Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What is empagliflozin

A

Glifozin class
sodium glucose co-transporter-2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor
induces glucose excretion via the kidney

Reduces Major Adverse Cardiac Event risk
i.e. reduces cardiac death and CCF

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2
Q

What is liraglutide

A

GLP-1 - glucagon like peptide 1

potentiates insulin release
inhibits glucagon release
slows gastric emptying

have a BMI of 35 kg/m2 or higher (adjust accordingly for people from black, Asian and other minority ethnic groups) and specific psychological or other medical problems associated with obesity or

have a BMI lower than 35 kg/m2and:

for whom insulin therapy would have significant occupational implications or

weight loss would benefit other significant obesity‑related comorbidities

REDUCES MACE

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3
Q

Whats is the therapeutic range of glicazide

A

25-160mg

little evidence of increased effect beyond 160mg dose - flat dose response curve beyond this

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4
Q

What is Diabetic Amyotrophy

A

Aetiology unclear

Poor diabetic control results in LMN lesions below sacral plexus
sensory motor neuropathy
-proximal weakness
-neuropathic pain
-loss of reflex arc
-flaccid plantars
-loss of tone bilaterally

Treatment:
TIGHTER CONTROL
TRANSITION TO INSULIN

RECOVERY = 3-4 MONTHS
ONLY 50% GO BACK TO BASELINE

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5
Q

What causes false positives in dexamethasone suppression tests?

A

Dex is metabolised by the cytochrome p450A system
Induction of the enzyme will lead to greater breakdown of dex and a failure to exert an effect on central ACTH production

i.e. Appearance of failed suppresion = ? ectopic ACTH
NB Ectopic ACTH is most commonly from bronchial tumour

p450 INDUCERS = SCRAP GP
Sulponylureas - gliclazide /tolbutamide
Carbemazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol
phenytoin

griseofulvin
phenobarbitol

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6
Q

When is insulin initiated in DM2

A

At the second intensification of treatment

1. Start metformin and titrate
2 Dual therapy (metformin +...
sulphonylurea  - gliclazide - potentiate insulin release
DPP4 i  -  gliptins - increase GLP-1 and GIP halflife
SGLT-2i - empagliflozin urinary excretion
pioglitazone  - (TZD PPAR-y)
3 triple therapy
metformin +SU + sitagliptin
metformin + SU + pioglitazone
metformin + SU + SGLT-2
metformin + pioglitazone + SGLT-2
metformin + SU + GLP-1

4 Insulin + METFORMIN / GLP-1

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7
Q

Describe how to managed type 2 diabetes

A
Principal : Education
Diet control
Exercise
yearly screening - opth / podiatry
Agree on HbA1c target

HbA1c >48 = MONOTHERAPY
Start metformin and titrate
increase insulin sensitivity

HbA1c >58 = DUAL THERAPY = AIM <53
FIRST INTENSIFICATION
a) Metformin and a gliptin (DPP4-i)
(sitagliptin - increase GLP-1 and GIP halflife)
or
b) Metformin and sulfonylurea -
(gliclazide - potentiate insulin release)
or
c) Metformin and SGLT-2 inhibitor - gliflozin class
(empagliflozin - induce glucose urinary excretion)
or
d) Metformin and TZD - PPAR-y agonist
(pioglitazone - drive FFA storage and increase CHO use)

HbA1c remains >58 = TRIPLE THERAPY AIM <53
SECOND INTENSIFICATION
METFORMIN + SULPHONYLUREA+
a) TZD pioglitazone - PPAR-y agonist
b) DPP4i sitagliptin - increase GLP-1 and GIP halflife
or
METFORMIN + PIOGLITAZONE+
c) SGLT-2 inhibitor - empagliflozin - increase cho in urine

d) Trial GLP-1 with triple therapy
metformin pioglitazone liraglutide

e) INSULIN + metfomrin
f) INSULIN + GLP-1

Review:
Continue liraglutide if HbA1c has fallen and weight loss 3% in 6 months
Consider insulin + GLP-1 - specialist review

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8
Q

How do the Gliptins (DPP4-i) help in blood glucose control and when should they be considered?

A

Gliptins are DPP4 - i (Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor)
They inhibit DPP4
This results in a longer halflife of circulaiton GLP-1 and GIP which together
1. increase incretin stimualted insulin production
2. suppress glucagon release

Use:
Second line agent in combination with metformin if metformin alone doese not lower HbA1c <58

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9
Q

Describe what happens in relation to normal GLP-1 and GIP

A
  1. meal ingestin
  2. incretin release
  3. production of GLP-1 and GIP
    - DPP-4 breaks these two proteins down
  4. GLP and GIP act on B islets to stimulate insulin release
    - increased cellular glucose uptake via glut-4
  5. GLP-1 acts on A cells to inhibit production of glucagon
    - reduced hepatic neogenesis and glycogenolysis
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10
Q

How do TZDs work and what is an example of one?

