Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What are hormones?

A

A hormone is defined as a messenger, carried from an organ from which it is produced, to an organ that it affects, by means of the blood stream. Broadly speaking, there’s 2 types of hormone; peptide hormones and steroid hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How are different types hormones synthesised?

A

Peptide hormones are synthesised as prohormones, big long peptide chains, which require further processing by special enzymes (e.g. cleavage) to activate. Insulin is a good example of a peptide hormone, as it is created as preproinsulin, a very long biologically inactive precursor which is cleaved by various enzymes to make the biologically active hormone insulin. In contrast steroid hormones are synthesised in a series of reactions from a cholesterol precursor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How are different types of hormones stored?

A

Peptide hormones are stored in vesicles, which themselves are stored just beneath the membrane of the cell. They are only released when these vesicles fuse with the cell membrane in response to stimulus - a process called regulatory secretion. In contrast, steroid hormones are released immediately – a process called constitutive secretion - so they’re not stored at all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do different types of hormones bind receptors?

A

Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell membrane and they transduce a signal in the target cell using the 2nd messenger system. In contrast, steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors to change gene expression directly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

The pituitary gland sits at the base of the brain in a bony dish called the Sella turcica (literally meaning Turkish saddle, due to it unusual shape) of the sphenoid bone. The posterior pituitary gland hangs from the pituitary stalk above it is the hypothalamus. The optic chiasm is where the fibres of the supplying the nasal (medial) retina cross, this is important because a tumour of the pituitary gland can squash the optic chiasm, which can have implications for the patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is information relayed to the anterior pituitary gland?

A

The anterior pituitary gland does not work by itself but follows the chain of command. It is always told what to do by the hypothalamus, sitting at the top, via hypothalamic parvocellular neurons. These are short neurons that terminate in the median eminence, which is a very vascular part of the hypothalamus. At the end of these neurons, either hypothalamic releasing or inhibitory factors are released into the capillary flexus in the median eminence, where they then diffuse into a group of blood vessels. They can diffuse because these blood vessels are fenestrated (leaky). The hypothalamic regulatory factors are then carried by hypothalamo-pituitary portal circulation to the anterior pituitary gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Outline the anatomy of the anterior pituitary gland

A

The anterior pituitary is anatomically distinct from the hypothalamus and it is not neuronal. Rather, it is made up of hormone containing endocrine cells. There are five different types of hormone containing cells making up the anterior pituitary gland: Somatotrophs, Lactotrophs, Corticotrophs, Thyrotrophs and Gonadotrophs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Outline the Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Thyroid axis

A

The thyroid gland sits in the neck like a butterfly and are a perfect example of the chain of command. The thyroid gland does not work by itself but needs to be told what to do by the anterior pituitary gland, which itself is told what to do by the hypothalamus. The axon terminals of the hypothalamic neurosecretory cells release Thyrotrophin Releasing Hormone (TRH), which travels through the fenestrated blood vessels into the blood vessels of the hypothalamus pituitary portal system and then into the anterior pituitary gland. TRH then stimulates the release of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)/ Thyrotrophin. TSH then leaves the anterior pituitary gland via the blood supply and is carried to the thyroid gland where it can then stimulate the thyroid gland to release the thyroid hormone (thyroxine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which hormones does the anterior pituitary gland release?

A

There are five cell types that form the anterior pituitary gland, each producing and releasing a unique hormone:

1) Somatotrophs release the Growth Hormone (Somatotrophin)
2) Lactotrophs release Prolactin
3) Thyrotrophs release Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH or Thyrotrophin). 4) Gonadotrophs release Luteinising Hormone (LH) or Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
5) Corticotrophs release Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH or corticotrophin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How are the different hormones released by the anterior pituitary gland regulated?

A

1) Growth hormone is special because it is the only hormone regulated by an ‘on and off switch.’ The on switch (the hypothalamic stimulus) which causes growth hormone released from the anterior pituitary gland is called Growth Hormone Releasing Hormone (GHRH). The off switch (the hypothalamic inhibitor) for growth hormone is called Somatostatin (somato = growth, statin = stop).
2) Prolactin is also quite special because it only has an inhibitor control in dopamine. In other words, lots of dopamine means less prolactin, and vice versa.
3) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is stimulated by Thyrotrophin Releasing Hormone (TRH).
4) Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) are regulated by the hypothalamic factor Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH).
5) Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) is regulated by the hypothalamic factor Corticotrophin-Releasing Hormone (CRH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the main target cells of the anterior pituitary hormones?

A

1) Growth Hormone works particularly on the liver (contains many Growth Hormone receptors), but also on skeletal muscle and bone.
2) Prolactin works very specifically for lactation postpartum.
3) Thyrotrophin (or Thyroid Stimulating Hormone – TSH) works to tell the thyroid gland what to do.
4) The Gonadotrophins (LH and FSH) instruct the gonads (testes in males and ovaries in females) to work.
5) Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) travels to the adrenal gland, which tells the adrenal cortex, sitting on top of each kidney, what to do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What condition caused by a tumour results in impaired peripheral vision?

A

Sometimes patients with a problem with their pituitary gland can present with problems that aren’t hormonal. For instance, the optic chiasm, being very close by to the anterior pituitary gland, separated by a couple of millimetres, can be squashed if there is a growth in the anterior pituitary gland. This can cause a visual problem called a bitemporal hemianopia, leading to the peripheral half of the visual field being cut off. An assessment of visual field can be performed, wherein a patient must press a button every time that they see a light flashing. Hence, a bitemporal hemianopia is a very common symptom of a pituitary tumour having grown out of the Sella turcica and having squashed the optic chiasm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the optic chiasm?

A

The optic chiasm is where the fibres that supply the nasal (medial) part of the retina, and hence the temporal visual fields, crossover. So, the presence of a pituitary tumour/suprasellar here would squash and compress these fibres which are supplying the nasal retina, causing the temporal visual field on each side to be affected, as it prevents the transmission of sensory information from lateral visual fields to the occipital lobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Outline the mechanism of milk production and secretion

A

The mechanical stimulation of an infant latching on to the breast activates afferent ascending sensory pathways. The afferent signals are then integrated in the hypothalamus and inhibit dopamine release from dopaminergic. Less dopamine in the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system causes less inhibition of anterior pituitary lactotrophs, as Prolactin is the only anterior pituitary hormone which is regulated only by inhibition. The increase in plasma Prolactin increases milk production and secretion in mammary glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Outline the mechanism of Growth Hormone action

A

Growth Hormone, as the name suggests, regulates gross growth of muscles. Thus, it can be a drug of among certain athletes. It regulates muscle growth in one of two ways: either by binding directly to growth hormone receptors on muscle or bone or by stimulating the liver to produce the hormone Insulin-like Growth Factor (IGF). In adults and children IGF-1 is the main Insulin-like Growth Factor that’s produced, IGF-2 is more important in the developing foetus. IGF-1 can also bind receptors on muscle and bone, thereby stimulating growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Gigantism?

A

Gigantism occurs when too much growth hormone is produced before puberty is finished. The reason why the condition occurs only before the end of puberty, is because during puberty epiphyseal growth plates, the growth plates at the end of long bones like the femur like and humerus, are not fused, only fusing at the end of puberty when adult height is reached. Gigantism can be treated with an operation, but we can’t can manipulate hormones by using a drug like a somatostatin analogue to stop the release of the growth hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Acromegaly?

A

Acromegaly is an overproduction of Growth Hormone occurring after puberty, so does not result in an increase in height. However, lots of other changes do occur, including: a coarsening of facial features, an enlarged nose, enlarged lips, macroglossia, prognathism (enlarged mandible/jaw) which can cause gaps to form between teeth, enlarged hands and feet, sweatiness and headaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Outline the anatomical differences between the anterior and posterior pituitary glands

A

The posterior pituitary gland is very different to the anterior pituitary gland, not just in the hormones that it produces, but also in terms of what it’s made of. Embryologically the anterior pituitary grows up, developing from the base (the roof of the mouth), while the posterior pituitary gland develops downward, making it anatomically continuous with the hypothalamus. As well as this, unlike the anterior pituitary, the posterior pituitary is made of hypothalamic magnocellular neuronal tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary gland?

A

There are only 2 hormones produced by the posterior pituitary gland: Arginine vasopressin (AVP, also known as Anti-diuretic hormone) and Oxytocin. The hypothalamic magnocellular neuronal tissue that form the posterior pituitary gland, are long neurons that originate in supraoptic (AVP) and paraventricular (oxytocin) hypothalamic nuclei. The hypothalamic hormones flow from the hypothalamic nuclei, down the pituitary stalk to the posterior pituitary, where they then diffuse into blood capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the physiological functions of Arginine vasopressin (AVP)?

