Engine, APU Flashcards
1) 757/763: There are two engine idle speeds: minimum and approach idle. One way approach idle is activated automatically is when:
a) Trailing edge flaps are extended beyond position 20
b) Glideslope capture
c) Continuous ignition is selected to ON
d) Both throttles at idle and speed brakes are deployed
a) Trailing edge flaps are extended beyond position 20
2) 757/763: Approach idle provides better engine acceleration for go-around or reverse thrust. After a ___ second delay following touchdown, the engines decelerate to minimum idle to minimize landing distance.
a) 3
b) 8
c) 5
d) 10
c) 5
3) 763: When the engine is operating, the electronic engine control (EEC) unit is powered by:
a) Standby AC and DC busses
b) A dedicated permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
c) Left main AC bus
d) Hot battery bus
b) A dedicated permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
4) 757: Each electronic engine control (EEC) unit is powered by:
a) Dual dedicated generators (DDG)
b) Standby AC and DC busses
c) Left main AC bus
d) Hot battery bus
a) Dual dedicated generators (DDG)
5) 764: Anytime the engine is running, the electronic engine control (EEC) unit is powered by:
a) Permanent magnet generator (PMG)
b) Standby AC and DC busses
c) Left main AC bus
d) Hot battery bus
a) Permanent magnet generator (PMG)
6) 763: If both channels in an electronic engine control (EEC) fail, the associated engine will:
a) Revert to its backup system, hydro-mechanical operation
b) Maintain above idle speed
c) Decelerate to and remain at minimum fuel flow
d) Maintain its current speed until the associated EEC switch is placed in the OFF position
c) Decelerate to and remain at minimum fuel flow
7) 757/763: How can continuous ignition and approach idle be selected without using the engine anti-ice switches?
a) By placing the wing anti-ice switch to ON
b) By selecting flap position 1, 5 or 15
c) By performing a normal approach
d) Both cannot be selected unless the engine anti-ice switches are selected on
c) By performing a normal approach
8) 757: The thrust system consists of a hydromechanical engine fuel control with an electronic engine control (EEC) unit. Is any overspeed protection provided for the N2 rotor?
a) The N2 rotor has protection but only during reversing operations
b) There is no N2 overspeed protection
c) There is protection for the N2 rotor provided the EEC is operating normally
d) There is always N2 overspeed protection during all phases of engine operation
b) There is no N2 overspeed protection
9) 764: If both channels in an electronic engine control (EEC) fail, the associated engine:
a) Reverts to hydro-mechanical operation
b) Reverts to the N2 control mode
c) Decelerates to and remains at minimum fuel flow
d) Performs an automatically controlled engine shutdown
d) Performs an automatically controlled engine shutdown
10) 767: According to the graphic, the left electronic engine control alternate mode (ALTN) switch light has illuminated. This indicates:
a) Automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode
b) Reverse thrust has no overspeed protection
c) Maximum thrust red-line protection is no longer available
d) The EEC can no longer control engine speed and decelerates to and remains at minimum fuel flow
a) Automatic reversion or manual selection to the alternate mode
11) 757/763: What does the amber REV light displayed above each EPR indication indicate?
a) The reverser is fully retracted
b) The reverser is fully deployed
c) The reverser is in transit
d) A fault is detected in the reverser
c) The reverser is in transit
12) 757: The thrust control system includes an electronic limiter control (ELC) unit. What is its primary purpose?
a) N2 overspeed protection
b) N3 overspeed protection
c) N1 overspeed protection
d) EPR overboost protection
c) N1 overspeed protection
13) 757: The thrust system consists of a hydromechanical engine fuel control with an electronic engine control (EEC) unit. The EEC sets thrust by controlling:
a) N1 based on thrust lever position
b) N2 based on thrust lever position
c) EPR based on thrust lever position
d) N3 based on thrust lever position
c) EPR based on thrust lever position
14) 757/763: The thrust management computer (TMC) calculates a reference _____ based on existing pressure altitudes and ambient temperature data from the air data system.
a) N3
b) N2
c) N1
d) EPR
d) EPR
15) 757: The FUEL CONTROL switches have three positions: RUN, RICH, and CUTOFF. When should the RICH position be used during engine start?
a) EGT 0°
b) EGT > 0°
c) After an aborted engine start
d) EGT < 0°
a) EGT 0°
16) 757/767 When does the ENG START selector automatically move from the GND position to the AUTO position during engine start?
a) At approximately 51%
b) At approximately 50%
c) At approximately 46%
d) At approximately 45%
b) At approximately 50%
17) 757/767: Minimum idle is a lower thrust than approach idle and is selected:
a) When continuous ignition is selected ON
b) When the leading edge slats are extended
c) During ground operation and all phases of flight except approach and landing
d) When the engine anti-ice switches are positioned to OFF
c) During ground operation and all phases of flight except approach and landing
18) 757/763: When the standby engine indicator (SEI) selector is _________ and both CRTs fail, engine indications will be displayed automatically.
a) Positioned to OFF
b) Positioned to AUTO or OFF
c) Positioned to AUTO
d) In any position as long as AC power is still available
c) Positioned to AUTO
19) 757/767: With the FUEL CONTROL switch out of CUTOFF, rotating the ENGINE START selector to the FLT position:
a) Causes selected ignition system for the associated engine to operate continuously
b) Causes an auto relight to be initiated automatically
c) Bypasses the ignition selector and causes both ignition systems to operate continuously
d) Bypasses the ignition selector and causes both ignition systems to operate continuously for 120 seconds
c) Bypasses the ignition selector and causes both ignition systems to operate continuously
20) 757/767: During APU shutdown, the APU control system incorporates a time-delay feature. The time delay is variable from 0 to 120 seconds. Why is this feature incorporated?
a) To prevent AC electrical surges
b) To prevent rapid bleed air depressurization
c) To protect the unit from thermal shock
d) To allow time for the APU to position the variable guide vanes
c) To protect the unit from thermal shock
21) 757/767: According to the graphic, the APU FAULT light is illuminated. The light illuminates whenever a fault is sensed. In this situation, the APU will:
a) Automatically shut down
b) Shut down only after placing the selector to OFF and the time-delay feature is satisfied
c) Continue to run if the fault was sensed while airborne
d) Continue to run if the fault was detected on the ground
a) Automatically shut down
22) 757/767: During APU start and shutdown, the FAULT light illuminates momentarily. What causes its illumination?
a) The APU fuel valve is not in the commanded position
b) The APU DC fuel pump has failed
c) The APU battery voltage has dropped below a preset value
d) The APU control circuitry is starting up or shutting down
a) The APU fuel valve is not in the commanded position
23) 757/767: During normal operations, APU shutdown incorporates a time-delay feature permitting APU cooling. When is the APU shut down automatically and the cool-down delay bypassed?
a) When AC power is unavailable, and the APU DC fuel pump fails
b) When the left forward fuel pump is selected off
c) For a fault or a fire
d) When one or both of the APU fire loops fail
c) For a fault or a fire
24) 757/767: Although the primary purpose of the APU is to supply electrical power and bleed air on the ground before engine start, the APU can also be started inflight, and provide electrical power:
a) Throughout the aircraft operating envelope
b) Up to 17,000 feet
c) Up to 35,000 feet
d) Up to 41,000 feet
a) Throughout the aircraft operating envelope