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Physiology > Endocrinology & Reproduction > Flashcards

Endocrinology & Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

Where are endocrine glands found?

A

Scattered around the body

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2
Q

What do endocrine glands secrete?

A

Hormones

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3
Q

Once hormones are secreted, where do they want to go?

A

Target cells

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4
Q

How do hormones reach their target cells?

A

Bloodstream

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5
Q

What do target cells have to recognize specific hormones?

A

Receptors

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6
Q

How does a target cell recognize a hormone?

A

Through hormone-receptor binding

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7
Q

What do target cells do?

A

Regulate or direct a particular bodily function

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8
Q

What is the length of response produced by the endocrine system?

A

Long

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9
Q

How are the 2 hormone categories determined?

A

Based on solubility

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10
Q

What are the 2 categories of hormones?

A

1) Hydrophilic

2) Lipophilic

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11
Q

What is special about hydrophilic hormones?

A

They can be dissolved in plasma

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12
Q

What are 2 examples of hydrophilic hormones?

A

Peptide hormones (insulin and growth hormone) and Catecholamines

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13
Q

What is special about lipophilic hormones?

A

They can pass through membranes and do not dissolve in plasma

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14
Q

What are 2 examples of lipophilic hormones?

A

Steroid hormones and Thyroid hormone

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15
Q

What 3 things does the endocrine system regulate?

A

1) Organic metabolism
2) Water and electrolyte balance
3) RBC production and use

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16
Q

How does the endocrine system help the body cope?

A

By inducing adaptive change during stressful situations

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17
Q

What does the endocrine system promote?

A

Smooth, sequential growth and development

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18
Q

What is the function of the endocrine system that involves the ANS?

A

Control and integration of circulation as well as digestion and absorption of food

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19
Q

What do tropic hormones do?

A

Regulate hormone secretion of another endocrine gland

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20
Q

Does one gland produce only one hormone?

A

No, one gland can produce multiple hormones

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21
Q

Does one hormone get secreted by only one gland?

A

No, more than one gland can produce and secrete the same hormone

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22
Q

Does one hormone have only one type of target cell?

A

No, one hormone can have more than one type of target cell

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23
Q

What about secretion varies?

A

Rate

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24
Q

Is one target cell influenced by only one hormone?

A

No, a single target cell can be influenced by more than one hormone

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25
Q

What can a chemical messenger be?

A

A hormone or neurotransmitter

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26
Q

Do all endocrine organs only have endocrine functions?

A

No, many endocrine organs have other functions that are not endocrine (ex: ovaries)

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27
Q

What are 3 methods to control plasma concentration of a hormone?

A

1) Regulate changes in rate of hormone secretion
2) Increase rate of removal from blood by metabolic inactivation or excretion
3) Increase rate of activation or binding of hormone to plasma proteins

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28
Q

What 2 direct regulatory inputs influence secretory output of endocrine cells?

A
  • Neural input

- Input from another hormone

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29
Q

When does negative feedback control exist?

A

When output of a system counteracts a change in input

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30
Q

What does negative feedback control do to plasma concentration of a hormone?

A

Maintains the concentration at a given level or set-point

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31
Q

What is the purpose of neuroendocrine reflexes?

A

To produce a sudden increase in hormone secretion in response to a specific stimulus

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32
Q

What is an example of a neuroendocrine reflex?

A

Increased secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex during a stress response

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33
Q

What do endocrine disorders most commonly result from?

A

Inappropriate rates of secretion causing abnormal plasma concentrations of a hormone

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34
Q

What is hyposecretion?

A

Too little hormone is secreted

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35
Q

What kind of glands does the endocrine system consist of?

A

Ductless endocrine glands

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36
Q

What is hypersecretion?

A

Too much hormone is secreted

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37
Q

What is primary hyposecretion?

A

Too little hormone secretion due to abnormality within gland

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38
Q

What are 5 causes of primary hyposecretion?

A

Genetic, Dietary, Chemical or toxic, Immunologic, and Cancer

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39
Q

What is secondary hyposecretion?

A

Gland is normal but decreased hormone secretion due to deficiency of the glands tropic hormone

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40
Q

What are 2 causes of hypersecretion?

A

Tumours that ignore normal regulatory input and continuously secrete excess hormone, and Immunologic

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41
Q

What is primary hypersecretion?

A

Too much hormone secretion due to abnormality within gland

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42
Q

What is secondary hypersecretion?

A

Excessive stimulation from outside the gland causes oversecretion

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43
Q

What are the 3 ways in which hormones can influence the activity of other hormones at target cells?

A

1) Permissiveness
2) Synergism
3) Antagonism

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44
Q

What is permissiveness?

A

One hormone must present in adequate amounts for full exertion of another hormones effect

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45
Q

What is synergism?

A

When actions of several hormones are complimentary and the combined effect is greater than the sum of their separate effects

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46
Q

What is antagonism?

A

When one hormone causes loss of another hormones receptors causing reduced effectiveness of the second hormone

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47
Q

What does cholesterol act as a precursor for?

A

Lipophilic steroid hormones

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48
Q

How do hydrophilic hormones produce effects?

A

Bind to surface membrane receptors and produce effects through a second-messenger system

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49
Q

How do lipophilic hormones produce effects?

A

Bind to intracellular receptors and produce effects through changes in gene expression

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50
Q

What do hormone-receptor complexes recognize?

A

Specific sequences in DNA called Hormone-Response-Element (HRE)

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51
Q

What are 2 differences between the nervous system and endocrine system?