A

The main physiological action of Arginine vasopressin (AVP or Anti-diuretic hormone), diuresis referring to the production of urine, is the stimulation of water reabsorption in the renal collecting duct to concentrate urine. It works through the V2 receptor in the kidney and as a vasoconstrictor via the V1 receptor. It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) release from the anterior pituitary, although ACTH’s main stimulus remains Corticotrophin Releasing Hormone (CRH) in the anterior pituitary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the role of Arginine vasopressin (AVP) in urine concentration?

A

Arginine vasopressin moves from blood supply, through the basolateral membrane and binds to V2 receptors on the collecting duct cells. The binding of Arginine vasopressin to the V2 receptor stimulates an intracellular signalling cascade which results in the movement Aquaporin-2 channels, which can insert into certain membranes, to allow the movement of water through. The aquaporin-2 channels are transported to the apical membrane, itself in contact with the urine flowing through the nephron. Here, water is absorbed through the Aquaporin-2 channels down the concentrating gradient, across the collecting duct cell and exits the cell via an aquaporin 3 channel. The water is then reabsorbed into systemic circulation, leaving more concentrated urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the functions of Oxytocin?

A

The hormone oxytocin has two jobs:

1) Its first biological role is during labour (parturition). During labour, the uterus is made up of very specific muscle myometrial cells and these cells contract in order to propel the baby out of the uterus. Oxytocin stimulates myometrial cells to contract very powerfully. An analogue of oxytocin is also used in labour to try and aid with women struggling in delivery.
2) Its second role is in milk expulsion. Following mechanical stimulation of the nipple, an ascending afferent sensory pathway is activated. The afferent signal is integrated in the hypothalamus and stimulates oxytocin releasing neurone activity by hypothalamic magnocellular neurons in the posterior pituitary. Action potentials then travel down the oxytocin neurons and oxytocin is secreted into the blood stream. Increased plasma oxytocin stimulates myoepithelial cells in the mammary glands to contract and to expel milk to the baby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the symptoms and clinical features of hypothyroidism?

A

Untreated hypothyroidism is an endocrine emergency that often presents symptoms of drowsiness, confusion, memory impairment, fatigue, cold intolerance, constipation, depression, low sexual desire and tiredness. Clinical features include very thin hair, a receding hairline, puffy eyelids, dry lips, very thick and dry skin, overgrown thickened toenails, bradycardia (slow heart rate) and non-pitting edema (swollen area of skin that does not indent when pressed). These patients often eventually develop myxoedema coma, which is a life-threatening complication, that does not necessarily require them to fall into an coma. Hypothyroidism is often treated with intravenous thyroid hormone treatment and tablets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Outline the anatomy of the thyroid gland

A

The thyroid gland is found in the neck and can be felt moving up when swallowing. The thyroid is a ‘butterfly’ shaped gland found on the trachea, just beneath the thyroid cartilage (Adams Apple). It is made up of two lobes (the right lobe and the left lobe) and the Isthmus, which is the medial between the lobes. Approximately 10-30% of people have an extra lobe just above the Isthmus, called the Pyramid lobe, which is an embryological remnant. The thyroid gland is made up of follicles, which are small spherical structures made of follicular cells surrounding a colloid - a sticky mucus like extracellular fluid where the thyroid hormone is synthesised, in close proximity to blood vessels through the basolateral membrane, Around follicles can be found parafollicular cells which are even smaller cells, responsible for the production of calcitonin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which key anatomical structure lie close to the thyroid gland?

A

The thyroid gland is very close to other very important structures. There are two (superior and inferior) parathyroid glands on the back of each lobe of the thyroid, which produce the parathyroid hormone responsible for calcium metabolism. The thyroid is also in close proximity to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the nerve supplying vocal cords. Operations to remove the thyroid gland (thyroidectomy) must be done very delicately as they risk damage to both the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the parathyroid glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does the thyroid develop embryologically?

A

Embryologically, the thyroid gland originates from midline of the pharynx (near the base of the tongue). A thyroglossal duct then develops, descending from the tongue down, before dividing into two lobes. The duct then disappears leaving the Foramen caecum, an embryological remnant, seen as a very small dot at the back of the throat. The thyroid arrives at its final position within the neck by week 7 of gestation, after which the actual gland develops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is the thyroid hormone produced?

A

The colloid is found at the centre of follicles, adjacent to follicular cells. Within each follicular cell, is a nucleus and lysosomes. Blood vessels lie in close proximity to the follicular cells, whose cell membrane contains a Thyroid Stimulating Hormone receptor (TSH-R).

1) The TSH arrives through the systemic circulation, via the blood, and binds specifically to TSH-R on the follicular cell.
2) Simultaneously, sodium (Na+) and iodide (I-) ions arrive via the blood, entering the follicular cell via the sodium-iodide co-transporter.
3) The iodide ions are taken in cross the follicular cell and they go through the transporter on the other side of the cell, and into the colloid.
4) When TSH binds TSH-R, a prohormone called thyroglobulin (TG) is released and enters the colloid, whilst the thyroid peroxidase enzyme (TPO) is also activated. This enzyme is important in the production of the thyroid hormone as it acts alongside hydrogen peroxide to catalyse the two iodination reactions in the colloid.
5) In the first iodination reaction, iodide ions are oxidised to yield iodine (catalysed by TPO+H2O2).
6) The iodine is then reacted with TG, in a second iodination reaction (catalysed by TPO+H2O2), to give monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrosine (DIT).
7) MIT and DIT, joined together by a coupling reaction (catalysed by TPO+H2O2), give thyroid hormone (T3 and T4), still bound to TG.
8) The thyroid hormone then enters the cell where, in lysosomes, the protein bonds are broken down, allowing T3 and T4 to enter the bloodstream and leave TG behind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many tyrosine residues can be iodinated?

A

Tyrosine is an amino acid with an aromatic ring, of which there are ~100 tyrosine residues, but only ~20 have the capability of being iodinated, meaning that an iodine group can be added to them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The coupling reactions of which molecules produce T3 and T4?

A

3-monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and 3,5-diiodotyrosine (DIT) can be produced by iodinating tyrosine. Joining 3-monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and 3,5-diiodotyrosine (DIT) by a coupling reaction gives 3,5,3’-tri-iodothyronine (T3), which is the active thyroid hormone. Joining DIT with another DIT gives a different type of coupling reaction producing 3,5,3’,5’-tetra-iodothyronine (T4), also known as Thyroxine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between T3 and T4?

A

Essentially, the only difference between the T3 and T4 is the absence of the iodide group at position 5’ in T3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How are most of T3 and T4 produced?

A

Thyroxine (T4) is the main prohormone product of the thyroid gland, only being deiodinated by deiodinase enzymes to T3, its bioactive metabolite form, providing almost all of the thyroid hormone activity in target cells. Only 20% of circulating T3 comes directly from secretion from the thyroid gland, the remaining 80% comes from the deiodination of T4. Reverse T3 is an inactive form of T3 that occurs when T4 is deiodinated at the position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is thyroid hormone transported?

A

The vast majority of thyroid hormone is transported in the blood, bound to plasma proteins. 70-80% of thyroid hormone is bound to the plasma protein Thyroid-binding Globulin (TBG). 10-15% of thyroid hormone in the blood is bound to the plasma protein Albumin. Some thyroid hormone is also bound to Prealbumin/Transthyretin. Only 0.05% of T4 and 0.5% of T3 is unbound, meaning that they are free to act as bioactive agents in the target tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does thyroid hormone effect gene expression?

A

T3 and T4 effect gene expression by entering the cell within the target tissue, through their respective receptors. The T4 is deioidinated by deiodinase enzymes, within the cell, converting it to the active thyroid hormone T3. T3 then enters the nucleus, containing the Thyroid Responsive Element (TRE), binding to the Thyroid Hormone Receptor on its surface. This allows it to alter gene expression, by activating or repressing gene transcription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Cretinism?

A

Cretinism is a condition of untreated congenital hypothyroidism, arising from either a complete lack of a thyroid gland or a lack of any thyroid hormone that functions or poorly developed thyroid hormone. Babies with the condition appear unhappy, drowsy and quite puffy. A heel prick test is done at 5 days of age, allowing a few drops of blood to be removed. The blood can then be used to detect Phenylketonuria (PKU), an inborn error of metabolism, as well as for a measurement of TSH, to determine the presence of an under active thyroid. A high level of TSH could suggest congenital hypothyroidism and thankfully lifelong thyroid hormone replacement treatment is available. When the baby is in utero, thyroid hormone, from the mother, crosses the placenta, protecting it while it is growing. Hence, the thyroid hormone deficiency only becomes apparent when the baby is delivered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why does autoimmune damage to the thyroid gland increase levels of TSH?

