Eng Man Flashcards

1
Q

Management is

A

An art

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2
Q

Engineering is:

A

A science

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3
Q

Engineers can become good managers only
through ____

A

Effective career planning

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4
Q

If you are an engineer wanting to become a
manager, what will you do?

A

(ALL)
A. Develop new talents
B. Acquire new values
C. Broaden your point of view

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5
Q

When engineer enters management, what is the
most likely problem he finds difficult to acquire?

A

[ALL]

  • A. Learning to trust others
  • B. Learning how to work through others
  • C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the
    work of others
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6
Q

What management functions refers to the process
of anticipating problems, analyzing them, estimating
their likely impact and determining actions that will
lead to the desired outcomes and goals?

A

Planning

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7
Q

What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such a way that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving the goal of the company?

A

Organizing

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8
Q

What management function involves selecting
candidates and training personnel?

A

Staffing

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9
Q

What management function involves orienting
personnel in the most effective way and channeling
resources?

A

Directing

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10
Q

Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to what management function?

A

Controlling

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11
Q

What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?

A

Leading

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12
Q

What refers to a principal function of lower
management which is to instill in the workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of
the organization?

A

Motivating

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13
Q

1.

What refers to the collection of the tools and
techniques that are used on a predefined set of inputs
to produce a predefined set of outputs?

A

Project Management

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14
Q

Which is NOT an element of project management
process?

A

Research and development

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15
Q

element of project management
process?

A
  • A. Data and information
  • C. Decision making
  • D. Implementation and action
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16
Q

What is the most essential attribute of a project
manager?

A

Leadership

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17
Q

In project management, what provides a simple yet effective means of monitoring and controlling a project at each stage of its development?

A

Life cycle model

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18
Q

What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project?

A

Waterfall model

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19
Q

In project management, “R & D” stands for:

A

Research and Development

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20
Q

In project management O & M stands for:

A

Operation and Maintenance

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21
Q

A project management must be very good in
which of the following skills?

A
  • A. Communication skills
  • B. Human relationship skills
  • C. Leadership skills

[ALL]

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22
Q

Project integration management involves which of the following processes?

A

Quality planning

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23
Q

Project quality management involves all of the following processes except:

A

Quality feature

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24
Q

What is defined as an organized method of
providing past, present, and projected information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision making?

A

Management Information System

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25
Q

Middle management level undertakes what
planning activity?

A

Intermediate plannin

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26
Q

Strategic planning is undertaken in which
management level?

A

Top management level

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27
Q

What is the advantage of free-rein style of
leadership?

A

Little managerial control and high
degree of risk

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28
Q

If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to

A

Set goals

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29
Q

What is defined as the process of planning,
organizing, and controlling operations to reach objective efficiently and effectively?

A

Operations Management

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30
Q

Project quality management involves all of the
following processes

A
  • A. Quality planning
  • B. Quality assurance
  • C. Quality Control
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31
Q

For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he must have a good
__________.

A

Interpersonal skills

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32
Q

What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues of territorial power or hidden agenda?

A

Politics

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33
Q

The process of partitioning an organization into subunits to improve efficiency is known as
__________.

A

Departmentalization

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34
Q

By departmentalization of an organization, it
decentralizes __________?

A
  • A. Authority
  • B. Responsibility
  • C. Accountability
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35
Q

What type of committee companies or
corporations created for a short-term purpose only?

A

Ad hoc committee

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36
Q

What refers to a description of whether the
objectives are accomplished?

A

Effectiveness

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37
Q

An engineering is required to finish a certain
engineering job in 20 days. He is said to be
__________ if he finished the job within the required
period of 20 days

A

Effective

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38
Q

If an engineer provides less input (labor and
materials) to his project and still come out with the
same output, he is said to be more __________.

A

Efficient

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39
Q

To determine a qualified applicant, the engineer
manager will subject the applicant to a test that is
used to measure a person’s current knowledge of a
subject?

A

Performance test

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40
Q

What type of training is a combination of on-the
job training and experience with classroom instruction
in particular subject?

A

Apprenticeship program

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41
Q

What type of authority refers to a specialist’s right
to oversee lower-level personnel involved in the
project regardless of the personnel’s assignment in
the organization?

A

Functional authority

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42
Q

When a consultant or specialist gives advice to his
superior, he is using what type of authority?

A

Staff authority

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43
Q

When structuring an organization, the engineer
manager must be concerned with the determining the
scope of words and how it is combined in a job. This
refers to __________.

A

Division of labor

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44
Q

When structuring an organization, the engineer must be concerned with the grouping of related jobs, activities, or processes into major organizational subunits. This refers to:

A

Departmentation

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45
Q

Which technique will the manager use when
evaluating alternative using qualitative evaluation?