A

1) Length of response (NS = short, brief and precise; ES = long)
2) Target tissues (NS = muscles and glands; ES = every tissue in the body)

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52
Q

Location: hypothalamus

A

In the superior brainstem below thalamus

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53
Q

Location: pituitary gland

A

Inferior to hypothalamus

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54
Q

What does antidiuretic mean?

A

Produce less urine and store more water

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55
Q

What is the function of ADH?

A

Conserve body water and regulate osmotic pressure of body fluids

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56
Q

How is ADH secretion triggered?

A

By osmoreceptors in the brain from an increase in osmolarity due to dehydration

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57
Q

What does ADH act on and how?

A

Kidney cells (distal convolute tubule and medullary collecting ducts) via cell surface receptors and cAMP formation

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58
Q

What does ADH do to kidney cells?

A

Enhances water permeability and reabsorption

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59
Q

What is the function of oxytocin?

A

Stimulates contraction of smooth muscle cells

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60
Q

What does oxytocin act on?

A

Mammary gland and uterus

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61
Q

What stimulates oxytocin release?

A

Suckling and childbirth

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62
Q

What does oxytocin release stimulate?

A

1) Contraction of myoepithelial cells in breast to expel milk
2) Rhythmic uterine contractions

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63
Q

What is a clinical use of oxytocin?

A

1) To induce labour

2) Therapeutically postpartum to decrease bleeding

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64
Q

What does an ADH deficiency mean?

A

Inability to retain water

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65
Q

What are symptoms of ADH deficiency?

A

Excess thirst and frequent urination

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66
Q

What are 2 treatments for ADH deficiency and what do they do?

A

1) Clofibrate to increase ADH secretion

2) Chlorpropamide to increase kidney response to ADH

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67
Q

What does ADH excess mean?

A

Excess water retention

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68
Q

What are symptoms of excess ADH?

A

Headache, drowsiness, and nausea

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69
Q

What are 2 treatments for excess ADH and what do they do?

A

1) Butorphanol to decrease ADH secretion

2) Demechlocycline to decrease kidney response to ADH

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70
Q

What are the 6 hypothalamic hormones in the regulation of anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH); Thyrotropin-release hormone (TRH); Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH); Somatostatin; Dopamine

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71
Q

What effect does corticotropin-releasing hormone have on anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Increases ACTH

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72
Q

What effect does thyrotropin-releasing hormone have on anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Increase TSH and prolactin

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73
Q

What effect does gonadotropin-releasing hormone have on anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Increases LH/FSH

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74
Q

What effect does growth hormone-releasing hormone have on anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Increases growth hormone

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75
Q

What effect does somatostatin have on anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Decreases growth hormone

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76
Q

What effect does dopamine have on anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Decreases prolactin

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77
Q

What effect does tropic hormone have on the hypothalamus?

A

Negative

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78
Q

What effect does tropic hormone have on the anterior pituitary?

A

Negative and positive

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79
Q

What effect does pituitary hormone have on the hypothalamus?

A

Negative

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80
Q

What does the hypothalamus secrete to the anterior pituitary?

A

Releasing/inhibitory factor

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81
Q

What does the anterior pituitary secrete to the endocrine gland?

A

Pituitary hormone

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82
Q

What does the endocrine gland secrete to the target tissue?

A

Tropic hormone

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83
Q

What kind of pattern do hypothalamic and pituitary hormones have and why?

A

Pulsatile/rhythmic secretion pattern due to fluctuation of neuronal activity

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84
Q

What is the clinical relevance of the secretion pattern for hypothalamic and pituitary hormones?

A

1) Maintains target organ sensitivity

2) If the pulsatile secretion was to be abolished, hormone secretion would be diminished

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85
Q

What is the source of growth hormone?

A

Somatotropes and somatommammotropes of anterior pituitary

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86
Q

What are the 5 actions of growth hormone?

A

Decrease insulin sensitivity; Increase lipolysis; Increase IGF-1; Increase protein synthesis; Increase epiphyseal (bone) growth

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87
Q

What are 2 actions of IGF-1?

A

Increase protein synthesis and increase bone growth

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88
Q

What stimulates growth hormone release?

A

GHRH, hypoglycemia, exercise, some amino acids, and sleep

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89
Q

What inhibits growth hormone release?

A

Somatostatin, negative feedback of IGF-1, and hyperglycemia

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90
Q

What is the source of prolactin?

A

Lactotropes and somatommammotropes of anterior pituitary

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91
Q

What are 3 actions of prolactin?

A

1) Promote growth and function of mammary glands to aid in milk production
2) Increase maternal behaviour
3) When [prolactin] is very high, inhibits gonadotropin secretion which decreases steroidogenesis

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92
Q

What stimulates prolactin release?

A

Oxytocin, TRH, VIP, and estrogen

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93
Q

What inhibits prolactin?

A

Dopamine

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94
Q

What can cause growth hormone excess?

A

Somatotropin tumor

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95
Q

What can occur from growth hormone excess?

A

1) Gigantism if occurs early in life

2) Acromegaly if occurs after body growth has stopped

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96
Q

What is acromegaly?

A

Excess soft tissue hyperplasia

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97
Q

What are 3 treatments for growth hormone excess?

A

1) Tumor removal
2) SS analogs
3) GH receptor antagonist (blocker)

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98
Q

What can cause growth hormone deficiency?

A

Hypothalamic or pituitary lesions

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99
Q

What can occur from growth hormone deficiency?

A

1) Proportional short-stature if occurs early in life

2) Adult hypopituitarism

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100
Q

What are symptoms of adult hypopituitarism?

A

Weakness; Fine wrinkling and pale skin; Loss of sex drive; Genital atrophy; Menstrual cycle cessation

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101
Q

What are 2 other causes of retarded growth in which growth hormone is not deficient?