A

Autoimmune damage to the thyroid reduces its ability to produce T4 and T3, and as a result thyroxine levels drop; hence, the anterior pituitary is stimulated to release TSH, causing its levels to climb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the physiological impact of thyroid hormone?

A

The thyroid hormone increases basal metabolic rate, meaning the amount of energy or calories that every cell in the body requires to function. It also effects metabolism by increasing glucose absorption, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis and fat metabolism. As well as this, the thyroid hormone can also affect the sympathetic nervous system, by potentiating the reactions of catecholamine and thus raising cardiac output. It also has effects on the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and the maturation of the CNS, as well as bone maturation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the half life of thyroid hormone?

A

The half-life of T4 is ~7 days ad ~2 days for T3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How the the hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid axis control thyroid hormone production?

A

The Hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid axis is important because it allows the production of thyroid hormone to be controlled by negative feedback. The TRH released from the hypothalamus tells the anterior pituitary to release TSH, which is released into circulation. It the acts on the thyroid gland to stimulate the release of T3 and T4, and when there’s sufficient T3 and T4, signals are sent back to both the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, switching them off. Somatostatin, produced in the hypothalamus, can inhibit the production of TSH. Large quantities of iodide can inhibit the production of T3 and T4, known as the Wolff-Chaikoff effect. In fact, potassium iodide is sometimes used to treat hyperthyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which sex is more predisposed to thyroid disorders and why?

A

Women are more predisposed to thyroid disorders (4:1 ratio) than men, as their immune systems have had to evolve to carry babies, who carry a wide range of antigens, that women are exposed to. This had made their immune systems slightly different to men’s and thus more predisposed to autoimmune diseases, such as thyroid disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the difference in the incidence of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?

A

The incidence of hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism is exactly the same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the most common forms of autoimmune thyroid disorders?

A

The most common forms of autoimmune thyroid disease are Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, usually associated with hypothyroidism, and Graves’ disease, usually associated with hyperthyroidism, but in rare cases can also cause hypothyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does the presence of one autoimmune disease impact the risk of others?

A

The presence of one autoimmune disease increases the risk of others. For instance, patients with vitiligo or pernicious anaemia, which are other autoimmune conditions not specifically related to thyroid, are going to be more at risk of developing autoimmune thyroid disease than the general population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Levothyroxine?

A

Levothyroxine is a synthetic tablet of T4 that can be deiodinated in exactly the same way and to produce T3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which through diseases is Levothyroxine prescribed for?

A

Levothyroxine is mainly prescribed for hypothyroidism, but it is also prescribed for hyperthyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the “block and replace” regimen?

A

For hyperthyroidism, anti-thyroid drug, called Carbimazole, can be prescribed, that stops any production of thyroid hormone. Hence, a “block and replace” regimen is used, wherein, a high dose of Carbimazole is used, to block all thyroid hormone production, then Levothyroxine is given to replace the thyroid hormone lost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is the amount of Levothyroxine administered determined?

A

The amount of Levothyroxine given depends on the amount of TSH and T4 found during the blood test. In a patient presents with hypothyroidism high TSH and low T4 levels would be expected. A prescription of levothyroxine would be given, and ~ 3 months later blood tests would be repeated. At that stage, hopefully, the thyroid hormone levels have gone and the TSH levels have come back into the normal range. The most common dose of Levothyroxine is ~ 100 micrograms but may be lower in very elderly patients or those at risk of ischemic heart disease. It is usually administered orally and only in emergency situations, like a myxoedema coma, that intravenous thyroid hormone replacement is considered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the complications and side effects of Levothyroxine?

A

Complications and side effects of Levothyroxine are very rare. Minor complications arise when the thyroid hormone replacement is overdone, which may cause weight loss and headaches. A major complication may be tachycardia (a rapid heart rate, which may cause a heart attack, but these are incredibly rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Why is T3 not prescribed to patients, by itself?

A

T3 is not usually prescribed to patients as there’s no evidence that it works any better than T4, and it is much more expensive to manufacture. Additionally, target tissues have your deiodinase capable of deiodinating T4 into T3. However, there are reports in the literature that combining both T3 and T4, may cause some people feel to better. However, patients may render themselves thyrotoxic and symptoms such as: palpitations, tremors, anxiety. This is because, often when you give T4 and T3 together TSH may be suppressed as anterior pituitary thyrotroph cells are switched off, due to an excess of thyroid hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Graves’ disease?

A

Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disease that causes antibodies to bind and stimulate the TSH receptor in the thyroid, causing the whole gland to enlarge and nodules that appear for no specific reason. Normally TSH receptors in follicular cells, in the thyroid, are stimulated by the arrival of TSH from the anterior pituitary, but antibodies can develop that bind and stimulate this receptor. This results in the TSH receptor being activated, resulting in the overproduction of T4 and T3, causing a smooth toxic multi nodular goitre. Other antibodies bind to muscles behind the eye, causing Exophthalmos (bulging eyes), whilst others stimulate the growth of soft tissue on shins causing Pretibial myxoedema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the symptoms and clinical features of hyperthyroidism?

A

Untreated hypothyroidism is an endocrine emergency that often presents symptoms of anxiety, dry eyes, heat intolerance, myopathy (muscle weakness), mood swings, diarrhoea and palpitations. Clinical features include a smooth goitre, a smooth enlargement of your thyroid gland, weight loss, tremoring hands, exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and pretibial myxoedema (thick, red skin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Where are the adrenal glands located?

A

The adrenal glands are located above the kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which blood vessels connect to the adrenal glands?

A

The left adrenal gland connects to the left adrenal vein , which drains into the renal vein. The right adrenal artery connects to the right adrenal vein, which drains into the inferior vena cava (IVC). Both adrenal glands are supplied by many (57) arteries, but each is supplied by only one adrenal vein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Outline the microanatomy of the adrenal cortex

A

In the centre of each adrenal gland, lies the adrenal medulla, composed of neuroendocrine/chromaffin cells. Outside the adrenal medulla, lies the adrenal cortex, composed of 3 different layers:

1) Zona reticularis: a thin layer, surrounding the adrenal medulla
2) Zona fasciculata: a thick layer, surrounding the zona reticularis
3) Zona glomerulosa: the outer most layer of the adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?

A

The adrenal medulla is derived from the ectodermal exclusively secretes catecholamines. 80% of the catecholamine that it secretes is adrenaline/epinephrine. The remaining 20% is noradrenaline/norepinephrine, “nor-“ meaning without a methyl group. Catecholamines are stored in the cytoplasmic granules and released in response to acetylcholine (Ach) from preganglionic sympathetic neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How are catecholamines synthesised?

A

1) Tyrosine is the precursor for these catecholamines. Oxidising (add O2) tyrosine produces dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA).
2) Decarboxylating (removing CO2) DOPA produces dopamine, which is important for blood pressure control.
3) Dopamine is then converted to noradrenaline/norepinephrine.
4) Methylating (adding “-CH3” methane group) noradrenaline/norepinephrine produces adrenaline/epinephrine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the function of adrenaline?

A

Adrenaline/epinephrine plays a role in blood pressure control, as well as the “fight or flight” response, as it causes heart rate to increase, as well as sweating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex?

A

The adrenal cortex makes three groups of steroids. The zona glomerulosa makes mineralocorticoids, the key one in humans being aldosterone. The zona fasciculata makes glucocorticoids, which mainly impact glucose metabolism, such as cortisol, as well as some sex steroids, such as androgens (“male” sex hormones) and oestrogen (female sex hormone). However, most sex hormones come from the sex organs (the ovaries and testes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why is the zona fasciculata much larger than the zona glumerulosa?

A

The zona fasciculata is so much larger than the zona glomerulosa, as there is much more cortisol in blood than aldosterone. Cortisol is measured in nanomoles per litre (nmol/L) whereas aldosterone is measured in picomoles per litre (pmol/L), as there is 100x more cortisol in circulation, than aldosterone. The zona reticularis is disappearing in humans, but also contributes to the production of cortisol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which structures of the adrenal cortex can be distinguished under a microscope?

A

When the adrenal cortex is magnified, a capsule can be seen on the outside. The zona glomerulosa and zona fasciculata look very similar under direct microscopy, until they’re stained which allows the difference in their cellular structures to be better seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which molecule is the precursor of all steroids?

A

The precursor of all adrenal cortex secretions is cholesterol, so a steroid is a hormone which is based on the cholesterol molecule. Cholesterol traditionally has numbers, which are used to label the enzymes that convert cholesterol into the steroids hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are enzymes?

A

An enzyme is a protein that catalyses a specific reaction and there are many different enzymes. Specific enzymes catalyse the synthesis of particular alterations to a molecule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In what ways is a fall in blood pressure detected?