A

Intuition and subjective judgment

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46
Q

Which technique will the manager use when
evaluating alternative using quantitative evaluation?

A

Rational and analytical techniques

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47
Q

What refers to the strategic statement that
identifies why an organization exists, its philosophy of
management, and its purpose as distinguished from
other similar organizations in terms of products,
services and markets?

A

Corporate mission

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48
Q

What refers to a process of influencing and
supporting others to work enthusiastically toward achieving objectives?

A

Power

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49
Q

What describes how to determine the number of service units that will minimize both customer’s waiting time and cost of service?

A

Queuing theory

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50
Q

What refers to the rational way to conceptualize, analyze and solve problems in situations involving limited or partial information about the decision
environment?

A

Decision theory

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51
Q

What is quantitative technique where samples of populations are statistically determined to be used for a number of processes, such as quality control and
marketing research?

A

Sampling theory

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52
Q

The engineer manager must be concern with the needs of his human resources. What refers to the need of the employees for food, drinks, and rest?

A

Physiological need

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53
Q

What refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job?

A

A. Training

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54
Q

What technique is best suited for projects that contain many repetitions of some standard activities?

A

Benchmark job technique

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55
Q

What organizational structure is based on the assumption that each unit should specialize in a specific functional area and perform all of the tasks that require its expertise?

A

Functional organization

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56
Q

What type of organization structure in which each project is assigned to a single organizational unit and the various functions are performed by personnel within the unit?

A

Product organization

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57
Q

What organizational structure provides a sound basis for balancing the use of human resources and skills?

A

Matrix organization

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58
Q

In which type of organization where the structure can lead to a “dual boss” phenomenon?

A

Matrix organization

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59
Q

Which one is an advantage of a matrix
organization?

A

Rapid reaction organization

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60
Q

Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix
organization?

A

Inefficient use of specialist

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61
Q

Which one is an advantage projectized
organization?

A

Efficient use of technical personnel

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62
Q

Which one is a disadvantage of a projectized
organization?

A

Slower work flow

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63
Q

Which one is an advantage of a functional
organization?

A

Rapid reaction time possible

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64
Q

Which one is disadvantage of a functional
organization?

A

Inefficient use of specialist

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65
Q

In what type of organization where a project
manager is held responsible for completion of the project and is often assigned a budget?

A

Matrix organization

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66
Q

In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is not a criterion?

A

Location

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67
Q

In selecting an organizational structure, which of the following is a criterion?

A
  • A. Finance and accounting
  • B. Customer relation
  • D. Technology
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68
Q

What is NOT a factor to be taken into
consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?

A

Location of the projec

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69
Q

What is a factor to be taken into
consideration when selecting an organizational structure for managing projects?

A
  • A. Overhead cost
  • B. Type of technology used
  • D. Level of uncertainty in projects
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70
Q

If a project have multidimensional goals, the
project manager often use his __________ to reach a compromise solution.

A

Tradeoff analysis skill

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71
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that the project is completed successfully as measured by time, cost, performance and stakeholder satisfaction?

A

Project manager

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72
Q

Who is responsible for running a department so that all his customers are served efficiently and effectively?

A

Functional manager

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73
Q

What is the major activity of the project support
office?

A

Administrative support for projects

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74
Q

What is the major activity of the project office?

A

Overall project management support

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75
Q

What is an important tool for the design and
implementation of the project’s work content?

A

Linear responsibility chart

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76
Q

What chart summarizes the relationships between project stakeholders and their responsibilities in each
project element?

A

[ALL]
* A. Linear responsibility chart
* B. Matrix responsibility chart
* C. Responsibility interface matrix

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77
Q

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex projects by using only one time factor per activity?

A

Critical path method

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78
Q

What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor, and control large and complex rojects by employing three time estimate for each ctivity?

A

Program evaluation review technique

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79
Q

For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is
commonly known as CPM. What does CPM stands for?

A

Critical path method

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80
Q

For a project manager to have an efficient means of identifying and communicating the planned activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques is
commonly known as PERT. What does Pert stands for?

A

Program evaluation review technique

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81
Q

What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management?

A

[ALL]
* A. They furnish a consistent framework for
planning, scheduling, monitoring and
controlling project.
* B. They illustrate the interdependencies of all
tasks
* C. They can be used to estimate the
expected project completion dares as well as
the probability that the project will be
completed by a specific date

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82
Q

The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in
what year?

A

1957

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83
Q

In what year was PERT developed?

A

1958

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84
Q

In Morris life cycle model, a project is divided into how many stages to be performed in sequence?