A

1) GH receptor defect in target tissues

2) IGF-1 deficiency

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102
Q

What can treat growth hormone deficiency?

A

GH and IGF-1 replacement

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103
Q

What are 3 causes of prolactin excess?

A

1) Hyperprolactinemia
2) Dopamine receptor blockers
3) Stress, high amount of physical activity, underweight

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104
Q

What is hyperprolactinemia?

A

Most common form of pituitary hyperfunction caused by adenomas of lactotropes

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105
Q

What can cause the blockage of dopamine receptors?

A

Some psychiatric medications

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106
Q

What are the consequences of prolactin excess in females?

A

Anti-gonadal action which causes secondary amenorrhea, leading to infertility and galactorrhea

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107
Q

What is secondary amenorrhea?

A

Cessation of menstrual cycle

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108
Q

What is galactorrhea?

A

Inappropriate milk production

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109
Q

What are the consequences of prolactin excess for males?

A

Impotence, decreased sperm count and infertility

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110
Q

What is a treatment option for excess prolactin?

A

Dopamine agonists (such as Cabergoline or Parlodel) suppress prolactin secretion and shrink prolactinomas

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111
Q

True or false: deficiency of prolactin is rare?

A

True

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112
Q

What does pituitary ACTH regulate?

A

The adrenal gland

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113
Q

What 3 things does pituitary ACTH indirectly affect?

A

1) Melanin synthesis
2) Immune response
3) Decrease food intake

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114
Q

What are the 3 sections that the adrenal gland is divided into (from outermost to innermost)?

A

1) Zona glomerulosa
2) Zona fasciculata
3) Zona reticularis

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115
Q

Where does the mineralocorticoid pathway take place?

A

Zona glomerulosa

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116
Q

Where does the glucocorticoid pathway take place?

A

Zona fasciculata

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117
Q

Where does the androgen pathway take place?

A

Zona reticularis

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118
Q

What is the major form of glucocorticoid?

A

Cortisol

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119
Q

What is cortisol bound to and where?

A

Transcortin in circulation

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120
Q

Why is cortisol essential for life?

A

Its important direct effects on intermediary metabolism of carbs, proteins, and lipids

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121
Q

What are 4 functions of cortisol?

A

1) Stimulates protein breakdown to amino acids
2) Facilitates lipid breakdown in adipose tissue to fatty acids and glycerol
3) Promotes hepatic gluconeogenesis from amino acids, glycerol, and fatty acids
4) Makes glucose available to brain by inhibiting utilization by other tissues

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122
Q

At what level do anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoids occur?

A

Pharmacological levels of glucocorticoids

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123
Q

What are 3 anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids?

A

1) Inhibit local reaction to injury

2) Reduce local release of degradative enzymes
3) Decrease fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition

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124
Q

What are 3 examples of anti-inflammatory events that need glucocorticoids?

A

1) Rheumatoid arthritis
2) Trauma
3) Insect bites

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125
Q

What are 3 immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoids?

A

1) Inhibit IL-1 production by macrophages, resulting in decreased T cell recruitment
2) Inhibit IL-2 production from T Helper cells, thus reducing T and B cell formation
3) Induce death of T cells

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126
Q

What are 2 examples of immunosuppressive events that need glucocorticoids?

A

1) Prevent organ/graft rejection

2) Manage allergic disorders

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127
Q

What should be considered for a patient on long-term use of glucocorticoids?

A

Impaired body’s defense against infections; Loss of bone mass; Atrophy of adrenal gland; Other metabolic effects (such as hyperglycemia)

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128
Q

What is DHEA the main source of?

A

Angroden in females

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129
Q

What does aldosterone affect?

A

Kidney to regulate water and salt metabolism

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130
Q

What is the function of cortisol?

A

Increase metabolic fuels, such as blood glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids

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131
Q

What do glucocoorticoids exert strong negative feedback on?

A

Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

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132
Q

Why does atrophy of anterior pituitary corticotropes occur in the pituitary-adreanl axis by glucocorticoids?

A

Because no ACTH is required

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133
Q

Why does atrophy of adrenal cortex occur in the pituitary-adreanl axis by glucocorticoids?

A

Lack of stimulation by ACTH

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134
Q

What is the major form of mineralocorticoids in the adrenal?

A

Aldosterone

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135
Q

What is the function of aldosterone?

A

Control body fluid volume by increasing sodium reabsorption by kidneys

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136
Q

What stimulates aldosterone secretion? (2)

A

Activation of RAAS in response to decreased blood pressure, low plasma sodium, and high plasma potassium; and ACTH

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137
Q

What is a major form of adrenal androgens?

A

DHEA (dehydroepiandrosterone)

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138
Q

Is DHEA a strong or weak androgen?

A

Weak

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139
Q

What is DHEA important for in males?

A

Nothing

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140
Q

What is DHEA important for in females?

A

Enhancement of pubertal growth spurt; Maintains secondary sex characteristics; Sexual desire; Some conversion to estrogen by aromatase in peripheral tissues

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141
Q

What are conditions of aldosterone excess?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome) and Secondary hyperaldosteronism

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142
Q

What are causes of aldosterone excess?

A

Hypersecreting tumour of zona glomerulosa or High renin-angiotensin

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143
Q

What are symptoms of aldosterone excess?

A

Increased sodium (hypernatremia); Decreased potassium (hypokalemia); Hypertension

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144
Q

What is a condition of cortisol excess?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

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145
Q

What are causes of cortisol excess?

