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Day 3 > Engineering Management > Flashcards

Engineering Management Flashcards

1
Q

Management is:
• A. An art
• B. Both science and art
• C. A science
• D. Neither art nor science

A

An art

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2
Q

Engineering is:
• A. An art
• B. Both science and art
• C. A science
• D. Neither art nor science

A

A science

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3
Q

Engineers can become good managers only
through __________.

• A. Experience
• B. Taking master degree in management
• C. Effective career planning
• D. Trainings

A

C. Effective career planning

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4
Q

If you are an engineer wanting to become a
manager, what will you do?

• A. Develop new talents
• B. Acquire new values
• C. Broaden your point of view
• D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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5
Q

When engineer enters management, what is the
most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?
• A. Learning to trust others
• B. Learning how to work through others
• C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the
work of others
• D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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6
Q

What management functions refers to the process
of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating
their likely impact and determining actions that will
lead to the desired outcomes and goals?
• A. Planning
• B. Leading
• C. Controlling
• D. Organizing

A

• A. Planning

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7
Q

What management function involves orienting
personnel in the most effective way and channeling
resources?

• A. Directing
• B. Planning
• C. Organizing
• D. Leading

A

Directing

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8
Q

What refers to the establishing interrelationships
between people and things in such a way that human
and materials resources are effectively focused
toward achieving the goal of the company?
• A. Planning
• B. Leading
• C. Controlling
• D. Organizing

A

D. Organizing

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9
Q

What management function involves selecting
candidates and training personnel?
• A. Organizing
• B. Staffing
• C. Motivating
• D. Controlling

A

B. Staffing

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10
Q

Actual performance normally is the same as the
original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for
deviation and to take corrective action. This action
refers to what management function?
• A. Organizing
• B. Planning
• C. Controlling
• D. Staffing

A

Controlling

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11
Q

What refers to management function which is to
encourage others to follow the example set for them,
with great commitment and conviction?
• A. Staffing
• B. Motivating
• C. Controlling
• D. Leading

A

Leading

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12
Q

What refers to a principal function of lower
management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of
the organization?
• A. Directing
• B. Motivating
• C. Staffing
• D. Controlling

A

Motivating

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13
Q

In project management, “R & D” stands for:
• A. Retail Distribution
• B. Research and Development
• C. Repair and Develop
• D. Reduce and Deduce

A

Research and Development

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14
Q

What refers to the collection of the tools and
techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs
to produce a predefined set of outputs?
• A. Project Management
• B. Engineering Management
• C. Management
• D. Planning

A

Project Management

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15
Q

In project management O & M stands for:
• A. Operation and Manpower
• B. Operation and Maintenance
• C. Operation and Management
• D. Operation and Mission

A

Operation and Maintenance

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16
Q

A project management must be very good in
which of the following skills?
• A. Communication skills
• B. Human relationship skills
• C. Leadership skills
• D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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17
Q

What is the most essential attribute of a project
manager?
• A. Leadership
• B. Charisma
• C. Communication skill
• D. Knowledge

A

Leadership

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18
Q

Project integration management involves which of
the following processes?
• A. Project plan development
• B. Project plan execution
• C. Integrated change control
• D. Quality planning

A

Quality planning

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19
Q

Project quality management involves all of the
following processes except:
• A. Quality planning
• B. Quality assurance
• C. Quality Control
• D. Quality feature

A

Quality feature

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20
Q

In project management, what provides a simple
yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a
project at each stage of its development?
• A. R & D model
• B. Project feasibility
• C. Life cycle model
• D. All of the above

A

Life cycle model

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21
Q

What is defined as an organized method of
providing past, present, and projected information on
internal operations and external intelligence for use in
decision making?
• A. Electronic Data Processing Systems
• B. Management Information System
• C. Central Processing System
• D. Data Management System

A

Management Information System

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22
Q

What project life cycle model is the most relevant
for information technology project?
• A. Morris model
• B. Waterfall model
• C. Incremental release model
• D. Prototype model

A

Waterfall model

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23
Q

Which is NOT an element of project management
process?
• A. Data and information
• B. Research and development
• C. Decision making
• D. Implementation and action

A

Research and development

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24
Q

Middle management level undertakes what
planning activity?
• A. Intermediate planning
• B. Strategic planning
• C. Operational planning
• D. Direct planning

A

Intermediate planning

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25
Q

Strategic planning is undertaken in which
management level?
• A. Lower management level
• B. Middle management level
• C. Top management level
• D. Lowest management level

A

Top management level

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26
Q

What is the advantage of free-rein style of
leadership?
• A. Little managerial control and high
degree of risk
• B. Time consuming and cost ineffective
• C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision
making
• D. All of the above

A

Little managerial control and high
degree of risk

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27
Q

. If you are appointed as a division manager, your
first task is most likely to
• A. Set goals
• B. Determine the resources needed
• C. Set a standard
• D. Develop strategies and tactics