A

A fall in blood pressure is detected by:

1) Decreased renal perfusion pressure (normally associated with decreased arterial blood pressure).
2) Increased renal sympathetic activity (direct to Juxtaglomerular apparatus cells which secrete renin)
3) Decreased sodium (Na+) load to the top of the loop of Henle (Macula Densa cells, above which sit the Juxtaglomerular apparatus cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How does renin help lower blood pressure?

A

When blood pressure is high, renin is suppressed, but when blood pressure begins to fall, renin is released into the circulation. Renin acts by switching on a cascade that converts a basic protein called Angiotensinogen, produced in the liver, into the protein Angiotensin I. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) then converts this to Angiotensin II. Angiotensin II regulates aldosterone release from the adrenal glands, by switching on the 5 enzymes in the zona glomerulosa needed to produce aldosterone from cholesterol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is aldosterone synthesised?

A

1) When making aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid), the cholesterol side chain is cleaved off, by the cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme (P450scc), forming pregnenolone.
2) Pregnenolone is then dehydrogenated (oxidised) in position 3, containing the “-OH” group, to a ketone called progesterone, by the enzyme 3beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3b-HSD). Progesterone is generally a hormone that comes from the ovary, but it also a precursor of other steroids, in the adrenal gland.
3) Progesterone is then hydroxylated (“-OH” group added), in position 21, using the enzyme 21 Hydroxylase, forming the hormone 11 deoxycorticosterone.
4) 11 deoxycorticosterone is itself then hydroxylated in position 11, forming corticosterone, by the enzyme 11 hydroxylase.
5) Finally, corticosterone is hydroxylated in position 18, using the enzyme 18 hydroxylase, to form aldosterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does aldosterone help maintain blood pressure?

A

Aldosterone stimulates sodium (Na+) reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and the cortical collecting duct of the kidneys (as well as in sweat glands, gastric glands and the colon):

1) Sodium leaves the urine filtrate, while aldosterone switches on sodium/potassium-ATPase.
2) This causes potassium (K+) to be excreted into the urine filtrate, as sodium and water are reabsorbed into the blood.
3) This raises the blood volume, thus maintaining blood pressure, for instance after being stabbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is cortisol?

A

Cortisol is a stress hormone, helping to maintain survival by changing the energy is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the effects of cortisol?

A

It has weak mineralocorticoid effects, but has several metabolic effects, including:
1) Peripheral protein catabolism (break down)
2) Hepatic gluconeogenesis
3) Increasing blood glucose concentration
4) Fat metabolism (lipolysis in adipose tissue)
5) Enhanced effect of glucagon and catecholamines (adrenaline)
It also has some renal and cardiovascular effects, such as:
1) Excretion of water load, to maintain blood pressure
2) Increased vascular permeability

68
Q

How is cortisol synthesised?

A

1) When making cortisol (a glucocorticoid), the cholesterol side chain is cleaved off, by the cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme (P450scc), forming pregnenolone.
2) Pregnenolone is then dehydrogenated (oxidised) in position 3, to a ketone called progesterone, by the enzyme 3beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3b-HSD).
3) Progesterone is then hydroxylated in position 17, using the enzyme 17 Hydroxylase, forming the hormone 17 hydroxy-progesterone.
4) 17 hydroxy-progesterone is itself then hydroxylated in position 21, forming 11 deoxycortisol, by the enzyme 21 hydroxylase.
5) Finally, 11 deoxycortisol is hydroxylated in position 11, using the enzyme 11 hydroxylase, to form cortisol.

69
Q

How does cortisol affect sleep?

A

Cortisol plays an important role for waking up in the morning, when its levels in the body are highest. Its levels fluctuate throughout the remainder of the day, and are lowest at midnight, creating a circadian rhythm.

70
Q

How is cortisol regulated?

A

Cortisol is regulated by the Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), from the anterior pituitary gland. This allows a negative feedback loop on the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis, as cortisol supresses ACTH production in the anterior pituitary and Corticotrophin-releasing Hormone (CRH) production in the hypothalamus.

71
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Addison’s disease is an autoimmune disease where the immune system destroys the adrenal cortex, resulting in primary adrenal failure. This leads to cortisol and aldosterone deficiency. Lack of cortisol or aldosterone also leads to low blood pressure, as salt is lost, which can be fatal if left untreated. Tuberculosis of the adrenal glands in the most common cause of Addison’s disease worldwide. Addison’s disease often coexists with autoimmune vitiligo (white patches of skin).

72
Q

How are patients with Addison’s disease treated?

A

1) Patients with Addisonian crisis are usually rehydrated with saline.
2) They are then given some sugar in the form intravenous dextrose, to prevent hypoglycaemia, which could be due to glucocorticoid deficiency.
3) Patients can also be given hydrocortisone or another glucocorticoid, such as Prednisolone a glucocorticoid analogue.

73
Q

Why do patients with untreated Addison’s disease tan?

A

Pro-opio-melanocortin (POMC) is a large precursor protein that is cleaved to form a number of smaller peptides, including ACTH, Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and endorphins. Thus, when the adrenal gland fails and the anterior pituitary gland begins secreting lots of (ACTH), MSH, which causes pigmentation of the skin (tanning), is simultaneously also overproduced.

74
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body retains too much cortisol, or other glucocorticoid, causing its metabolism to change. This condition is normally caused by either a tumour of the adrenal gland or a tumour on the pituitary gland. These tumours don’t grow and spread around the body, but rather, they grow as a tiny little round dot (nodule) that looks harmless but releases a lot of excess cortisol or ACTH. The nodules can be surgically removed, but this is not easy.

75
Q

What are the possible causes of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

There are 4 possible causes of Cushing’s syndrome:

1) Prolonged ingestion of steroids by the mouth (common), such as Prednisinone, wjich suppresses the immune system
2) Pituitary dependent Cushing’s disease (pituitary adenoma)
3) Ectopic ACTH (lung cancer), lung cancer cells can start to express random genes such as ACTH
4) Adrenal adenoma or carcinoma

76
Q

What are the clinical signs of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

The clinical signs of Cushing’s syndrome include: interscapular fat pads, thin skin (protein converted to fat), bruise (thin blood vessels made of protein), centripetal obesity, red striae/stretch marks (protein not being made at the same rate as fat, causes blood to leak under the skin), impaired glucose tolerance (diabetes), high blood pressure, proximal myopathy (muscle weakness), round/moon faces (excess fat in cheeks) and poor wound healing.

77
Q

How is calcium distributed in the body?

A

The majority (99%) of calcium (Ca2+) in the body is found in the skeleton, 1% is found intracellularly and 0.01% found extracellularly. In the extracellular component, plasma accounts for ~ 2.5 mmol/L. 45% of the calcium in the plasma, is ionised (so unbound), and is the biologically active form of calcium. 45% of the remaining 55% of calcium is bound to plasma proteins (e.g. albumin) and 55% bound to anions (e.g. bicarbonate phosphate or lactate).

78
Q

Which hormones increase calcium and phosphate secretion?

A

There are two hormones that are important for increasing calcium, and also regulating phosphate. One is parathyroid hormone (PTH), which is secreted by the parathyroid glands and the other is Vitamin D, which can either be synthesised in the skin in response to sunshine or taken in via the diet. These two hormones are the major regulators of calcium and phosphate in the body through their effects on the kidneys, on bone and on the gut.

79
Q

Which hormone decreases calcium secretion?

A

One hormone, calcitonin, works to decrease calcium. It is secreted by parafollicular cells in the thyroid gland. It is not essential in calcium regulation as there are no negative effects if the parafollicular cells are removed (e.g. thyroidectomy).

80
Q

How does calcitonin reduce serum calcium levels?

A

When serum calcium levels are high, parafollicular cells sense that and release calcitonin, which helps reduce the concentration of circulating extracellular calcium. Calcitonin has a very limited effect and is thought to work in 2 ways. It works by the bone to reduce osteoclast activity, causing less calcium to be reabsorbed from bone, and thus serum calcium levels to fall. Calcitonin also works by promoting calcium excretion from the kidneys.

81
Q

What are the 2 sources of Vitamin D?

A

There are two sources of Vitamin D. Ergocalciferol (Vitamin D2) is obtained from the diet (e.g. oily fish) and Cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3) is synthesised in the skin in response to sunshine. There is a very slight structural difference between them.

82
Q

How is Vitamin D metabolised?