A

Excess CRH/ACTH; Adrenal tumour; Ectopic ACTH (lung cancer)

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146
Q

What are symptoms of cortisol excess? (5)

A

1) Hyperglycemia
2) Excess protein breakdown
3) Abnormal fat distribution
4) Insulin resistance
5) Decreased immune and inflammatory response

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147
Q

What is a condition of androgen excess?

A

Congential Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) / Androgenita Syndrome in females

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148
Q

What is a cause of androgen excess?

A

Genetic deficiency in cortisol synthetic enzymes (21- and 11-OH)

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149
Q

What are symptoms of androgen excess?

A

Inappropriate masculinization; Pseudohermaphroditism; Virilization in female; Pseudopuberty in boys

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150
Q

What occurs to ACTH in CAH and what does this cause?

A

Absence of negative feedback on ACTH; Causes increased ACTH, leading to increased DHEA, which produces a negative feedback on anterior pituitary which decreases production of LH/FSH, resulting in gonads not developing

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151
Q

What is a condition of cortisol and aldosterone deficiency?

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s Disease)

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152
Q

What is the cause of cortisol and aldosterone deficiency?

A

Destruction or atrophy of adrenal cortex

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153
Q

What are symptoms of cortisol deficiency?

A

Poor response to stress; Hypoglycemia; Low metabolic activites

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154
Q

What are symptoms of aldosterone deficiency?

A

Increased potassium (hyperkalemia) resulting in arrhythmia, decreased heart rate, and weakness; Decreased sodium (hyponatremia) resulting in edema, headache, confusion, muscle cramp, and weakness; Hypotension

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155
Q

What is a condition of cortisol deficiency?

A

Secondary adrenal insufficiency

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156
Q

What is a cause of cortisol deficiency?

A

Insufficient ACTH caused by hypothalamic or pituitary failure

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157
Q

What are adrenal medulla catecholamines composed of?

A

Modified postganglionic neurons without axons

158
Q

What do the cell bodies of adrenal medulla catecholamines produce?

A

Epinephrine and some norepinephrine

159
Q

What are 3 “rules” of the actions of adrenal catecholamines?

A

1) Effects in target organs are mediated by alpha and beta adrenergic receptors
2) Actions of one hormone by the two classes of receptors often produce opposite effects
3) When exerted through the same type of receptor, epinephrine and norepinephrine exert similar effects

160
Q

Is gluconeogenesis alpha or beta mediated?

A

Alpha

161
Q

Is arteriolar constriction alpha or beta mediated?

A

Alpha

162
Q

Is muscle contraction alpha or beta mediated?

A

Alpha

163
Q

Is decreased insulin secretion alpha or beta mediated?

A

Alpha

164
Q

Is increased growth hormone secretion alpha or beta mediated?

A

Alpha

165
Q

Is sweating alpha or beta mediated?

A

Alpha

166
Q

Is dilation of pupils alpha or beta mediated?

A

Alpha

167
Q

Is glycogenolysis alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

168
Q

Is lipolysis and ketosis alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

169
Q

Is decreased glucose utilization alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

170
Q

Is arteriolar dilation alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

171
Q

Is increased cardiac contractility alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta (beta 1)

172
Q

Is increased heart rate alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

173
Q

Is muscle relaxation alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

174
Q

Is increased insulin secretion alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

175
Q

Is increased renin secretion alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

176
Q

Is increased thyroid hormone secretion alpha or beta mediated?

A

Beta

177
Q

What is pheochromocytoma?

A

Tumors arising from chromaffin cells in the SNS, mostly in the adrenal

178
Q

What do pheochromocytoma tumors release?

A

Large quantities of epinephrine and/or norepinephrine and sometimes dopamine

179
Q

What are the consequences of pheochromocytoma?

A

Hypertension; Increased heart rate (palpitations); Hyperglycemia; Anxiety; Headache; Weight loss; Sweating

180
Q

What are treatment options for pheochromocytoma?

A

Surgery or Alpha and beta receptor blockers

181
Q

What is stress?

A

A generalized, nonspecific response of the body to any factor that overwhelms the body’s compensatory abilities to maintain a state of homeostasis

182
Q

What do stressors stimulate?

A

Cortisol release

183
Q

What does the thyroid gland consist of?

A

2 lobes of endocrine tissue joined in the middle by isthmus (narrow portion of gland)

184
Q

How are follicular cells arranged in the thyroid?

A

Into hollow spheres

185
Q

What do follicular cells form?

A

A follicle

186
Q

What is the lumen of follicular cells filled with?

A

Colloid

187
Q

What is the function of colloid?

A

Serves as an extracellular storage site for thyroid hormone

188
Q

What hormones do follicular cells produce in the thyroid?

A

1) T4/thyroxine
2) T3
- Iodine-containing and derived from tyrosine

189
Q

What is the function of C cells in the thyroid?

A

Secrete peptide hormone calcitonin

190
Q

What is the major function of the thyroid?

A

Synthesis, storage, and secretion of thyroid hormone

191
Q

What are the 2 basic ingredients of thyroid hormone and how are they obtained by the body?

A

1) Tyrosine (synthesized by body)

2) Iodine (obtained from dietary intake)

192
Q

Where does the synthesis of thyroid hormone occur?

A

On thyroglobulin molecules within colloid

193
Q

How does synthesis of thyroid hormone occur?

A

1) Thyroglobulin is exported from follicular cells into colloid by exocytosis
2) Thyroid captures iodine from blood and transfers it into colloid by iodine pump
3) Within colloid, iodine attaches to tyrosine
4) Coupling process occurs between iodinated tyrosine molecules to form thyroid hormones

194
Q

Where is thyroid hormone stored and for how long?