A

Set goals

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28
Q

What is defined as the process of planning,
organizing, and controlling operations to reach
objective efficiently and effectively?
• A. General Management
• B. Engineering Management
• C. Production Management
• D. Operations Management

A

Operations Management

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29
Q

For a project manager to achieve his given set of
goals through other people, he must have a good
__________.
• A. Interpersonal skills
• B. Communication skills
• C. Leadership
• D. Decision- making skills

A

Interpersonal skills

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30
Q

What type of conflict do managers encounter
when there is disagreement on issues of territorial
power or hidden agenda?
• A. Technical opinion conflict
• B. Politics
• C. Ambiguous roles
• D. Managerial procedure conflict

A

Politics

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31
Q

The process of partitioning an organization into
subunits to improve efficiency is known as
__________.
• A. Division of labor
• B. Segmentation
• C. Departmentalization
• D. Territorialization

A

Departmentalization

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32
Q

By departmentalization of an organization, it
decentralizes __________?
• A. Authority
• B. Responsibility
• C. Accountability
• D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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33
Q

What type of committee companies or
corporations created for a short-term purpose only?
• A. Interim committee
• B. Temporary committee
• C. Standing committee
• D. Ad hoc committee

A

Ad hoc committee

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34
Q

What refers to a description of whether the
objectives are accomplished?
• A. Efficiency
• B. Effectiveness
• C. Ability to manage
• D. Decision- making ability

A

Effectiveness

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35
Q

An engineering is required to finish a certain
engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be
__________ if he finished the job within the required
period of 20 days
• A. Efficient
• B. Effective
• C. Reliable
• D. Qualified

A

Effective

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36
Q

If an engineer provides less input (labor and
materials) to his project and still come out with the
same output, he is said to be more __________.
• A. Managerial skill
• B. Economical
• C. Effective
• D. Efficient

A

D. Efficient

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37
Q

To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer
manager will subject the applicant to a test that is
used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a
subject?
• A. Interest test
• B. Aptitude test
• C. Performance test
• D. Personality test

A

Performance test

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38
Q

What type of training is a combination of on-the
job training and experience with classroom instruction
in particular subject?
• A. On-the-job training
• B. Vestibule school
• C. Apprenticeship program
• D. In-basket

A

Apprenticeship program

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39
Q

What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right
to oversee lower-level personnel involved in the
project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in
the organization?
• A. Top authority
• B. Line authority
• C. Staff authority
• D. Functional authority

A

Functional authority

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40
Q

When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his
superior, he is using what type of authority?
• A. Top authority
• B. Line authority
• C. Staff authority
• D. Functional authority

A

Staff authority

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41
Q

When structuring an organization, the engineer
manager must be concerned with the determining the
scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This
refers to __________.
• A. Division of labor
• B. Delegation of authority
• C. Departmentation
• D. Span of control

A

Division of labor

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42
Q

When structuring an organization, the engineer
must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs,
activities, or processes into major organizational
subunits. This refers to:
• A. Division of labor
• B. Delegation of authority
• C. Departmentation
• D. Span of control

A

Departmentation

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43
Q

Which technique will the manager use when
evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation?
• A. Comparison technique
• B. Intuition and subjective judgment
• C. Rational technique
• D. Analytical technique

A

Intuition and subjective judgment

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44
Q

Which technique will the manager use when
evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation?
• A. Rational and analytical techniques
• B. Intuition and subjective judgment
• C. Comparison in number technique
• D. Cost analysis

A

Rational and analytical techniques

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45
Q

What refers to the strategic statement that
identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of
management, and its purpose as distinguished from
other similar organizations in terms of products,
services and markets?
• A. Corporate mission
• B. Corporate vision
• C. Corporate character
• D. Corporate identity

A

Corporate mission

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46
Q

What refers to a process of influencing and
supporting others to work enthusiastically toward
achieving objectives?
• A. Power
• B. Leadership
• C. Teamwork
• D. Charisma

A

Power

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47
Q

What describes how to determine the number of
service units that will minimize both customer’s
waiting time and cost of service?
• A. Queuing theory
• B. Network model
• C. Sampling theory
• D. Simulation

A

Queuing theory

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48
Q

What refers to the rational way to conceptualize,
analyze and solve problems in situations involving
limited or partial information about the decision
environment?
• A. Sampling theory
• B. Linear programming
• C. Decision theory
• D. Simulation

A

Decision theory

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49
Q

What is quantitative technique where samples of
populations are statistically determined to be used for
a number of processes, such as quality control and
marketing research?
• A. Sampling theory
• B. Linear programming
• C. Statistical decision theory
• D. Simulation

A

Sampling theory

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50
Q

The engineer manager must be concern with the
needs of his human resources. What refers to the
need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?
• A. Physiological need
• B. Security need
• C. Esteem need
• D. Self - actualization need