When are they used?

A

Thiazalidinediones - aka glitazones e.g. PIOGLITAZONE

Second line agent to be used in combination with metformin for blood glucose lowering

MOA:
Pioglitazone binds the nuclear receptor PPAR-y
Cobinding to retinoid receptor X this induces transcription of proteins that INCREASE FREE FATTY ACID STORGE

This shifts cellular metabolic dependency to carbohydrates and away from fatty acids and ketons

Thus the cell must increase expression of glut-4 / glut-2 and increase absorption of glucose lowering circulating glucose levels

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11
Q

When is metformin contraindicated

A

EGFR <30
need dose adjustment <45
AKI
Lactic acidosis

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12
Q

If metformin is not tolerated / contraindicated what should initial management of DM2 begin with

A

1) education
diet / lifestye / compliance / HbA1c monitoring and FU
2) initiate monotherapy
TZD - pioglitazone ppar-y agonist
DPP4i - the gliptins which increase GLP-1 and GIP halflife
Sulphonylurea - gliclazide - potentiate insulin release
SGT
AIM HbA1c <48 or <53 if on sulphonylurea

3) dual therapy
Pioglitazone + SGLT-2 i (emplagliflozin)
Pioglitazone + sulphonylurea
Sulphonylurea +DPP4 - i

4) triple therapy or insulin
pioglitazone + SU + SGLT-2
sulphonyl urea + DPP4 i + SGLT-2i

Pioglitazone + GLP-1 + SGLT-2

5) insulin + metformin
6) insulin + GLP-1

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13
Q

When is a pioglitazone contra-indicated

A

heart failure or history of heart failure

hepatic impairment

diabetic ketoacidosis

current, or a history of, bladder cancer

uninvestigated macroscopic haematuria.

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14
Q

What oral antidiabetic agents do you know and how do they work

A

Metformin - monotherapy
weight loss
no risk of hypoglycaemia
increases insulin sensitivity - GLUT-4 transcription

Sulphonylurea - glicalzide
risk of hypo
potentiates insulin release
weight gain is common

DPP4i - sitagliptin
suppress appetite due to greater GLP-1 and GIP circulation
risk of pancreatitis and drug reaction

Thiazalidinediones - pioglitazone
PPAR-y agonist together with RXR protein increase FFA storage and push energy metabolism to favour CHO

GLP-1 like agonist - liraglutide
mimic action of GLP-1 on B islets potentiating insulin release and on a cells suppressing glucagon release
can promote weight loss but due to risk of hypo should be carefully monitored especially if on insulin currently

SGLT-2 - empagliflozin
Potentiates increase in urinary glucose excretion - blocks PCT reabsorption.

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15
Q

How is insulin initiated?

A

For DM2 insulin should be continued alongside metformin
-Start intermediate acting insulin BD (NPH / ISOPHANE /
independent / can self administer

-Start long acting - levemir / glargine / detemir
Reducing to once daily injection if needs carer support
unable to self administer
risk of hypoglycaemia
poor compliance

-Start mixed / biphasic insulin preparation if the HbA1c is >75 on review

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16
Q

How does post partum thyroiditis present?

A

3-7 months post partum
Weight gain post partum
low mood
fatigue

anti-TPO antibodies present in 30-52%

40% will develop permanent hypothyroidism - majority of these are TPO positive

Mx:
low dose thyroxine 50mcg and withdraw after 6 months to measure recovery

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17
Q

How does Kallman syndrome present?

A

ISOLATED GONADOTROPHIN DEFICIENCY

Infertility
Anosmia
Lost libido
Gonadal deficiency
absent secondary sexual chars

LOW LH
LOW TESTOSTERONE

NORMAL FSH (high in kleinfelter)

Mx:
Need GnRH or pulsed gonadotrophin therapy
Testosterone replacement - will not resolve fertility

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18
Q

How does Kleinfelter syndrome present?

A

XXY chromosomal disorder
androgen deficiency - limited testosterone production and high fsh and lh

Present early:
poor sexual development
small or undescended testicles
gynaecomastia
infertility
learning disabilities

Associated:
DM2
breast Ca
tall

Mx:
Androgen replacement

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19
Q

What are causes of raised prolactin

A
  1. pregnancy
  2. COCP
  3. prolacintoma - prolactin >1000
Prolactinoma may present with:
erectile dysfunction
lactation on minimal stimualtion
vaginal dryness
lost libido
amenorrhoea

Prolactin suppresses FSH and LH production

Mx:
Dopamine agonist - suppreses prolactin
BROMOCRIPTINE / ROPINIROLE / CABERGOLINE / PERGOLIDE
nb side effect of cabergoline and pergolide = pericarditis
MRI pit fossa
SURGERY

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20
Q

What are side effects and contraindications to pioglitazone

A

Pioglitazone is a TZD which acts on PPAR-y stimualting FFA storage and shifting metabolic focus to glucose metabolism

It has notable side effects including fluid retention and bone demineralisation

It actively improves hepatic steatosis

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21
Q

What is deQuervains Thyroiditis?
How does it present?
What might blood tests show?