A

When sunshine, UVB light, shines on the skin it stimulates a series of steps. First, the UVB light is converted to 7-dehydrccholesterol, to pre-Vitamin D, and then to a precursor of Vitamin D3. This precursor is then taken from the skin, to the blood supply, where it is joined by Vitamin D2 from the diet and on to the liver. To become biologically active, D3 then undergoes two hydroxylation steps. The first hydroxylation step occurs in the liver, by the enzyme 25-hydroxylase, producing 25-hydroxycholecalciferol. This is then taken to the kidney where the essential second Vitamin D activating hydroxylation step occurs. The second hydroxylation step uses the enzyme 1 alpha-hydroxylase to convert 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Calcitriol is the biologically active form of vitamin D in the body, regulating calcium and phosphate.

83
Q

How are Vitamin D levels in the body measured?

A

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol) is very difficult to measure in the blood stream, as it is very unstable. So, to measure body stores of Vitamin D, 25-hydroxycholecalciferol, the inactive precursor, is used instead.

84
Q

How is calcitriol synthesis regulated?

A

Calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol) regulates its own synthesis, by having a negative feedback loop with the enzyme 1 alpha-hydroxylase, in the kidney. This acts to reduce the activity of that enzyme and reduce calcitriol production.

85
Q

What are the effects of calcitriol?

A

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (Vitamin D3/ calcitriol), works in several ways. It works on the bone by increasing calcium reabsorption, from bone. Calcitriol also increases calcium and phosphate (PO4 3-) reabsorption from the kidney. Calcitriol also increases calcium and phosphate absorption from the gastrointestinal tract (gut).

86
Q

What are the parathyroid glands?

A

The parathyroid glands do not secrete thyroid hormones and are not involved in their regulation, but they do regulate calcium and phosphate balance. They’re called parathyroid glands because of where they are situated anatomically, at the back of the thyroid gland. There are four parathyroid glands: 2 above and 2 below.

87
Q

What is parathyroid hormone?

A

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is secreted from specific cells on parathyroid glands called chief cells. Parathyroid hormone is a peptide hormone that is secreted as a large, inactive peptide precursor called pre-pro-parathyroid hormone (pre-pro-PTH). The precursor peptide is then cleaved to produce the active hormone PTH. When G-protein coupled calcium sensing receptors on chief cells detect changes in circulating calcium concentration, the amount of PTH secreted is changed.

88
Q

How are parathyroid hormone levels regulated?

A

The amount of PTH secreted is inversely proportional to serum calcium. When serum calcium is high, calcium binds the G-protein coupled calcium sensing receptors, found on the chief cells in the parathyroid glands, inhibiting PTH secretion. When serum calcium is low, then less calcium binds to the G-protein coupled calcium sensing receptors, so more PTH is secreted, to bring extracellular calcium concentrations back to normal.

89
Q

What are the actions of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

A

PTH increases calcium reabsorption from bone. PTH also increases calcium reabsorption from the kidney, ensuring that less calcium is excreted in the urine, but increases phosphate excretion in the kidney. PTH also increases 1 alpha-hydroxylase activity, the enzyme that helps make active 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol/Vitamin D3/calcitriol. More calcitriol means more calcium and phosphate absorption from the gastrointestinal tract (gut). In this way, the phosphate excreted as urine in the kidney, can be replaced by phosphate reabsorbed from the gut.

90
Q

What are the 2 key cells in bone?

A

There are two cells that can be found in bone: osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Osteoblasts work to build bone whereas osteoclasts work to consume bone, releasing powerful digestive enzymes through that dissolve bone to release calcium. The effects of calcitriol on bone depend on the levels of serum calcium.

91
Q

Outline PTH action in bone

A

Osteoblasts contain PTH receptors on their surface. When serum calcium is low, PTH binds to the receptors, stimulating the osteoblasts to produce osteoclast activating factors/OAFs (e.g. RANKL: receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand). These special factors stimulate osteoclasts, resulting in an increase in calcium reabsorption from the bone.

92
Q

Outline calcitriol action in bone

A

Osteoblasts contain calcitriol receptors on their surface. When serum calcium is low, calcitriol binds to the receptors, stimulating the osteoblasts to produce osteoclast activating factors/OAFs (e.g. RANKL: receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand). These special factors stimulate osteoclasts, resulting in an increase in calcium reabsorption from the bone. However, if serum calcium levels are normal, then calcitriol can actually work to build up bone, favouring osteoblast rather than osteoclasts.

93
Q

How is PTH regulated?

A

Once PTH increases serum calcium a negative feedback loop inhibits PTH secretion in the parathyroid glands. PTH increases 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol) synthesis via 1 alpha-hydroxylase in the kidney. This is a two-way street which allows PTH secretion to also be inhibited, by negative feedback, once calcitriol reaches certain levels.

94
Q

How does Fibroblast Growth Factor 23 (FGF23) regulate serum phosphate?

A

Fibroblast Growth Factor 23 (FGF23) is a hormone that is important for the regulation of phosphate. FGF23 reduces phosphate levels in the circulation in two ways. Normally phosphate is reabsorbed from the filtrate, and into the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of the kidney by a special sodium-phosphate co-transporter. First, it inhibits phosphate entering the PCT via the co-transporter, meaning that more phosphate is excreted in the urine. The second way is that it lowers serum phosphate levels, is by inhibiting calcitriol production, which increases phosphate reabsorption from the gut.

95
Q

What are the differences between hypercalcaemia and hypocalcaemia?

A

Hypercalcemia occurs when serum calcium levels are too high and conversely, hypocalcaemia occurs when serum calcium levels are too low. In order to have an action potential generated in nerves or skeletal muscles, a sodium (Na+) influx is required across the cell membrane. Hypercalcemia causes calcium to block the influx of sodium, leading to less membrane excitability. In contrast, hypocalcaemia enables a greater sodium influx and thus more membrane excitability.

96
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypocalcaemia?

A

Hypocalcaemia sensitises excitable tissues, leading to signs and symptoms such as; paraesthesia (tingling, particularly around the hands, mouth, feet and lips), convulsions, arrhythmias (heart rhythm problems) and tetany (muscles contract but can’t relax after) A mnemonic to remember this is: CATs go numb.

97
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign?

A

Chvostek’s sign is used as evidence of hypocalcaemia. The facial nerve is tapped just below the zygomatic arch (cheek bone), which would be irritable and sensitised in hypocalcaemia, due to more membrane excitability. Twitching of the facial muscles on that side indicates hypocalcaemia.

98
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign?

A

Trousseau’s sign is the second sign of hypocalcaemia. Inflating the blood pressure cuff for a couple of minutes induces carpopedal spasms (finger spasms). The patient’s muscles contract but cannot then relax again, a marker of neuromuscular irritability.

99
Q

What are the causes of hypocalcaemia?

A

Low PTH levels result in hypoparathyroidism. This could be down to several reasons, including damaging parathyroid glands during neck surgery, autoimmune conditions, magnesium deficiency (magnesium is required to produced PTH), congenital conditions (parathyroid glands agenesis) and Vitamin D deficiency.

100
Q

What are the causes of Vitamin D deficiency?

A

Vitamin D deficiency can be due to many different reasons. One reason is insufficient exposure to sunlight (UVB light), thus producing insufficient cholecaficerol (Vitamin D3). Another cause could be the malabsorption of ergocalciferol (Vitamin D2) from the diet, celiac disease. Liver disease could be another cause, as the liver is important for the first hydroxylation step. Renal (kidney) disease could be a cause as the second hydroxylation step is essential for calcitriol production. Very rarely, congenital vitamin D receptor defects, could be the cause.

101
Q

What conditions are associated with Vitamin D deficiency?

A

Rickets is a condition caused by Vitamin D deficiency in children. The lack of bone mineralisation leads to “soft” and bones. In adults, because their skeletons are more formed, Vitamin D deficiency manifests itself as osteomalacia. Adults with osteomalacia are more predisposed to fractures and proximal myopathy (muscles of the thighs become particularly weak).

102
Q

What are the key signs and symptoms of hypercalcaemia?

A

Hypercalcemia results in reduced neuronal excitability and atonal muscles (loss of muscle strength), as there’s more calcium competing with sodium, causing a reduced sodium influx, to generate action potentials.
The key signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia are:
1) Kidney stones (nephrocalcinosis) are caused by deposits of calcium in the kidneys.
2) Abdominal moans due to anorexia, nausea, dyspepsia (heartburn), constipation and pancreatitis (inflammation of the pancreas).
3) Psychic groans are caused fatigue, depression, impaired concentration, altered mentation and coma (usually when calcium levels >3 mmol/L).

103
Q

What are the causes of hypercalcaemia?

A

Hypercalcaemia is caused by primary hyperparathyroidism. This is characterised by the overproduction of PTH, usually due to a parathyroid adenoma. Usually negative feedback loops, when serum calcium is too high, inhibits PTH, but this is not the case in primary hyperparathyroidism. Often, certain cancers which metastasise to bones have a high calcium level because they produce local factors to activate osteoclasts, thereby increasing calcium from the bone. An excess of Vitamin D, often caused by an excess of Vitamin D supplements ingested, can also lead to hypercalcaemia.