A

Physiological need

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51
Q

What refers to the learning that is provided in
order to improve performance on the present job?
• A. Training
• B. Development
• C. Vestibule
• D. Specialized courses

A

Training

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52
Q

What technique is best suited for projects that
contain many repetitions of some standard activities?
• A. Benchmark job technique
• B. Parametric technique
• C. Modular technique
• D. Non- modular technique

A

Benchmark job technique

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53
Q

What organizational structure is based on the
assumption that each unit should specialize in a
specific functional area and perform all of the tasks
that require its expertise?
• A. Functional organization
• B. Territorial organization
• C. Process organization
• D. Product organization

A

Functional organization

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54
Q

What type of organization structure in which each
project is assigned to a single organizational unit and
the various functions are performed by personnel
within the unit?
• A. Functional organization
• B. Territorial organization
• C. Process organization
• D. Product organization

A

Product organization

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55
Q

What organizational structure provides a sound
basis for balancing the use of human resources and
skills?
• A. Functional organization
• B. Matrix organization
• C. Process organization
• D. Product organization

A

Matrix organization

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56
Q

In which type of organization where the structure
can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?
• A. Functional organization
• B. Matrix organization
• C. Process organization
• D. Product organization

A

Matrix organization

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57
Q

Which one is an advantage of a matrix
organization?
• A. Rapid reaction organization
• B. Adaptation to changing environment
• C. State-of-the-art technology
• D. Better utilization of resources

A

Rapid reaction organization

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58
Q

Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix
organization?
• A. Dual accountability of personnel
• B. Conflicts between project and functional
• managers
• C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
• D. Inefficient use of specialist

A

Inefficient use of specialist

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59
Q

Which one is an advantage projectized
organization?
• A. Efficient use of technical personnel
• B. Good project schedule and cost control
• C. Single point for customer contact
• D. Rapid reaction time possible

A

Efficient use of technical personnel

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60
Q

Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized
organization?
• A. Uncertain technical direction
• B. Inefficient use of specialist
• C. Insecurity regarding future job
assignments
• D. Slower work flow

A

Slower work flow

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61
Q

Which one is an advantage of a functional
organization?
• A. Efficient use of technical personnel
• B. Rapid reaction time possible
• C. Career continuity and growth of technical
• personnel
• D. Good technology transfer between
projects

A

Rapid reaction time possible

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62
Q

Which one is disadvantage of a functional
organization?
• A. Weak customer interface
• B. Weak project authority
• C. Inefficient use of specialist
• D. Slower work flow

A

Inefficient use of specialist

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63
Q

In what type of organization where a project
manager is held responsible for completion of the
project and is often assigned a budget?
• A. Functional organization
• B. Matrix organization
• C. Projectized organization
• D. Project coordinated organization

A

Matrix organization

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64
Q

In selecting an organizational structure, which of
the following is not a criterion?
• A. Finance and accounting
• B. Customer relation
• C. Location
• D. Technology

A

Location

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65
Q

What is NOT a factor to be taken into
consideration when selecting an organizational
structure for managing projects?
• A. Overhead cost
• B. Type of technology used
• C. Location of the project
• D. Level of uncertainty in projects

A

Location of the project

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66
Q

If a project have multidimensional goals, the
project manager often use his __________ to reach
a compromise solution.
• A. Leadership
• B. Tradeoff analysis skill
• C. Authority
• D. Decision-making skill

A

Tradeoff analysis skill

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67
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is
completed successfully as measured by time, cost,
performance and stakeholder satisfaction?
• A. Functional manager
• B. Project manager
• C. Chief engineer
• D. Department supervisor

A

Project manager

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68
Q

Who is responsible for running a department so
that all his customers are served efficiently and
effectively?
• A. Area manager
• B. Sales manager
• C. Functional manager
• D. Project manager

A

Functional manager

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69
Q

What is the major activity of the project support
office?
• A. Administrative support for projects
• B. Support for tools and techniques
• C. Overall project management support
• D. Project management via the internet

A

Administrative support for projects

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70
Q

What is the major activity of the project office?
• A. Administrative support for projects
• B. Support for tools and techniques
• C. Overall project management support
• D. Project management via internet

A

Overall project management support

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71
Q

What is an important tool for the design and
implementation of the project’s work content?
• A. Linear responsibility chart
• B. Gantt chart
• C. Life cycle model
• D. Project design chart

A

Linear responsibility chart

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72
Q

What chart summarizes the relationships between
project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each
project element?
• A. Linear responsibility chart
• B. Matrix responsibility chart
• C. Responsibility interface matrix
• D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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73
Q

What network model enables engineer managers
to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex
projects by using only one time factor per activity?
• A. Forecasting
• B. Critical path method
• C. Program evaluation review technique
• D. Simulation

A

Critical path method

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74
Q

What network model enables engineer managers
to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex
projects by employing three time estimate for each
activity?
• A. Forecasting
• B. Critical path method
• C. Program evaluation review technique
• D. Simulation