A

Stored in colloid until they are split off and secreted

195
Q

How does secretion of thyroid hormone occur?

A

1) Follicular cells phagocytize thyroglobulin colloid
2) T3 and T4 are free to diffuse across plasma membrane and into blood
3) Most produced is T4 converted to T

196
Q

What are 5 functions of thyroid hormone?

A

1) Determines basal metabolic rate
2) Influences synthesis and degradation of carbs, fat, and protein
3) Increases target-cell responsiveness to catecholamines
4) Increase heart rate
5) Aids in development of nervous system

197
Q

What regulates the hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid axis?

A

A negative-feedback system between hypothalamic TTRH, anterior pituitary TSH, and T3 and T4

198
Q

What are causes of hypothyroidism?

A

1) Primary failure of thyroid gland
2) Secondary to deficinecy of TRH and/or TSH
3) Inadequate dietary supply of iodine

199
Q

What causes cretinism?

A

Hypothyroidism from birth

200
Q

What is myxedema?

A

Hypothyroidism is adults

201
Q

What is treatment for hypothyroidism?

A

Replacement therapy (increase dietary iodine)

202
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease

203
Q

What is Graves’ disease?

A

An autoimmune disease in which the body incorrectly produces thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI)

204
Q

What is a physical characteristic of Graves’ disease?

A

Exopthalmos (bulging eyes)

205
Q

What are some treatments for hyperthyroidism?

A

Surgical removal of a portion of the over-secreting thyroid; administration of radioactive iodine; antithyroid drugs

206
Q

What is a goitre?

A

Swelling of the neck caused by enlarged thyroid

207
Q

Why does plasma calcium have to be closely regulated?

A

To prevent changes in neuromuscular excitability

208
Q

What 5 activities does calcium play a vital role in?

A

1) Excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac and smooth muscle
2) Stimulus-secretion coupling
3) Maintenance of tight junctions between cells
4) Clotting of blood
5) Bone formation

209
Q

What does hypercalcemia result in?

A

Reduced excitability

210
Q

What does hypocalcemia result in?

A

Overexcitability of nerves and muscles

211
Q

What can severe overexcitability cause?

A

Fatal spastic contractions of respiratory muscles

212
Q

What 3 hormones regulate plasma concentration of calcium?

A

1) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
2) Calcitonin
3) Vitamin D

213
Q

What gland secretes parathyroid hormone?

A

Parathyroid gland

214
Q

What is parathyroid hormone the primary regulator of?

A

Calcium

215
Q

What does parathyroid do to plasma concentration of calcium and how?

A

Raises free plasma calcium levels by its effects on bone, kidneys, and intestines

216
Q

Why is parathyroid hormone essential for like?

A

It prevents fatal consequences of hypocalcemia

217
Q

Parathyroid facilitates activation of ______

A

Vitamin D

218
Q

When is calcitonin secreted?

A

In response to an increase in plasma calcium concentration

219
Q

How does calcitonin work on calcium?

A

Lowers plasma calciu levels by inhibiting activity of bone osteoclasts

220
Q

When is calcitonin important?

A

During hypercalcemia

221
Q

What is the function of vitamin D?

A

Stimulates calcium and phosphate absorption from intestine

222
Q

How can vitamin D be made by the body?

A

Can be synthesized from cholesterol derivative when exposed to sunlight

223
Q

Describe the process of activating vitamin D

A

Must be activated first by liver and then by kidneys before it can exert its effect on intestines

224
Q

What are symptoms of PTH hypersecretion?

A

Hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

225
Q

What are symptoms of PTH hyposecretion?

A

Hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia

226
Q

What is rickets?

A

Vitamin D deficiency in children

227
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency in adults

228
Q

What does insulin do to blood glucose?

A

Decreases it

229
Q

What does glucagon do to blood glucose?

A

Increases it

230
Q

What does cortisol do to blood glucose?

A

Increases it

231
Q

What does epinephrine do to blood glucose?

A

Increases it

232
Q

What does growth hormone do to blood glucose?

A

Increases it

233
Q

What are the endocrine cells of the pancreas?

A

Islets of Langerhans

234
Q

What are the exocrine cells of the pancreas?

A

Acini

235
Q

What are the 4 major cell types of the pancreas?

A

Alpha, beta, delta, and F

236
Q

What hormone do alpha cells of the pancreas secrete?

A

Glucagon

237
Q

What hormone do beta cells of the pancreas secrete?

A

Insulin

238
Q

What hormone do delta cells of the pancreas secrete?

A

Somatostatin

239
Q

What hormone do F cells of the pancreas secrete?

A

Pancreatic polypeptide

240
Q

What connects the A and B chains of insulin?

A

2 disulphide covalent bonds between cysteine residues

241
Q

What is the function of proinsulin?

A

Nothing

242
Q

What is the function of the C peptide of insulin?

A

Unknown

243
Q

What cleaves the A from C chains and B from C chains in insulin?

A

Proprotein convertase

244
Q

What are 4 stimulants of insulin release?

A

1) Sugars (glucose, mannose)
2) Amino acids (leucine)
3) Vagus nerve stimulation
4) Sulfonylureas

245
Q

What are 3 amplifiers of glucose-induced insulin release?

A

1) Enteric hormones
2) Neural amplifiers (beta-adrenergic effect of catecholamines)
3) Amino acids (arginine)

246
Q

What are 2 inhibitors of insulin release?

A

1) Neural (alpha-adrenergic effect of catecholamines)

2) Humoral (somatostatin)

247
Q

What happens to glucose, glucagon, and insulin levels as you eat?

