSM”

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.6

Q

For wake turbulence separation, what are the defined wake turbulence categories?

A

SUPER - A380 and AN225 aircraft,

HEAVY - Types with a MCTOW of 136,000 kg or more,

MEDIUM - Types with a MCTOW of more than 7,000 kg but less than 136,000 kg,

LIGHT - Types with a MCTOW of 7,000 kg or less.

ENR 1.4 : 9.1.1

Q

The published MDA or DA must be corrected for temperature under what circumstances?

A

When the temperature is less than ISA - 15 degrees.

ENR 1.5 : 4.7.4

Q

Following a failure of all primary altimeter systems in RVSM Oceanic class A airspace, and unable to obtain ATC clearance in a timely manner, what should the pilot do?

A

If operationally feasible, turn at least 45 degrees left or right, taking into account adjacent routes, and descend to FL290;
If not operationally feasible to do this, continue to alert nearby aircraft and coordinate with ATC.

ENR 1.1 : 40.4.4

Q

With respect to RAIM, when must a pilot conduct a missed approach on an GNSS approach?

A

At any time after the IAF if a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning occurs.

ENR 1.5 : 1.12.1

Q

What aerodrome lighting must be operational for an RPT aircraft to takeoff or land at an aerodrome by night?

A

Runway edge lighting,
Threshold lighting,
Illuminated wind direction indicator(s) (except where an observer or automated weather station is avilable),
Obstacle lighting (when specified in local procedures),
Taxiway lighting, and
Apron floodlighting.

All lighting must be electric.

ENR 1.1 : 60.1

Q

Where a TCAS RA conflicts with a PRM breakout instruction, what should the pilot do?

A

Immediately comply with the turn component of the breakout instruction and the RA;
Advise ATC if the RA requires deviating from the climb or descend portion of the breakout.

ENR 1.1 : 24.4.2

Q

How is a 80/260 reversal turn carried out?

A

A specified outbound course and timing of 1 to 3 minutes from a fix;
An 80 degree turn away from that course;
A 260 degree turn to intercept the inbound course.

ENR 1.5 : 2.7.2

Q

What terms should be used to describe water on a runway?

A

DAMP - the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture.

WET - The surface is soaked but there is not standing water.

WATER PATCHES - Patches of standing water are visible.

FLOODED - Extensive standing water is visible.

ENR 1.1 : 62.2.1

Q

What time-based wake turbulence separation minima apply to a MEDIUM following a HEAVY?

A

2 minutes for landings,

2 minutes for departures from the full length,

3 minutes for an intermediate departure.

ENR 1.4 : 9.2.2

Q

What distance-based wake separation minima applies to a HEAVY following a HEAVY?

A

4 nm.

ENR 1.4 : 9.2.3

Q

What do ‘MINIMUM FUEL’ and ‘MAYDAY FUEL’ mean?

A

MINIMUM FUEL should be used if the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance will result in landing with less than the fixed feul reserve.

MAYDAY FUEL should be used when the usable fuel available upon landing at the nearest suitable aerodrome is less than the fixed fuel reserve, and the aircraft requires immediate assistance.

ENR 1.1 : 61.5.1

Q

What speed limits apply in class E airspace?

A

250 kts below 10,000’.

ENR 1.1 : 66.1

Q

What speed limits apply in class D airspace?

A

250 kts, or

200 kts below 2,500’ AAL within 4 nm of the aerodrome.

ENR 1.1 : 66.1

Q

What speed and bank angle limits are applied to a SID?

A

Maximum speed for turning departures: 290 kts

Average angle of bank of 15 degrees.

ENR 1.5 : 8.5.5

Q

In the context of instrument approach procedures, what does ‘visual reference’ mean?

A

Visual reference with the runway threshold, or approach lights or markings identifiable with the runway clearly visible to the pilot;
Flight visibility not less than that specified for the approach; and,
For circling approaches, clear of cloud and in sight of the ground or water.

ENR 1.5 : 1.10.1

Q

What is the maximum speed in a hold?

A

Up to and including FL140, 230 kts;
Above FL140 and up to and including FL200, 240 kts;
Above FL200, 265 kts.

When above the highest MSA in turbulent conditions, these speeds may be increased to the lesser of 280 kts or M0.8, subject to ATC approval in CTA.

ENR 1.5 : 3.2.1

Q

What is the alternate minima for an aerodrome without an instrument approach procedure?

A

The LSALT + 500’ and visibility not below 8km.

ENR 1.1 : 59.2.12

Q

What range of speeds is permitted for Category C aircraft during the intial and intermediate part of an approach?

A

160 - 240 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

Q

What does a steady red light signal mean to an aircraft on the ground?

A

Stop.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1

Q

Where a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with portable lighting, when is an alternate required?

A

An alternate is required unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendence to ensure the lights are available.

ENR 1.1 : 59.4.1

Q

What requirements must be met to conduct a visual approach by night?

A

At an altitude not less than the applicable LSALT/MSA/DGA/MDA;
Clear of cloud;
In sight of ground or water;
Visibility not less than 5,000m; and
Within the circling area, or
Established on centreline, on slope, and within 5 nm for a PAPI (7nm if runway has an ILS), or
10 nm on an ILS with less than full scale azimuth defelection and not below on slope (14 nm for 34L and 16L YSSY).

ENR 1.5 : 1.15

Q

When advising ATC of RAIM status, what phrases should be used?

A

“RAIM FAILURE”
“RAIM RESTORED”
“NEGATIVE RAIM”

ENR 1.1 : 19.11.2 & 21.3.5

Q

What separation minima apply for take-off?

A

The preceding aircraft must have:

crossed the upwind end;
commenced a turn;
if the runway is longer than 1800m, is airborne and at least 1800m ahead;
vacated and be taxiing away from the runway; or
for a corssing runway, have stopped short or crossed the take-off aircraft’s runway.

ENR 1.1 : 5.5.1

Q

What is the maximum speed permitted for Category C aircraft during visual circling?

A

180 kts.

ENR 1.5 : 1.16.1

Q

What are the minimum altitude requirements for a visual approach by day?

A

Not less than 500’ above the lower limit of CTA; and,
Not below the lowest alittude permissible for VFR flight (CAR 157: 500’ or 1000’ above a populous area, except for take-off and landing).

ENR 1.1 : 12.8.6

Q

What requirements must be met to conduct a visual approach by day?

A

Within 30 nm of the aerodrome and at an altitude not less than the applicable LSALT/MSA/DGA/MDA;
Clear of cloud;
In sight of the ground or water;
Visibility not less than 5,000 m;
Can maintain the above at not less than the minimum for VFR flight until within the circling area.

ENR 1.5 : 1.15

Q

From what range of bearings may an aircraft track inbound to conduct a reversal procedure or base turn?

A

Within 30 degrees of the outbound track, except that on a base turn the 30 degrees arc may be extended to the reciprocal of the inbound track.

ENR 1.5 : 2.7.3

Q

What does a steady red light signal mean to an aircraft in flight?

A

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

ENR 1.5 : 13.1