85
Q

What is the first stage in the life cycle of a project using Morris model?

A

Feasibility

86
Q

Risk management is:

A

Controlling risk

87
Q

What technique a manager must use if he decides to absorb the risk in the project?

A

Create buffer in the form of
management creserve or extra time in
schedule

88
Q

Buying insurance is a form of:

A

Risk sharing

89
Q

What refers to any technique used either to
minimize the probability of an accident or to mitigate its consequences?

A

Risk management

90
Q

What refers to the techniques that encompass risk assignment and the inclusive evaluation of risk, costs and benefits of alternative projects or policies?

A

Risk-benefit analysis

91
Q

What is measured by the amount of resources that a manager can allocate without the need to get an approval from his or her manager

92
Q

What is defined as a course of action aimed at ensuring that the organization will achieve its objectives?

93
Q

When there is a degradation of service provided by the company to clients, it is a sign that the engineer manager in-charge:

A

Has inadequate control

94
Q

What principal element of uncertainty refers to a measure of the relevance of available information to the problem at hand?

95
Q

One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym SMEAC stands for?

A

Situation, Mission, Execution,
Administration, Communication

96
Q

In the management tools, SMEAC, where A
stands for administration, which is the appropriate question will the manager ask?

A

What do we need to get it done?

97
Q

In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of performing a project?

A

Identify a need for a product or service

98
Q

In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is identified, what is usually the next step?

A

Define the goals of the project and their
relative importance

99
Q

What is usually the last step in the process of
performing a project?

A

Monitor and control the project

100
Q

To consider the consequence of uncertainly on project management, laws on project management are developed. One of which is “A careless planned project will take __________ times longer to complete
than expected”.

101
Q

In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the ___

A

General manager

102
Q

What is a diagram of the organization’s official positions and formal lines of authority called?

A

Organization chart

103
Q

What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?

A

Decision-making

104
Q

What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know-how with the ability to organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources including money?

A

Engineering management

105
Q

Defined as the creative problem-solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and controlling anorganization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A

Management

106
Q

Refers to the activity combining “technical
knowledge with the ability to organize and coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”

A

Engineering Management

107
Q

The following are considered as functions of an
engineer except

A

Physical Education

108
Q

The following are considered as functions of an
engineer

A
  • A. Testing
  • B. Construction
  • C. Sales
109
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

110
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product concept to a finished physical term.

A

Design and Development

111
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts are tested for workability

112
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A

Manufacturing

113
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the
construction process.

A

Construction

114
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

115
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or organization requiring his services.

A

Consulting

116
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and
controlling the activities of various institutions, public or private.

A

Government

117
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

118
Q

A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people performing specific tasks

A

Management

119
Q

Defined as the process of identifying and
choosing alternative courses of action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A

Decision Making

120
Q

The first step-in Decision-making process is to

A

Diagnose problem

121
Q

The last step-in decision-making process is to

A

Evaluate and adapt decision results

122
Q

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using
intuition and subjective judgment.

A

Qualitative evaluation

123
Q

Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any
technique in a group classified as rational and analytical

A

Quantitative evaluation

124
Q

Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives

125
Q

Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A

Strategic planning

126
Q

The top management of any firm is involved in
this type of planning.

A

Strategic planning

127
Q

Refers to the process of determining the
contributions that subunits can make with allocated resources.

A

Intermediate Planning

128
Q

This type of planning is undertaken by middle
management.

A

Intermediate Planning

129
Q

Refers to the process of determining how
specific tasks can best be accomplished on time with available resources.

A

Operational Planning

130
Q

This type of planning is a responsibility of lower
management.

A

Operational Planning

131
Q

This is the written document or blueprint for
implementing and controlling an organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A

Marketing Plan

132
Q

This is a written document that states the
quantity of output a company must produce in broad terms and by product family.

A

Production Plan

133
Q

It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A

Financial Plan

134
Q

It is a document that indicates the human
resource needs of a company detailed in terms of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan

A

Human Resource Management Plan

135
Q

These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are mostly concerned with these planes.

A

Short-range plans

136
Q

These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken by middle and top management.

A

Long-range plans

137
Q

Plans that are used again and again and they
focus on managerial situations that recur repeatedly.

A

Standing Plans

138
Q

These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about recurring situations or function.

139
Q

These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A

Procedures

140
Q

These are statements that either require or forbid
a certain action

141
Q

Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are unlikely to be repeated.

A

Single-Use Plans

142
Q

A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains where the required funds will come from.

143
Q

A plan designed to coordinate a large set of
activities

144
Q

A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to support a program.