A

Glucose levels rise quickly; insulin levels rise extremely fast; glucagon levels decrease gradually

248
Q

What 4 processes does insulin promote?

A

1) Glucose uptake into cells
2) Glycogen synthesis
3) Lipid synthesis
4) Protein synthesis by increasing amino acid uptake

249
Q

Insulin is _____

A

Anabolic

250
Q

Where is glucagon produced?

A

In Islets of Langerhans by alpha cells

251
Q

What are 3 functions of glucagon?

A

1) Releases glucose
2) Stimulates gluconeogenesis (production of glucose from non-glucose sources)
3) Stimulates lipolysis

252
Q

Glycogen breakdown to glucose in muscles is unaffected by _____, but affected by ______

A

Glucagon; glucocorticoids

253
Q

What happens to lactate produced by muscles?

A

It goes to liver to be converted to glucose

254
Q

What are 3 functions of glucagon with respect to lipid metabolism?

A

1) Increase lipolysis
2) Increase glycerol utilization
3) Decrease triglyceride synthesis

255
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

A syndrome of disordered metabolism with hyperglycemia caused by a deficiency of insulin and/or a reduction in effectiveness of insulin

256
Q

What are the 2 major forms of diabetes and what occurs in each type?

A

1) Type 1 – destruction of beta cells

2) Type 2 – reduced sensitivity to insulin

257
Q

What are characteristics of type 2 diabetes?

A

Hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia

258
Q

What are 4 common chronic complications of diabetes mellitus?

A

1) Ophthalmologic
2) Renal
3) Neurological
4) Cardiovascular

259
Q

What is a treatment for type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin

260
Q

What are treatments for type 2 diabetes?

A

Nutritional therapy (exercise, balanced diet) and pharmacological therapy

261
Q

What are some types of pharmacological therapy for type 2 diabetes?

A

1) Biguanides (hypoglycemic agents that inhibit gluconeogenesis)
2) Sulfonylureas (promotes insulin secretion)
3) Thiazolidinediones (increase sensitivity to insulin)
4) Glucosidase inhibitors (inhibit digestion of complex carbs therefore reducing sugar availability)

262
Q

What are the male and female reproductive systems designed for?

A

To enable union of genetic material

263
Q

What are primary reproductive organs?

A

Gonads; testes in male and ovaries in female

264
Q

What are 2 functions of mature gonads?

A

1) Produce gametes (sperm in male and ova in female)

2) Secrete sex hormones (testosterone in males and estrogen and progesterone in females)

265
Q

What is the reproductive tract?

A

System of specialized ducts that transport or house gametes after they are produced

266
Q

What do accessory sex glands do?

A

Empty supportive secretions into reproductive tract

267
Q

What is an example of a female accessory sex organ?

A

Breasts

268
Q

What are external genitalia?

A

Externally visible portions of reproductive system

269
Q

What are secondary sexual characteristics?

A

External characteristics not directly involved in reproduction that distinguish males and females typically after puberty

270
Q

What are examples of secondary sexual characteristics?

A

Body configuration and hair distribution

271
Q

What are 2 functions of the male reproductive tract?

A

1) Produce sperm

2) Deliver sperm to female

272
Q

What are the organs of the male reproductive tract?

A

1) Testes
2) Penis
3) Accessory sex glands

273
Q

What are testes and where are they found?

A

Sperm-producing organs suspended outside abdomen in skin-covered sac (scrotum)

274
Q

What is the function of the penis?

A

Deposit sperm in female

275
Q

What are examples of male accessory sex glands?

A

Seminal vesicles, prostate gland, bulbourethral glands

276
Q

What is the function of male accessory sex glands?

A

Secrete substances that provide bulk of semen

277
Q

What is the pathway of the male reproductive tract?

A

Epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

278
Q

What are 6 functions of the female reproductive tract?

A

1) Cyclical production of ova
2) Reception of sperm
3) Transport of sperm and ovum to common site for union
4) Maintenance of developing fetus until it can survive in outside world
5) Giving birth
6) Nourishing infant after birth with milk

279
Q

What is the product of fertilization?

A

Embryo

280
Q

When does a embryo become a fetus?

A

After first 2 months of intrauterine development

281
Q

What are the organs of the female reproductive tract?

A

1) Oviducts
2) Uterus
3) Vagina
4) Vulva

282
Q

What are 2 functions of oviducts?

A

1) Pick up ova on ovulation

2) Site of fertilization

283
Q

What 2 things is the uterus responsible for?

A

1) Maintenance of fetus during development

2) Expelling fetus at end of pregnancy

284
Q

What does the vagina connect?

A

Uterus to external environment

285
Q

What is the lower portion of the vagina?

A

Cervix

286
Q

Location: vaginal opening

A

Perineal region between urethral opening and anal opening

287
Q

What are the labia minora and labia majora?

A

Skin folds that surround vaginal and urethral openings

288
Q

What is the vulva?

A

Collective term for female external genitalia

289
Q

How many chromosomes do somatic cells contain?

A

46

290
Q

How many chromosomes do gametes contain?

A

23

291
Q

How is gametogenesis accomplished?

A

Meiosis

292
Q

How many pairs of autosomes do we have?

A

22

293
Q

How many pairs of sex chromosomes do we have?

A

1

294
Q

What are the 3 levels of sexual differentiation?

A

1) Genetic
2) Gonadal
3) Phenotypic

295
Q

What is genetic sexual differentiation?

A

The combination of sex chromosomes at time of conception (either 2 X’s or 1 X and 1 Y)

296
Q

What is gonadal sexual differentiation?