104
Q

Why is glucose important?

A

Glucose is an important energy substrate. This is particularly true for the CNS, if blood glucose falls much below normal levels of 4-5mmol/L (hypoglycaemia), then cerebral function is increasingly impaired. If blood glucose concentration falls below 2mmol/L, unconsciousness, coma and ultimately death can occur as a result. Conversely, high glucose levels (hyperglycaemia) can cause damage to the microvasculature (e.g. blindness caused by changes to tiny arteries in the retina or ischemic heart disease). Persistent hyperglycaemia results in diabetes mellitus.

105
Q

How is glucose regulated?

A

Glucose is very closely regulated by a feedback system. The hormones that help increased blood glucose levels are glucagon (secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas gland), cortisol (secreted by the adrenal glands), growth hormone (secreted by the pituitary gland), catecholamine (secreted by the adrenal glands). Insulin is the only hormone that helps to decrease blood glucose levels.

106
Q

How does diabetes mellitus impact the UK?

A

Diabetes mellitus prevalence is increasing worldwide. In the UK, around 7% of people are affected with diabetes mellitus. A person with diabetes mellitus is 34% more likely to die relative to an age-matched control without diabetes. ~10% of the NHS budget is spent on diabetes mellitus and its associated complications, this translates to ~£11 billion/annum and more than £1,000,000/hour.

107
Q

Which type of diabetes is the most prevalent?

A

Type 2 diabetes is the most prevalent form of diabetes, accounting for ~90% of diabetes mellitus cases. Type 1 diabetes accounts for ~10% of cases and maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY) account for ~1-2% of cases.

108
Q

Outline the anatomy of the pancreas gland

A

The pancreas gland is a retroperitoneal structure, sitting in the retroperitoneal space. The pancreas gland measures roughly12-15 cm in length. The pancreas is divided into 4 regions: the head, the neck, the body and the tail, the body is the largest of the 4 regions. The head is itself subdivided into 2 areas: the uncinate process and the head proper. Insulin producing beta-cells are thought to be evenly distributed throughout the pancreas, but different structural portions play slightly different roles.

109
Q

What does the pancreas gland produce?

A

Most of the pancreas gland (98%), generates exocrine secretions (amylase, lipase and protease) via ducts to the small intestine, where they are needed for digestion. These exocrine secretions are generated by cells celled exocrine acinar cells. The remaining 2% of the pancreas is composed of small clumps of cells called islets of Langerhans, which are involved in glucose regulation. The islets of Langerhans, which only make up 2% of the pancreas gland, receive 15% of the blood supply. Across the whole pancreas gland, there is ~3 million islets of Langerhans.

110
Q

What cells can be found within the islets of Langerhans?

A

There are 3 different types of cells present within the islets of Langerhans: alpha cells (30%), beta cells (60%) and delta cells (~10%). Alpha cells secrete glucagon, beta cells secrete insulin and delta cells secrete somatostatin. Within the islets can also be found pancreatic polypeptide producing cells.

111
Q

How do cells within the islets of Langerhans communicate?

A

The cells and hormones within the islets of Langerhans don’t act independently but work together to create a balance and ensure that glucose levels are maintained. The islets cells communicate between each other via paracrine communication. This is facilitated by gap junctions, which allow small molecules to pass directly between the different types of cells and tight junctions, which create small intracellular spaces.

112
Q

Outline the roles of the hormones secreted by cells in the islets of Langerhans

A

Glucagon increases blood glucose, whereas insulin reduces blood glucose and stimulates growth and development. In fact, in utero insulin acts alongside insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF-2), to maintain foetal growth and development. Somatostatin, secreted by delta cells in the islets of Langerhans, keeps insulin and glucagon levels balanced, by a process akin to negative feedback.

113
Q

Which physiological changes following an increase in blood glucose levels, stimulate and inhibit insulin?

A

Physiological changes occur in response to increased plasma glucose concentration. This is to ensure that the glucose levels do not continue to rise beyond physiological values and persistently stay elevated. Blood glucose goes up following a meal, stimulating beta cells to produce insulin. The somatostatin negative feedback loop inhibits the overproduction of insulin (leading to hypoglycaemia), but a bit of glucagon is simultaneously produced by alpha cells. Amino acids in meals have a direct stimulatory effect on beta cells, leading to an increased production of insulin. Gastrointestinal (GI) hormones and parasympathetic nervous system activity will also increase insulin secretion by beta cells. The sympathetic nervous system will have an inhibitory effect on the beta cells mediated by its alpha-adrenergic pathways but will have a lesser stimulatory effect mediated by its beta-adrenergic pathways.

114
Q

What physiological changes does insulin stimulate?

A

Insulin causes: the build-up glycogen (rapidly mobilised form of glucose) stores in the liver by glycogenesis, the increased breakdown of glucose by glycolysis and the increased uptake of glucose to cells via GLUT4. GLUT4 is part of a glucose transporter protein family and is predominantly expressed within skeletal muscles and adipocytes. In a resting state, when insulin levels are relatively low, most of the GLUT4 is actually intracellular and is only transported to the cell membrane in response to insulin. Insulin also increases amino acid transport, in the liver, leading to an increase in protein synthesis. Insulin also causes a decrease in the rate of breakdown of fat (lipolysis) and increases the rate of fat built up (lipogenesis).

115
Q

Outline the anatomy of the insulin receptor

A

Insulin binds to the alpha-subunit, the extracellular domain, on insulin receptors (e.g. GLUT4). This causes a conformational change in the tyrosine kinase domains of the beta-subunits, allowing glucose to travel through the cell membrane and be taken up by the cell.

116
Q

Which physiological changes in response to decreased blood glucose levels, stimulate and inhibit glucagon?

A

Physiological changes occur in response to reduced plasma glucose concentration. This is to ensure that the glucose levels do not continue to fall, thereby compromising energy/substrate delivery. Following a reduction in plasma glucose levels, alpha cells are stimulated to secrete glucagon, which inhibits any insulin from being secreted by beta cells. The somatostatin negative feedback loop inhibits the overproduction of glucagon (leading to hyperglycaemia). Certain types of amino acids and certain types of gastrointestinal (GI) hormones also have a stimulatory effect on the alpha cells. Both the parasympathetic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system, mediated by its alpha-adrenergic pathways, will have a stimulatory effect on the alpha cells.

117
Q

What physiological changes does glucagon stimulate?

A

There are 3 main mechanisms by which glucagon acts. Glucagon increases the rate of breakdown of fat by lipolysis, which in turn allows glucose to be released by gluconeogenesis, thus increasing plasma glucose levels. Glucagon also increases amino acid transport into the liver, which helps increase the rate of gluconeogenesis. Glucagon also increases the rate of breakdown of glycogen reserves in the liver, by hepatic glycogenolysis, thereby increasing the concentration of plasma glucose.

118
Q

Outline the mechanism by which insulin is secreted by beta cells

A

GLUT2 is the is the receptor found on beta cell membranes, and it is not insulin sensitive. Rather, it has a very high affinity for glucose, so the concentration of plasma glucose is therefore reflected by the intracellular glucose concentration of the of the beta cell.

1) When glucose passes across the GLUT2 transporter, it is converted to glucose-6-phosphate, the first stage of glycolysis. This step is mediated by glucokinase (hexokinase IV), which is the main glucose sensor. Glucokinase, unlike other hexokinases found in the body, is not subject to negative feedback, meaning that glucose-6-phosphate does not inhibit glucokinase activity.
2) This allows continual conversion of glucose into glucose-6-phosphate, which is then converted down the glycolysis pathway into ATP. Extracellular glucose levels = intracellular glucose levels = intracellular ATP produced.
3) ATP then closes potassium gated channels on the surface of the beta cell, preventing the extracellular efflux of potassium.
4) The relative increase in intracellular potassium leads to membrane depolarisation, which opens calcium voltage gated channels.
5) This leads to an influx of calcium, which promotes insulin secretion by the beta cell.

119
Q

How is insulin stored in beta cells?

A

Insulin is stored as proinsulin in beta cells. When calcium stimulates insulin secretion, proinsulin undergoes proteolytic cleavage, forming C-peptide and insulin, as products.

120
Q

Why can insulin levels not be easily measured?

A

Insulin is a phenomenally unstable compound, so although there are ways of measuring it, C-peptide levels are measured instead, as it can be seen as a marker of endogenous insulin reserves.

121
Q

What is the gastrointestinal “incretin” effect?