A

Program evaluation review technique

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75
Q

For a project manager to have an effective means
of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a
network technique. One of the network techniques is
commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands
for?
• A. Critical plan method
• B. Critical path method
• C. Critical project method
• D. Coordinated plan method

A

Critical path method

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76
Q

For a project manager to have an efficient means
of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a
network technique. One of the network techniques is
commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands
for?
• A. Project evaluation review technique
• B. Program evaluation review technique
• C. Path evaluation review technique
• D. Program execution review technique

A

Program evaluation review technique

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77
Q

What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network
as integral component of project management?
• A. They furnish a consistent framework for
planning, scheduling, monitoring and
controlling project.
• B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all
tasks
• C. They can be used to estimate the
expected project completion dares as well as
the probability that the project will be
completed by a specific date
• D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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78
Q

The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in
what year?
• A. 1957
• B. 1958
• C. 1959
• D. 1960

A

1957

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79
Q

In what year was PERT developed?
• A. 1957
• B. 1958
• C. 1959
• D. 1960

A

1958

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80
Q

In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into
how many stages to be performed in sequence?
• A. 3
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

A

4

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81
Q

What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project
using Morris model?
• A. Planning and design
• B. Feasibility
• C. Production
• D. Turnover and startup

A

Feasibility

82
Q

Risk management is:
• A. Risk avoidance
• B. Controlling risk
• C. To gain opportunities
• D. All of the above

A

Controlling risk

83
Q

What technique a manager must use if he decides
to absorb the risk in the project?
• A. Create buffer in the form of
managementcreserve or extra time in
schedule
• B. Use a different technology
• C. Use a different supplier
• D. Buying insurance

A

Create buffer in the form of
managementcreserve or extra time in
schedule

84
Q

Buying insurance is a form of:
• A. Risk elimination
• B. Risk reduction
• C. Risk sharing
• D. Risk absorption

A

Risk sharing

85
Q

What refers to any technique used either to
minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate
its consequences?
• A. Reliability management
• B. Risk management
• C. Quality assurance management
• D. Project assurance management

A

Risk management

86
Q

What refers to the techniques that encompass risk
assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs
and benefits of alternative projects or policies?
• A. Risk management
• B. Risk-benefit analysis
• C. Benefit management
• D. Uncertainty analysis

A

Risk-benefit analysis

87
Q

What is measured by the amount of resources
that a manager can allocate without the need to get
an approval from his or her manager?
• A. Responsibility
• B. Leadership
• C. Authority
• D. Tradeoff skill

A

Authority

88
Q

What is defined as a course of action aimed at
ensuring that the organization will achieve its
objectives?
• A. Goal
• B. Strategy
• C. Program
• D. Plan

A

Strategy

89
Q

When there is a degradation of service provided
by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer
manager in-charge:
• A. Lacks leadership skill
• B. Has inadequate control
• C. Has poor organization
• D. Has no proper planning

A

Has inadequate control

90
Q

What principal element of uncertainty refers to a
measure of the relevance of available information to
the problem at hand?
• A. Statistical confidence
• B. Tolerance
• C. Incompleteness of the data
• D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem

A

Tolerance

91
Q

One of the mnemonic management tool used is
the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands
for?
• A. Situation, Mission, Execution,
Administration, Coordination
• B. Situation, Mission, Execution, Application,
Communication
• C. Situation, Mission, Execution,
Administration, Communication
• D. Strategy, Mission, Execution,
Administration, Communication

A

Situation, Mission, Execution,
Administration, Communication

92
Q

In the management tools, SMEAC, where A
stands for administration, which is the appropriate
question will the manager ask?
• A. What do we need to get it done?
• B. What are we aiming to do?
• C. How are we going to do it?
• D. What is the operation environment?

A

What do we need to get it done?

93
Q

In project management, what is usually the first
step underlying in the process of performing a
project?
• A. Select appropriate performance measures
• B. Define the goals of the project and their
• relative importance
• C. Identify a need for a product or service
• D. Develop a technological concept

A

Identify a need for a product or service

94
Q

In the process of performing a project, after the
need for a product or service is identified, what is
usually the next step?
• A. Define the goals of the project and their
relative importance
• B. Develop a budget
• C. Develop a schedule
• D. Develop the technological concept

A

Define the goals of the project and their
relative importance

95
Q

What is usually the last step in the process of
performing a project?
• A. Select appropriate performance measures
• B. Implement a plan
• C. Monitor and control the project
• D. Evaluate project success

A

Monitor and control the project

96
Q

To consider the consequence of uncertainly on
project management, laws on project management
are developed. One of which is “A careless planned
project will take __________ times longer to complete
than expected”.
• A. Three
• B. Four
• C. Two
• D. Two and a half

A

Three

97
Q

In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the
chief engineer is under the __________.
• A. Finance manager
• B. Manufacturing manager
• C. General manager
• D. Marketing manager