A

Whether testes or ovaries develop

297
Q

What determines gonadal sexual differentiation?

A

Presence or absence of Y chromosome

298
Q

What is phenotypic sexual differentiation?

A

Apparent anatomic sex of individual

299
Q

What determines phenotypic sexual differentiation?

A

Gonadal sex

300
Q

What is a similarity between male and female external genitalia?

A

They develop from the same embryonic tissue

301
Q

What does the undifferentiated external genitals in both sexes consist of?

A

A genital tubercle, paired urethral folds surrounding a urethral groove, and genital (labioscrotal) swellings

302
Q

Which ducts degenerate in a female?

A

Wolffian ducts, leaving Mullerian ducts

303
Q

Which ducts degenerate in a male?

A

Mullerian ducts, leaving Wolffian ducts

304
Q

Why are testes found in the scrotum?

A

This location provides a cooler environment essential for spermaogenesis

305
Q

Where is testosterone produced?

A

In Leydig cells of the testes that lie in connective tissue between seminiferous tubules

306
Q

What does spermatogenesis begin with?

A

A spermatogonium

307
Q

What is the final product of spermatogenesis?

A

Many spermatozoa

308
Q

What are the 4 parts of a spermatozoan?

A

1) Head that contains the nucleus
2) Acrozome that caps the tip of the head; used to penetrate ovum
3) Midpiece which contains mitochondria
4) Tail which provides motility

309
Q

What are 6 functions of Sertoli cell in the seminiferous tubules?

A

1) Form blood-testes barrier
2) Provide nourishment
3) Phagocytic
4) Secrete seminiferous tubule fluid which flushes released sperm from tubule into epididymis for storage and additional processing
5) Secrete androgen-binding protein
6) Site of action to control spermatogenesis

310
Q

What are 3 functions of the epididymis and ductus deferens?

A

1) Store and concentrate sperm
2) Increase sperm motility and fertility prior to ejaculation
3) Mix sperm with secretions from accessory glands during ejaculation

311
Q

What does the seminal vesicle contribute to semen?

A

Fructose for energy and prostaglandins

312
Q

What does the prostate gland contribute to semen?

A

Alkaline fluid that neutralizes acidic vaginal secretions as well as clotting enzymes and fibrinolysin

313
Q

What do bulbourethral glands contribute to semen?

A

Lubricating mucus

314
Q

What 2 hormones control the testes?

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

315
Q

What hormone does LH control?

A

Testosterone

316
Q

Where are LH and FSH secreteed from?

A

Anterior pituitary

317
Q

What stimulates LH and FSH secretion?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

318
Q

What is the predominant negative-feedback effect of testosterone?

A

To decrease gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) release by acting on the hypothalamus, thus indirectly decreasing LH and FSH release by the anterior pituitary

319
Q

What is testosterone?

A

A steroid hormone derived from a cholesterol precursor molecule

320
Q

What are the 5 categories of testosterone effects?

A

1) Reproductive system before birth
2) Sex-specific tissues after birth
3) Other reproductive-related effects
4) Secondary sexual characteristics
5) Non-reproductive actions

321
Q

What are 3 common disorders of the male reproductive tract?

A

1) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
2) Prostate cancer
3) Erectile Dysfunction (ED)

322
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia and what causes it?

A

Enlargement of prostate gland caused by growth of stromal and epithelial components

323
Q

What are symptoms of BPH?

A

Urine retention; frequent voiding; changes in bladder structure and function

324
Q

What are treatments for BPH?

A

Surgical removal of tissue; inhibition of prostate cell growth; block muscle contraction

325
Q

What is the most common cancer in men?

A

Prostate cancer

326
Q

What are causes of prostate cancer?

A

Age; genetic predisposition

327
Q

What kind of prostate tumours are the hardest to treat?

A

Recurrent hormone-independent tumours

328
Q

What is erectile dysfunction?

A

Age-related decline in ability to sustain an erection

329
Q

How does Viagra (and similar drugs) work to sustain an erection?

A

Inhibit cGMP loss and decrease blood flow from penis

330
Q

What are 4 functions of estrogen in females?

A

1) Ova maturation and release
2) Establishment of female secondary sex characteristics
3) Transport of sperm from vagina to fertilization site
4) Breast development

331
Q

What are 2 functions of progesterone in females?

A

1) Preparing suitable environment for nourishing and sustaining a developing embryo
2) Contributes to breasts’ ability to produce milk

332
Q

What are oogonia?

A

Undifferentiated primordial germ cells in fetal ovaries

333
Q

What happens to oogonia in the first part of fetal life and what is produced?

A

They begin early steps of first meiotic division but do not complete it; now become primary oocytes

334
Q

Are primary oocytes haploid or diploid?

A

Diploid

335
Q

When do primary oocytes complete their first meiotic division and what is produced?

A

Just before ovulation; produces first polar body and secondary oocytes

336
Q

What happens to secondary oocytes?

A

They become fertilized

337
Q

What does sperm entry into the secondary oocyte trigger and what does it produce?

A

Second meiotic division; produces secondary polar body and mature ovum

338
Q

What normally interrupts the ovarian cycle?

A

Pregnancy

339
Q

When is the ovarian finally terminated?

A

Menopause

340
Q

What is the first half of the ovarian cycle known as?

A

Follicular phase

341
Q

What is the second half of the ovarian cycle known as?

A

Luteal phase

342
Q

What occurs during the follicular phase?

A

1) Granulosa cells of some primary follicles grow rapidly
2) Oocyte inside each follicle enlarges
3) Theca cells in follicle secrete estrogen
4) Rapid follicular growth

343
Q

What happens to a follicle during ovulation?