145
Q

A management function which refers to the
structuring of resources and activities to accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.

A

Organizing

146
Q

The arrangement or relationship of positions
within an organization.

147
Q

This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A

Functional Organization

148
Q

This type of organization is very effective in
similar firms especially “single business firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.

A

Functional Organization

149
Q

This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those involved with
a certain type of product or customer.

A

Product or Market Organization

150
Q

This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related industries.

A

Product or Market Organization

151
Q

An organizational structure in which each
employee reports both a functional or division manager and to a project or group manager.

A

Matrix Organization

152
Q

Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A

Line authority

153
Q

A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A

Staff authority

154
Q

A specialist’s right to oversee lower-level
personnel involved in that specialty, regardless of where the personnel are in the organization.

A

Functional authority

155
Q

A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A

Ad hoc committee

156
Q

A permanent committee that deals with issues on
an ongoing basis.

A

Standing committee

157
Q

Defined as the management function that
determines human resource needs, recruits, selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.

158
Q

An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of the organization.

A

Forecasting

159
Q

Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and goals.

A

Programming

160
Q

This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A

Evaluation and Control

161
Q

Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A

Recruitment

162
Q

Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to succeed on the job.

163
Q

In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-workers.

A

Induction and Orientation

164
Q

Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present job.

A

Training and Development

165
Q

Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

166
Q

The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility in the organization.

167
Q

The movement from one position to another
which has less pay or responsibility attached to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee until he is offered a higher position.

168
Q

Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of
an employee.

A

Separation

169
Q

A process of sharing information through
symbols, including words and message.

A

Communication

170
Q

Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels in the organization.

A

Information Function

171
Q

A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit themselves to the organizations objectives.

A

Motivation Function

172
Q

Function of communication that deals when
feelings are repressed in the organization, employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A

Emotive Function

173
Q

A form of communication transmitted through
hearing or sight.

174
Q

A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space, touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

175
Q

Refers to the process of activating behavior,
sustaining it, and directing it toward a particular goal.

A

Motivation

176
Q

The following are considered as factors
contributing to motivation except:

A

Inferiority complex

177
Q

The following are considered as factors
contributing to motivation

A
  • A. Willingness to do a job
  • B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
  • C. Needs satisfaction
178
Q

The following are considered theories of
Motivation except:

A

Gagarin’s Theory

179
Q

It is a management function which involves
influencing others to engage in the work behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.

180
Q

The following are considered theories of
Motivation:

A
  • A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory
  • B. Expectancy Theory
  • C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
181
Q

A person who occupies a higher position has
power over persons in lower positions within the organization. This describes

A

Legitimate power

182
Q

When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests, it termed as:

A

Reward power

183
Q

When a person compels with orders through
treats or punishment.

A

Coercive power

184
Q

When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be identified with the former.

A

Referent power

185
Q

Which of the following is not a trait of an effective
leader

186
Q

Which of the following is a trait of an effective
leader

A
  • A. A high level of personal drive
  • B. Knowledge of the company, industry or
    technology
  • C. Charisma
187
Q

Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives better in the future.

A

Inspection

188
Q

A type of controlling when the management
anticipates problems and prevents their occurrence

A

Feed forward control

189
Q

A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect variances are made.

A

Concurrent control

190
Q

A type of controlling when information is
gathered about a completed activity, and in order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A

Feedback control

191
Q

Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in useful ways

192
Q

The process of planning, organizing, and
controlling operations to reach objectives efficiently and effectively

A

Operations management

193
Q

A process of creating a set of product
specifications appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A

Product Design

194
Q

Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement of these facilities.

A

Product planning

195
Q

The phase of production control involved in
developing timetables that specify how long each operation in the production process takes.

A

Scheduling

196
Q

Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A

Purchasing and Materials Management

197
Q

The process of establishing and maintaining
appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A

Inventory Control

198
Q

The process of determining the physical
arrangement of the production system.

A

Work-Flow Layout

199
Q

Refers to the measurement of products or
services against standards set by the company.

A

Quality Control

200
Q

A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services

201
Q

The four P’s of marketing are the following except:

202
Q

The four P’s of marketing are the following

A
  • A. Product
  • B. Price
  • C. Promotion
    D. Place
203
Q

It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

204
Q

Refers to the money or other considerations
exchanged for the purchase or use of the product, idea, or service.

205
Q

An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached by their customers.

206
Q

Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence attitudes and behavior.

207
Q

A type of promotion where a paid message
appears in mass media for the purpose of informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A

Advertising

208
Q

The promotional tool that publishes news or
information about a product, service, or idea on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

209
Q

A more aggressive means of promoting the sales
of a product or service.

A

Personal selling