A

The gastrointestinal “incretin” effect is observed when glucose is ingested. It relates to the physiological changes that occur in the body as a result of different modalities of administering glucose. When glucose is administered either intravenously or orally, the trends in plasma glucose levels are similar, with both modes causing a plasma glucose concentration peak after around 45 minutes, before plasma glucose levels begin to fall. However, whilst intravenous glucose causes a similar concentration of insulin to be secreted in relation to the increased plasma glucose concentration, glucose administered orally causes a much greater concentration of insulin to be secreted relative to the increased plasma glucose levels.

122
Q

What is glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)?

A

Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1), is a gastrointestinal tract (gut) hormone, secreted in response to nutrients in the gut. It is the transcription product of the pro-glucagon gene, which is itself mainly formed from L-cells, found in the distal gut. GLP-1 stimulates insulin secretion and suppresses glucagon secretion and increases satiety (feeling of fullness). It has a relatively short half-life as it is rapidly degraded by the enzyme dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor (DPPG-4 inhibitor). The hormone is now used as a treatment for type 2 diabetes.

123
Q

How does type 2 diabetes affect the first phase insulin release response?

A

Insulin resistance causes the first phase insulin release response to be to be overproduced to compensate for the excess glucose. When a heathy individual ingests glucose, their insulin levels increase drastically causing their blood glucose levels to decrease and stay down. However, in type 2 diabetes the whole system is then blunted, beta cells are then unable to produce enough insulin to counteract the high blood glucose levels. As a result, the glucose level stays up, and travels into parts of the body contain GLUT1, GLUT2 and GLUT3 transporters, as they are all insulin independent.

124
Q

What happened when blood glucose levels increase?

A

When blood glucose levels increase, the two main actions of insulin are decreasing hepatic (liver) glucose output, by encouraging glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis, and increasing muscle uptake of glucose. As there is plenty of glucose in circulation, alternative energy sources are not needed, so insulin inhibits both proteolysis and lipolysis. Decreasing lipolysis results in decreased ketogenesis (production of ketone bodies from fat molecules).

125
Q

How does glucose enter cells?

A

Glucose enters cells via glucose transporters, a very important one being the GLUT4 glucose transporter. GLUT4 is commonly found in myocytes (muscle cells) and adipocytes (fat cells) and is very highly insulin responsive. GLUT4 lies in vesicles and is recruited and enhanced by insulin to sit in the cell membrane.

126
Q

How does the anatomy of GLUT4 transporters aid in their function?

A

GLUT4 is composed of a hydrophobic component on the outside and a hydrophilic component on the inside, allowing a 7-fold increase in glucose uptake into various cells.

127
Q

How does insulin effect metabolism in myocytes?

A

Myocytes (muscle cells) contain a lot of protein. In the fed state, where blood glucose levels are high, insulin is released, as protein is no longer need as a fuel source. Protein breakdown is therefore inhibited by insulin, whilst proteogenesis (amino acids to protein) is promoted by insulin, growth hormone (GH) and insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). When gluconeogenic amino acids are needed elsewhere, the amino acids leave the muscle cells and enter the liver, a process promoted by cortisol. Insulin also inhibits the process of oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria of myocytes.

128
Q

Outline gluconeogenesis in the liver

A

During the fasting state, the liver takes up gluconeogenic amino acids released by proteins in myocytes, a process enhanced by glucagon, as alternative energy sources are needed. In the fed state, insulin stimulates the amino acids to be converted into proteins and stored within the liver. At the same time, insulin also inhibits gluconeogenesis (conversion of amino acids into glucose), thereby reduce hepatic glucose output. Conversely, in the fasting state glucagon encourages the breakdown of protein into amino acids, and alongside cortisol, encourages gluconeogenesis, thereby increasing hepatic glucose output.

129
Q

How abundant are different fuel stores in the body?

A

In the short term, energy comes from carbohydrates, which are stored in the liver and muscle. Within ~16 hours of prolonged fasting, carbohydrate energy stores become depleted. Protein, which makes up about 20% of fuel stores, then begins to be used as the alternative energy source, lasting ~15 days. The biggest energy store in the body is fat, taking 30-40 days to be depleted.

130
Q

How does eating lead to triglyceride metabolism?

A

Eating causes an increase in triglycerides in the blood stream. Triglycerides are fairly large molecules, so can’t be taken up directly by adipocytes. Thus, they must be broken down first. They are broken down, by insulin activated lipoprotein lipase (LPL), into non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) and glycerol (GLY), which can then be taken up by adipocytes. In the fed state, glucose can be taken up by GLUT4 transporters on the cell membrane of adipocytes, another process encouraged by insulin. Glucose and insulin, in the adipocyte, promote the GLY and NEFA to be converted back into triglycerides for storage. Insulin simultaneously inhibits the breakdown of those triglycerides. However, in the fasting state, with low glucose ad insulin levels, triglycerides are able to breakdown to glycerol and NEFA, encouraged by growth hormone (GH) and cortisol. GLY and NEFA can then be released from the adipocytes and taken up into the liver.

131
Q

How does glycerol increase hepatic glucose output (HGO)?

A

Glycerol can be taken up by the liver, where it can be stored as triglycerides, during the fed state. In the starving state, if a glucose output from the liver is required, glycerol will then be converted into glucose by gluconeogenesis, thereby increasing hepatic glucose output (HGO). Hepatic gluconeogenesis accounts for 25% of HGO after a 10 hour fast.

132
Q

What is the role of hepatic portal circulation?

A

There is a separate hepatic portal circulation, which allows the blood to go straight from the heart to the gastrointestinal tract. There, any nutrients can be picked up and taken straight to the liver for processing. Insulin can also be released straight into the hepatic portal circulation, meaning that when there is an increase in blood glucose levels, insulin can be released quickly to target cells.

133
Q

Which substance can the brain not utilise as fuel?

A

Most tissues in the body can utilise, glucose, ketones and non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA), as fuel. However, the brain is incapable of using NEFA as fuel. This makes it unique among body tissues. The brain mostly uses glucose, which is the preferred energy source, and if need be, it can use ketone bodies, but it can never use NEFA.

134
Q

How are ketone bodies produced?

A

Ketone bodies are produced when non-esterified fatty acids, produced by adipocytes, are taken up by the liver. In the fed state, insulin inhibits the breakdown of NEFA, in the liver, into ketone bodies (e.g. Acetyl CoA, Acetoacetate, Acetone + 3OH-B). However, in the prolonged fasting state, glucagon encourages the breakdown of NEFA to produce ketone bodies, in the liver. The ketone bodies are then released from the liver. This is why it is so worrying for a patient to have high blood glucose and ketone body levels, as the two should never coincide, in a healthy individual.

135
Q

Outline hepatic glycogenolysis

A

In the fed state, glucose can enter the liver the GLUT4 transporters, with the help of insulin. Insulin also encourages the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate and then to glycogen, for storage. However, in the prolonged fasting state, glucagon will encourage the breakdown of glycogen into Glucose-6-phosphate. This can then be converted into glucose and released from the liver. The process of generating glucose from glycogen stores, in the liver, is hepatic glycogenolysis.

136
Q

How do myocytes use glucose for energy?

A

In the fed state, glucose is taken up by myocytes (muscle cells), a process encouraged by insulin, here it can be stored as glycogen. However, in a prolonged starving state, glucose uptake, by myocytes, is inhibited by inhibited by growth hormone (GH) and glucagon. The glycogen stores in the myocyte are then converted into glucose, which can then be converted into Acetyl CoA, to be used by mitochondria within the myocytes, as the glucose cannot be released back into circulation. Myocytes can also use non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) as another energy source.

137
Q

What physiological changes occur in the fasting state?

A

In the fasting state, there is a low insulin-to-glucagon ratio, normally glucose levels are maintained between 3-5.5 mmol/L. Non-esterified fatty acid (NEFA) levels increase and amino acid levels increase initially but are eventually used up in a prolonged fast. Proteolysis, lipolysis and hepatic glucose output (HGO) from glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, all increase. Muscle cells use NEFA from lipids, while the brain uses glucose and later ketone bodies. Ketogenesis increases in a prolonged fasting state.

138
Q

What physiological changes occur in the fed state?

A

In the fed state, insulin is initially released, referred to as the first phase insulin release from stored insulin. This is then followed by a slower insulin release, referred to as the second phase. This leads to a high insulin-to-glucagon ratio. Insulin release stops hepatic glucose output (HGO) and decreases both gluconeogenesis and proteolysis. However, it does increase glycogen storage, protein synthesis and lipogenesis.

139
Q

How is diabetes mellitus diagnosed?

A

Diabetes mellitus is diagnosed when you have 1 positive test + symptoms, or 2 positive tests of:

1) A high fasting glucose concentration (>7.0 mmol/L)
2) A high random glucose level (>11.1 mmol/L),
3) An oral glucose test (i.e. fasting glucose, 75g glucose load and 2-hour glucose)
4) A high HbA1c (>48 mmol/mol), which gives an average of glucose over the last three months

140
Q

What is T1DM?