A

Follicle ruptures and releases oocyte from ovary

344
Q

What happens to an oocyte during ovulation?

A

It is released by the follicle into the peritoneal space, makes its way to the oviduct where it may or may not be fertilized

345
Q

What happens to the follicle after ovulation?

A

The remaining granulosa cells rearrange into corpus luteum

346
Q

What do the corpus luteum do?

A

Produces estrogen and progesterone at high levels for 14 days

347
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum if the woman doesn’t become pregnant?

A

It disintegrates

348
Q

What happens to FSH during the follicular phase?

A

FSH rises and signals ovarian follicle to secrete more estrogen; this rise in estrogen feeds back to inhibit FSH secretion

349
Q

What happens to LH during the follicular phase?

A

It rises and peaks mid-cycle, triggering ovulation and rupture of dominant follicle

350
Q

What does progesterone output do to other hormones?

A

Inhibits release of FSH and LH

351
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum when there is low LH?

A

It disintegrates

352
Q

What can LH turn on?

A

Steroidogenesis

353
Q

What does LH secretion trigger?

A

Ovulation and subsequent luteinization of the ruptured follicle

354
Q

What are the 4 major changes in the follicle caused by LH increase?

A

1) Halts estrogen synthesis
2) Reinitiates meiosis in the oocyte of the developing follicle
3) Triggers production of locally acting prostaglandins
4) Differentiation of follicular cells into luteal cells

355
Q

What hormone maintains the corpus luteum?

A

LH

356
Q

What is the most abundant hormonal product of the corpus lutuem?

A

Progesterone

357
Q

What are the 3 phases of the uterine cycle?

A

1) Menstrual phase
2) Proliferative phase
3) Secretory/progestational phase

358
Q

What occurs in the menstrual phase?

A

Discharge of blood and endometrial debris from vagina

359
Q

What part of the ovarian cycle does the menstrual phase of the uterine cycle coincide with?

A

End of luteal phase and beginning of follicular phase

360
Q

What part of the ovarian cycle does the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle coincide with and why?

A

Last portion of follicular phase; peak estrogen levels trigger LH surge responsible for ovulation

361
Q

What happens in the proliferative phase?

A

Endometrium starts to repair itself and proliferate under influence of estrogen from newly growing follicles

362
Q

How long does the proliferative phase last?

A

From end of menstruation to ovulation

363
Q

When does the uterus enter the secretory phase?

A

After ovulation when new corpus luteum is formed

364
Q

What does progesterone do to endometrium?

A

Converts it to highly vascularized, glycogen-filled tissue

365
Q

What does loss of estrogen primarily affect?

A

Skeleton and cardiovascular systems

366
Q

What is the climacteric?

A

Period of transition into menopause

367
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

Upper third of oviduct (ampulla)

368
Q

When MUST fertilization occur?

A

24 hours after ovulation

369
Q

What does a blastocyst do?

A

Implants in endometrial lining by means of enzymes released by trophoblasts

370
Q

What do enzymes do to the endometrial tissue?

A

Digest and carve a hole in it; also release nutrients from endometrial cells for embryo to use

371
Q

When does the placenta form?

A

After implantation

372
Q

What hormones does the placenta secrete?

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin, estrogen, and progesterone

373
Q

Why is human chorionic gonadotropin secreted by the placenta?

A

Maintains corpus luteum until placenta takes over its function in the last 2 trimesters; also stimulates placenta to maintain adequate estrogen and progesterone

374
Q

Why are estrogen and progesterone secreted by the placenta?

A

Essential for normal pregnancy

375
Q

True or false: it is not normal for pregnant women to become insulin resistant

A

False

376
Q

What happens once the placenta is delivered?

A

Estrogen and progesterone levels plummet allowing for lactation

377
Q

What is parturition?

A

Labour and delivery

378
Q

What does the pressure of the fetus against the cervix cause?

A

Increase in oxytocin secretion

379
Q

What is the role of oxytocin in parturition?

A

1) Cause stronger contractions

2) Progressively increase positive-feedback cycle until delivery is complete

380
Q

What prepares the breasts for lactation?

A

Placental estrogen and progesterone promote development of ducts and alveoli in mammary glands; prolactin stimulates synthesis of enzymes essential for milk production

381
Q

What initiates lactation?

A

Withdrawal of placental steroids at parturition

382
Q

How is lactation sustained?

A

Suckling

383
Q

What does suckling trigger and what does this cause?

A

Release of oxytocin and prolactin; oxytocin causes milk ejection by stimulating alveoli to squeeze secreted milk out through ducts and prolactin stimulates secretion of more milk to replace ejected milk

384
Q

What can happen when prolactin is high and a woman isn’t pregnant?

A

Pause in menstrual cycle, hence why breastfeeding mothers don’t go back to menstruating until their baby is weaned

385
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

No menstrual cycle

386
Q

What are 3 causes of amenorrhea?

A

1) Pregnancy
2) Menopause
3) Stress-induced down regulation of gonadotropins

387
Q

What are symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

1) Hirsutism (abnormal facial hair growth)
2) Amenorrhea
3) Infertility

388
Q

True or false: polycystic ovarian syndrome is obesity associated

A

True

389
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Ectopic endometrial tissue in the abdomen

390
Q

What is a symptom of endometriosis and why?

A

Painful menstrual cycle because endometrial tissue in the abdomen is subject to same endocrine cycles as uterus (expansion, vascularization, and sloughing)

391
Q

What is a symptom of gestational diabetes?

A

Fetal macrosomia (high fetal insulin and growth)

Physiology (7 decks)

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