A

General manager

98
Q

What is a diagram of the organization’s official
positions and formal lines of authority called?
• A. Organization chart
• B. Authority chart
• C. Policy chart
• D. Control chart

A

Organization chart

99
Q

What is defined as the process of identifying and
choosing alternative courses of action in a manner
appropriate to the demands of the situations?
• A. Sampling theory
• B. Alternative-analysis
• C. Problem-solving
• D. Decision-making

A

Decision-making

100
Q

What refers to the activity of incorporating the
technical know-how with the ability to organize and
coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all
other resources including money?
• A. Engineering management
• B. Engineering technology
• C. Technical manger
• D. General management

A

Engineering management

101
Q

Defined as the creative problem-solving process
of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling an
organization’s resources to achieve its mission and
objectives.
• A. Management
• B. Planning
• C. Organizing
• D. Supervision

A

Management

102
Q

Refers to the activity combining “technical
knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate
worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”
• A. Engineering Management
• B. Engineering Materials
• C. Engineering Organization
• D. Engineering Club

A

Engineering Management

103
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer
works as consultant of any individual or organization
requiring his services.
• A. Construction
• B. Sales
• C. Consulting
• D. Government

A

Consulting

104
Q

The following are considered as functions of an
engineer except
• A. Testing
• B. Construction
• C. Sales
• D. Physical Education

A

Physical Education

105
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is
engaged in the process of learning about nature and
codifying this knowledge into usable theories.
• A. Research
• B. Design and Development
• C. Testing
• D. Manufacturing

A

Research

106
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer
undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to
a finished physical term.
• A. Research
• B. Manufacturing
• C. Testing
• D. Design and Development

A

Design and Development

107
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer
works in a unit where new products or parts are tested
for workability.
• A. Research
• B. Design and Development
• C. Testing
• D. Manufacturing

A

Testing

108
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is
directly in charge of production personnel or assumes
responsibility for the product.
• A. Research
• B. Design and Development
• C. Testing
• D. Manufacturing

A

Manufacturing

109
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is
either directly in charge of the construction personnel
or may have responsibility for the quality of the
construction process.
• A. Construction
• B. Sales
• C. Consulting
• D. Government

A

Construction

110
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer
assists the company’s customers to meet their needs,
especially those that require technical expertise.
• A. Construction
• B. Government
• C. Consulting
• D. Sales

A

Sales

111
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer
may find employment in the government performing
any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and
controlling the activities of various institutions, public
or private.
• A. Construction
• B. Sales
• C. Government
• D. Consulting

A

Government

112
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer
gets employment in a school and is assigned as a
teacher of engineering courses.
• A. Teaching
• B. Government
• C. Management
• D. Consulting

A

Teaching

113
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is
assigned to manage groups of people performing
specific tasks.

• Teaching
• Government
• Management
• Consulting

A

Management

114
Q

Defined as the process of identifying and
choosing alternative courses of action in a manner
appropriate to the demands of the situation.
• A. Decision Making
• B. Engineering Management
• C. Initiative
• D. Problem solving

A

Decision Making

115
Q

The first step-in Decision-making process is to
• A. Analyze environment
• B. Diagnose problem
• C. Make a choice
• D. Articulate problem or opportunity

A

Diagnose problem

116
Q

The last step-in decision-making process is to
• A. Analyze environment
• B. Make a choice
• C. Diagnose problem
• D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

A

Evaluate and adapt decision results

117
Q

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using
intuition and subjective judgment.
• A. Quantitative evaluation
• B. Qualitative evaluation
• C. Relative evaluation
• D. Subjective evaluation

A

Qualitative evaluation

118
Q

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any
technique in a group classified as rational and
analytical.
• A. Quantitative evaluation
• B. Qualitative evaluation
• C. Relative evaluation
• D. Subjective evaluation

A

Quantitative evaluation

119
Q

Refers to the management function that involves
anticipating future trends and determining the best
strategies and tactics to achieve organizational
objectives.
• A. Management
• B. Planning
• C. Organizing
• D. Supervision

A

Planning

120
Q

Refers to the process of determining the major
goals of the organization and the policies and
strategies for obtaining and using resources to
achieve those goals.
• A. Operational Planning
• B. Intermediate Planning
• C. Strategic planning
• D. Secondary Planning

A

Strategic planning

121
Q

The top management of any firm is involved in
this type of planning.
• A. Operational Planning
• B. Intermediate Planning
• C. Strategic planning
• D. Secondary Planning

A

Strategic planning

122
Q

Refers to the process of determining the
contributions that subunits can make with allocated
resources.
• A. Operational Planning
• B. Intermediate Planning
• C. Strategic planning
• D. Secondary Planning

A

Intermediate Planning

123
Q

This type of planning is undertaken by middle
management.
• A. Operational Planning
• B. Intermediate Planning
• C. Strategic planning
• D. Secondary Planning