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is an autoimmune condition that eventually leads to T cell mediated destruction of insulin producing beta cells in the pancreas. This continual destruction of beta cells goes eventually leads to absolute insulin deficiency.

141
Q

What are the conditions linked with T1DM?

A

If the pancreas is unable to produce any insulin, this leads to proteinolysis, increased hepatic glucose output (HGO), which can lead to polyuria (frequent urination), nocturia (urination at night) and polydipsia (excessive thirst), and lipolysis. Prolonged lipolysis can cause non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) to be converted into ketone bodies. This can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis, which is a serious acute complication.

142
Q

What causes polyuria, nocturia and polydipsia?

A

1) High glucose concentrations cause the kidney threshold (10mmol/L) to be reached, glucose diffuses into urine, causing an osmotic diuresis (water move into the urine), leading to polyuria and nocturia.
2) The polydipsia is caused by the water lost in urine needing to be replaced regularly, due to plasma osmolarity.

143
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of T1DM?

A

The common signs and symptoms of T1DM include weight loss, hyperglycaemia, glycosuria with osmotic symptoms (e.g. polyuria, nocturia and polydipsia) and ketone bodies in the blood and urine.

144
Q

What are the additional tests done to diagnose T1DM?

A

In clinical practise, there are some useful diagnostic tests used to distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. T1DM is normally associated with:

1) The presence of antibodies (GAD and IA2)
2) C-peptide (correlates to low insulin levels)
3) Ketones

145
Q

How can taking too much insulin lead to hypoglycaemia?

A

One of the major challenges that people with T1DM have, is their reliance on exogenous insulin for treatments. Taking exogenous insulin allows the non-functioning insulin secreting beta cells in the pancreas, to be bypassed, however taking too much exogenous insulin can induce hypoglycaemia, very low blood glucose levels. This is due to the fact that too much insulin can halt hepatic glucose output (HGO), causing blood glucose levels to fall. As the mechanism for inhibiting insulin production does not function, the exogenous insulin simply remains in circulation, continuously decreasing blood glucose levels.

146
Q

Why do those with T1DM often have many hypoglycaemic episodes?

A

When blood glucose levels start dropping, some hormones (e.g. glucagon, catecholamines, cortisol and growth hormones) are secreted to stop blood glucose levels dropping too low. They do this by increasing hepatic glucose output (HGO), through increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, they also increase lipolysis for an additional alternative energy source. Although this mechanism does exist in those with T1DM, their bodies have a reduced ability to recognise hypoglycaemia and recurrent episodes of hypoglycaemia could cause the body to increase the threshold for when the counter regulatory response kicks in.

147
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

The autonomic (initial) signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, palpitations, pallor, shaking and hunger. As glucose drops further signs and symptoms become neuroglycopenic (affecting the brain) and include slurred speech, poor vision, seizures confusion and potentially loss of consciousness.

148
Q

What is severe hypoglycaemia?

A

Severe hypoglycaemia is a medical emergency as is defined as an episode where a person needs third party assistance to be treated.

149
Q

What snack is often give to those having a hypoglycaemic episode?

A

Jelly babies are often given to patients suffering from an episode of hypoglycaemia as they are quick acting carbohydrates (glucose).

150
Q

What treatment is given to unconscious patients suffering a hypoglycaemic episode?

A

A 1mg intramuscular (IM) injection of glucagon is given to unconscious patients suffering from a severe episode of hypoglycaemia.

151
Q

What is insulin resistance?

A

Insulin resistance plays a major role in the pathophysiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM). Insulin resistance resides in the liver, muscle and adipose tissues, so all metabolic sides and all arms of intermediary metabolism that involves glucose and fatty acids. Unlike T1DM, in T2DM, there is generally enough insulin in circulation to suppress ketogenesis and proteolysis.

152
Q

What are the 2 pathways of insulin resistance?

A

1) When insulin binds to insulin receptors, the PI3K-Akt pathway is activated, resulting in a range of metabolic actions (e.g. glucose and fat metabolism). Insulin resistance resides within this pathway, but even though insulin is not working as it should, the body compensate by producing more insulin, helping to maintain blood pressure within the normal range. In this way, an individual can have insulin resistance without having diabetes for quite a long time, until the body can no longer cope, and blood glucose levels begin to increase.
2) When insulin binds to the insulin receptor, another pathway called them MAPK pathway, responsible for the growth and proliferation action of insulin, is also activated. There is no insulin resistance residing within this pathway, when an individual has insulin resistance, peripheral insulin concentration. This causes side effects which can lead to problems such as high blood pressure.

153
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of insulin resistance?

A

Systemic insulin resistance can lead to a multitude of problems, including hypertension (BP > 135/80 mmHg), increased waist circumference in both men and women, high fasting glucose associated with prediabetes (>6.0 mmol/L), inflammatory states and increased energy expenditure.

154
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of T2DM?

A

T2DM presents with hyperglycaemia, obesity, dyslipidaemia (abnormal conc. of lipids in blood), fewer osmotic symptoms than T1DM, insulin resistance, later development of insulin deficiency and further complication.

155
Q

What are the complications associated with T2DM?

A

Complications of T2DM can cause:

1) Retinopathy - problems with eyes (one of the leading causes of blindness in the UK)
2) Nephropathy - renal failure and end stage renal impairment requiring dialysis
3) Neuropathy – problems with nerves leading to amputations
4) Cardiovascular issues – problems with microvasculature leading to strokes and myocardial infarctions.

156
Q

What are the risk factors associated with T2DM?

A

There are several risk factors associated with T2DM, including: age, high BMI, ethnicity (Asians often high-risk category), polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), family history and inactivity.

157
Q

How is T2DM managed by patients?

A

T2DM is managed through diet, oral medication, structured education and perhaps insulin later in life.

158
Q

What are the dietary recommendations of T2DM?

A

There are various dietary recommendations associated with T2DM, including total calories control, so reducing calories as fat and refined carbohydrate, but increasing calories as complex carbohydrate. Increase soluble fibre but decrease sodium.

159
Q

How is T1DM managed?

A

T1DM is managed by:

1) Using exogenous insulin (basal-bolus regime), a long acting insulin injection once or twice a day and a quick acting insulin injection 3 times a day before eating
2) Self-monitoring glucose with finger prick testing at least four times a day
3) Structured education
4) Different technologies to help people self-manage (e.g. insulin pumps and continuous glucose monitoring technologies)

160
Q

What education programmes are available for diabetes mellitus?

A

There are different education programmes available:

1) Dose Adjustment For Normal Eating (DAFNE), which is specific for T1DM education
2) Diabetes Education and Self Management for Ongoing and Newly Diagnosed (DESMOND) course, which is specific for T2DM education

161
Q

What causes impaired insulin secretion in T2DM?

A

This is caused by pancreatic beta-cells dysfunctioning, owing to lipotoxicity, glucotoxicity and resistance to incretins (intestinal hormones that stimulate insulin secretion). Peripheral hormones (e.g. kidneys, liver and muscle) become insulin resistant, leading to reduced glucose uptake from blood, excessive glucose reabsorption by the kidney and increased gluconeogenesis, leading to hyperglycaemia.

162
Q

What are the different causes of insulin resistance?

A

1) Genetic abnormalities
2) Ectopic lipid accumulation
3) Mitochondrial dysfunction
4) Inflammation
5) Endoplasmic reticulum stress

163
Q

What determines the severity of microvascular complications?

A

The severity and duration of hyperglycaemia determines the risk of microvascular complications such as, retinopathy, nephropathy and neuropathy.

164
Q

Which macrovascular complications are associated with T2DM?

A

Macrovascular complications usually result from dislipidaemia, hypertension, hyperglycaemia and inflammation, and include:

1) Myocardial infarction
2) Peripheral vascular disease
3) Stroke

165
Q

What is the single most important risk factor for T2DM?

A

A BMI >25 is the single most important risk factor, however the prevalence of T2DM has increased dramatically in China and India, despite the low prevalence of obesity. This may be explained by different fat-versus-muscle-mass ratios, different fat tissue distribution and a greater severity of beta-cell failure.

166
Q

What is the initial medication used to treat T2DM?

A

Metformin is generally the preferred initial medication for treating type 2 diabetes, unless there’s a specific reason not to use it, as it allows the body to better respond to insulin and decreases hepatic glucose output (HGO). Metformin is effective, safe as it does not cause hypoglycaemia, inexpensive and does not cause weight gain, unlike other diabetes medications. Serious side effects from metformin are exceedingly rare, occurring only in 1 in 10,000 people.