A

Intermediate Planning

124
Q

Refers to the process of determining how
specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with
available resources.
• A. Operational Planning
• B. Intermediate Planning
• C. Strategic planning
• D. Secondary Planning

A

Operational Planning

125
Q

This type of planning is a responsibility of lower
management.
• A. Operational Planning
• B. Intermediate Planning
• C. Strategic planning
• D. Secondary Planning

A

Operational Planning

126
Q

This is the written document or blueprint for
implementing and controlling an organization’s
marketing activities related to particular marketing
strategy.
• A. Marketing Plan
• B. Financial Plan
• C. Production Plan
• D. Short-range plans

A

Marketing Plan

127
Q

This is a written document that states the
quantity of output a company must produce in broad
terms and by product family.
• A. Marketing Plan
• B. Financial Plan
• C. Production Plan
• D. Short-range plans

A

Production Plan

128
Q

It is a document that summarizes the current
financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial
needs, and recommends a direction for financial
activities.
• A. Marketing Plan
• B. Financial Plan
• C. Production Plan
• D. Short-range plans

A

Financial Plan

129
Q

It is a document that indicates the human
resource needs of a company detailed in terms of
quantity and quality and based on the requirements
of the company’s strategic plan.
• A. Marketing Plan
• B. Financial Plan
• C. Production Plan
• D. Human Resource Management Plan

A

Human Resource Management Plan

130
Q

These are plans intended to cover a period of
less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly
concerned with these planes.
• A. Short-range plans
• B. Long-range plans
• C. Standing Plans
• D. Single-Use Plans

A

Short-range plans

131
Q

These are plans covering a time span of more
than one year. These are mostly undertaken by
middle and top management.
• A. Short-range plans
• B. Long-range plans
• C. Standing Plans
• D. Single-Use Plans

A

Long-range plans

132
Q

Plans that are used again and again and they
focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.
• A. Short-range plans
• B. Long-range plans
• C. Standing Plans
• D. Single-Use Plans

A

Standing Plans

133
Q

These are broad guidelines to aid managers at
every level in making decisions about recurring
situations or function.
• A. Policies
• B. Procedures
• C. Guidelines
• D. Rules

A

Policies

134
Q

These are plans that describe the exact series of
actions to be taken in a given situation.
• A. Policies
• B. Procedures
• C. Guidelines
• D. Rules

A

Procedures

135
Q

These are statements that either require or forbid
a certain action.
• A. Policies
• B. Procedures
• C. Guidelines
• D. Rules

A

Rules

136
Q

Specifically developed to implement courses of
action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be
repeated.
• A. Short-range plans
• B. Long-range plans
• C. Standing Plans
• D. Single-Use Plans

A

Single-Use Plans

137
Q

A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure
for a certain activity and explains where the required
funds will come from.
• A. Project
• B. Budget
• C. Program
• D. Financial Statement

A

Budget

138
Q

A plan designed to coordinate a large set of
activities.
• A. Project
• B. Budget
• C. Program
• D. Financial Statement

A

Program

139
Q

A plan that is usually more limited in scope than
a program and is sometimes prepared to support a
program.
• A. Project
• B. Budget
• C. Program
• D. Financial Statement

A

Project

140
Q

A management function which refers to the
structuring of resources and activities to accomplish
objectives in an efficient and effective manner.
• A. Organizing
• B. Planning
• C. Supervising
• D. Structure

A

Organizing

141
Q

The arrangement or relationship of positions
within an organization.
• A. Organizing
• B. Planning
• C. Supervising
• D. Structure

A

Structure

142
Q

This is a form of departmentalization in which
everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as
engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.
• A. Functional Organization
• B. Product or Market Organization
• C. Matrix Organization
• D. Divisible Organization

A

Functional Organization

143
Q

This type of organization is very effective in
similar firms especially “single business firms where
key activities revolve around well-defined skills and
areas of specialization”.
• A. Functional Organization
• B. Product or Market Organization
• C. Matrix Organization
• D. Divisible Organization

A

Functional Organization

144
Q

This refers to the organization of a company by
a division that brings together all those involved with
a certain type of product or customer.
• A. Functional Organization
• B. Product or Market Organization
• C. Matrix Organization
• D. Divisible Organization

A

Product or Market Organization

145
Q

This is appropriate for a large corporation with
many product lines in several related industries.
• A. Functional Organization
• B. Product or Market Organization
• C. Matrix Organization
• D. Divisible Organization

A

Product or Market Organization

146
Q

An organizational structure in which each
employee reports both a functional or division
manager and to a project or group manager.
• A. Functional Organization
• B. Product or Market Organization
• C. Matrix Organization
• D. Divisible Organization

A

Matrix Organization

147
Q

Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates
what to do and then see that they do it.
• A. Line authority
• B. Staff authority
• C. Functional authority
• D. Head authority

A

Line authority

148
Q

A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a
superior.
• A. Line authority
• B. Staff authority
• C. Functional authority
• D. Head authority

A

Staff authority

149
Q

A specialist’s right to oversee lower-level
personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of
where the personnel are in the organization.
• A. Line authority
• B. Staff authority
• C. Functional authority
• D. Head authority

A

Functional authority

150
Q

A committee created for a short-term purpose
and have a limited life.
• A. Ad hoc committee
• B. Standing committee
• C. Sinking committee
• D. Midget committee

A

Ad hoc committee

151
Q

A permanent committee that deals with issues on
an ongoing basis.
• A. Ad hoc committee
• B. Standing committee
• C. Sinking committee
• D. Midget committee

A

Standing committee

152
Q

Defined as the management function that
determines human resource needs, recruits, selects,
trains, and develops human resources for jobs
created by an organization.
• A. Resourcing
• B. Recruitment
• C. Hiring
• D. Staffing

A

Staffing

153
Q

An assessment of future human resource needs
in relation to the current capabilities of the
organization.
• A. Forecasting
• B. Control
• C. Programming
• D. Recruitment

A

Forecasting

154
Q

Refers to translation of the forecasted human
resource needs to personnel objectives and goals.
• A. Forecasting
• B. Control
• C. Programming
• D. Recruitment

A

Programming

155
Q

This refers to monitoring human resource action
plans and evaluating their success.
• A. Forecasting
• B. Evaluation and Control
• C. Programming
• D. Recruitment

A

Evaluation and Control

156
Q

Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for
vacant positions in the company so that those who
are best suited to serve the company may be
selected.
• A. Forecasting
• B. Evaluation and Control
• C. Programming
• D. Recruitment

A

Recruitment

157
Q

Refers to the act of choosing from those that are
available than individuals most likely to succeed on
the job.
• A. Forecasting
• B. Evaluation and Control
• C. Selection
• D. Training

A

Selection

158
Q

In this staffing procedure, the new employee is
provided with the necessary information about the
company and will be introduced to the immediate
working environment and co-workers.
• A. Performance Appraisal
• B. Induction and Orientation
• C. Training and Development
• D. Monetary Rewards

A

Induction and Orientation

159
Q

Refers to the learning that is provided in order to
improve performance on the present job.
• A. Performance Appraisal
• B. Induction and Orientation
• C. Training and Development
• D. Monetary Rewards

A

Training and Development

160
Q

Refers to a movement by a person into a position
of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which
is given as a reward for competence and ambition.
• A. Monetary reward
• B. Promotion
• C. Demotion
• D. Transfer

A

Promotion

161
Q

The movement of a person to a different job at
the same or similar level of responsibility in the
organization.
• A. Monetary reward
• B. Promotion
• C. Demotion
• D. Transfer

A

Transfer

162
Q

The movement from one position to another
which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is
used as a form of punishment or as a temporary
measure to keep an employee until he is offered a
higher position.
• A. Separation
• B. Promotion
• C. Demotion
• D. Transfer

A

Demotion

163
Q

Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of
an employee.
• A. Separation
• B. Transfer
• C. Termination
• D. Demotion

A

Separation

164
Q

A process of sharing information through
symbols, including words and message.
• A. Counseling
• B. Communication
• C. Hypnotism
• D. Language

A

Communication

165
Q

Function of communication that can be used for
decision-making at various work levels in the
organization.
• A. Information Function
• B. Emotive Function
• C. Motivation Function
• D. Control Function

A

Information Function

166
Q

A function of communication used as a means to
motivate employees to commit themselves to the
organizations objectives.
• A. Information Function
• B. Emotive Function
• C. Motivation Function
• D. Control Function

A

Motivation Function

167
Q

Function of communication that deals when
feelings are repressed in the organization, employees
are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects
performance.
• A. Information Function
• B. Emotive Function
• C. Motivation Function
• D. Control Function

A

Emotive Function

168
Q

A form of communication transmitted through
hearing or sight.
• A. Verbal
• B. Oral
• C. Written
• D. Nonverbal

A

Verbal

169
Q

A means of conveying message through body
language, as well as the use of time, space, touch,
clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.
• A. Verbal
• B. Oral
• C. Written
• D. Nonverbal

A

Nonverbal

170
Q

Refers to the process of activating behavior,
sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.
• A. Suppression
• B. Motivation
• C. Praising
• D. Unification

A

Motivation

171
Q

The following are considered as factors
contributing to motivation except:
• A. Willingness to do a job
• B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
• C. Needs satisfaction
• D. Inferiority complex

A

Inferiority complex

172
Q

The following are considered theories of
Motivation except:
• A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory
• B. Expectancy Theory
• C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
• D. Gagarin’s Theory

A

Gagarin’s Theory

173
Q

It is a management function which involves
influencing others to engage in the work behaviors
necessary to reach organizational goals.
• A. Sales talk
• B. Motivation
• C. Leading
• D. Commanding

A

Leading

174
Q

A person who occupies a higher position has
power over persons in lower positions within the
organization. This describes:
• A. Legitimate power
• B. Referent power
• C. Coercive power
• D. Reward power

A

Legitimate power

175
Q

When a person has the ability to give rewards to
anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as:
• A. Legitimate power
• B. Referent power
• C. Coercive power
• D. Reward power

A

Reward power

176
Q

When a person compels with orders through
treats or punishment.
• A. Legitimate power
• B. Referent power
• C. Coercive power
• D. Reward power

A

Coercive power

177
Q

When a person can get compliance from another
because the latter would want to be identified with the
former.
• A. Legitimate power
• B. Referent power
• C. Coercive power
• D. Reward power

A

Referent power

178
Q

Which of the following is not a trait of an effective
leader:
• A. A high level of personal drive
• B. Knowledge of the company, industry or
technology
• C. Charisma
• D. Greedy

A

Greedy

179
Q

Refers to the process of ascertaining whether
organizational objectives have been achieved and
determining what activities should then be taken to
achieve objectives better in the future.
• A. Planning
• B. Controlling
• C. Evaluation
• D. Inspection

A

Inspection

180
Q

A type of controlling when the management
anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence.
• A. Feed forward control
• B. Preventive control
• C. Concurrent control
• D. Feedback control

A

Feed forward control

181
Q

A type of controlling when the operations are
already ongoing and activities to detect variances are
made.
• A. Feed forward control
• B. Preventive control
• C. Concurrent control
• D. Feedback control

A

Concurrent control

182
Q

A type of controlling when information is
gathered about a completed activity, and in order that
evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.
• A. Feed forward control
• B. Preventive control
• C. Concurrent control
• D. Feedback control

A

Feedback control

183
Q

Refers to any process that accepts inputs and
uses resources to change those inputs in useful
ways.
• A. Operation
• B. Production
• C. Construction
• D. Creation

A

Operation

184
Q

The process of planning, organizing, and
controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently
and effectively.
• A. Planning
• B. Operations management
• C. Evaluation management
• D. Backboning

A

Operations management

185
Q

A process of creating a set of product
specifications appropriate to the demands of the
situation.
• A. Product Design
• B. Blueprinting
• C. Product planning
• D. Conceptualizing

A

Product Design

186
Q

Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given
product, translating this forecast into the demand it
generates for various production facilities, and
arranging for the procurement of these facilities.
• A. Product Design
• B. Blueprinting
• C. Product planning
• D. Conceptualizing

A

Product planning

187
Q

The phase of production control involved in
developing timetables that specify how long each
operation in the production process takes.
• A. Plotting
• B. Scheduling
• C. Timetable
• D. Anticipating

A

Scheduling

188
Q

Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of
operation through integration of all material
acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the
firm.
• A. Work
• B. Quality Control
• C. Inventory Control
• D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

Purchasing and Materials Management

189
Q

The process of establishing and maintaining
appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.
• A. Work-Flow Layout
• B. Quality Control
• C. Inventory Control
• D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

Inventory Control

190
Q

The process of determining the physical
arrangement of the production system.
• A. Work-Flow Layout
• B. Quality Control
• C. Inventory Control
• D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

Work-Flow Layout

191
Q

Refers to the measurement of products or
services against standards set by the company.
• A. Work-Flow Layout
• B. Quality Control
• C. Inventory Control
• D. Purchasing and Materials Management

A

Quality Control

192
Q

A group of activities designed to facilitate and
expedite the selling of goods and services.
• A. Advertisement
• B. Commercial
• C. Marketing
• D. Sales

A

Marketing

193
Q

The four P’s of marketing are the following
except:
• A. Product
• B. Price
• C. Promotion
• D. Publicity

A

Publicity

194
Q

It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and
its capacity to satisfy a specified need.
• A. Product
• B. Price
• C. Promotion
• D. Place

A

Product

195
Q

Refers to the money or other considerations
exchanged for the purchase or use of the product,
idea, or service.
• A. Product
• B. Price
• C. Promotion
• D. Place

A

Price

196
Q

An important factor for a company to locate in
places where they can be easily reached by their
customers.
• A. Product
• B. Price
• C. Promotion
• D. Place

A

Place

197
Q

Defined as communicating information between
seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and
behavior.
• A. Product
• B. Price
• C. Promotion
• D. Place

A

Promotion

198
Q

A type of promotion where a paid message
appears in mass media for the purpose of informing
or persuading people about particular products,
services, beliefs, or action.
• A. Advertising
• B. Publicity
• C. Sales promotion
• D. Personal selling

A

Advertising

199
Q

The promotional tool that publishes news or
information about a product, service, or idea on behalf
of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.
• A. Advertising
• B. Publicity
• C. Sales promotion
• D. Personal selling

A

Publicity

200
Q

A more aggressive means of promoting the sales
of a product or service.
• A. Advertising
• B. Publicity
• C. Sales promotion
• D. Personal selling

A

Personal selling

Day 3 (3 decks)

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