A

Inflammatory post viral or inter-viral thyroiditis that causes

  • Painful thyroid gland
  • Transient period of hyperthyroidism secondary to damage to thyroid follicles
  • rendering of a euthyroid state
  • new hypothyroidism which is mostly transient

Management

  • conservative
  • NSAID
  • small proportion will remain hypo and need
  • beta blockade for hyperthyroid phase
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22
Q

What is Hashimotos Thyroiditis

A

Autoimmune hypothyroidism
Anti TPO abs

Painless hard goitre

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23
Q

What is Reidels Thyroiditis?

A

Euthyroid Goitre
Woody fibrosis

Risk of Tracheal compression

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24
Q

How is Acromegally diagnosed?

A
1. History
Dentures not fitting
Shoes dont fit
Shovel hands
Frontal bossing
Wide spaced teeth from maxilla hyper
trophy
Coarse hair
finger measurement
Temporal field defect = optic chiasm adenoma
weight gain
new onset DM2 / insulin resistane
  1. IGF-1 screening

3.OGTT
IGF-1 / GH / glucose at time = 0
75g glucose oral
Measure GH / glucose at 30 60 90 120 150 180
Glucose bolus should stimulate insulin production and suppress IGF and GH.
Failure to suppress = Likely macroadenoma

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25
Q

What is DI?

How many types are there?

A

5 types of DI
Basis is a failure to concentrate urine resulting in polydipsia and polyuria.

-Central DI is due to an ADH deficiency
ages of 10 and 20 and occurs in males and females =
Idiopathic
Tumours
cranial surgery or HI
  • Nephrogenic DI is due to ADH insensitivity
  • Dipsogenic DI is due to abnormal thirst mechanisms in the hypothalamus

-Gestational DI occurs only during pregnancy.
Placenta produces vessopressinase - breaks down arginine vassopressin
If excessive can lead to DI
Treat with desmopressin - not vassopressin as this will be broken down
Also caused by gestational Toxemias - imparied hepatic clearance of normal vessopressinase therefore less active ADH and more urine produced and excreted

-Psychogenic polydipsia may also manifest as DI but unlike DI will respond to a water deprivation test

Diagnosis:
Serum and urine osm
Urine Na
water deprivation test - measure urine output over 24 hours + remeasure urine and serum osm to see if urine is concentrated. In central and nephrogenic, gestational it will not. Dipsogenic and psychogenic it will.

Typically the urine will be very dilute (low urine osm compared to serum osm) and production can exceeed 20L/day

Mx:
Central and Gestational = ADH replacement - vassopressin
Gestational: desmopressin
Nephrogenic - treat underlying cause or use indapamide / bendroflumethiazide

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26
Q

What are the water deprivation and vassopressin challenges and what are they used for

A

Used to diagnose and distinguish the forms of Diabetes Insipidus and rule out primary polydipsia

1L fluid restriction put in place for 24 hours

  • measure the changes in body weight, urine output, and urine composition when fluids are withheld to induce dehydration.
  • The body’s normal response to dehydration is to conserve water by concentrating the urine. Those with DI continue to urinate large amounts of dilute urine in spite of water deprivation. I
  • In primary polydipsia, the urine osmolality should increase and stabilize at above 280 Osm/kg with fluid restriction, while a stabilization at a lower level indicates diabetes insipidus.
  • Stabilization = increase in urine osmolality is less than 30 Osm/kg per hour for at least three hours.[

Desmopressin stimulation

  • drink fluids or water only when thirsty to avoid cerebral oedema
  • If desmopressin reduces urine output and increases urine osmolarity, the hypothalamic production of ADH is deficient, and the kidney responds normally to exogenous vasopressin (desmopressin).
  • If the DI is due to renal pathology, desmopressin does not change either urine output or osmolarity (since the endogenous vasopressin levels are already high).
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27
Q

How does a phaeochromocytoma present?

A

TYPICAL:
HTN + Paroxysms of headache + palpitations + sweating

MEN2A and MEN2B

Also less commonly - Acute heart failure
-cateholaine induced cardiomyopathy

Most commonly:
Adrenal medullary tumour
Often bilateral
If not - preganglionic often

If cannot be located on CT = 131 MIBG scan to localise source of metanephrin production

ALSO:
Acute heart failure
Flushing
Tachycardia
syncopal / pre-syncopal
hypotensive / hypertensive
confusion

MX:
24 hour urinary catecholamines / metanephrins
adrenal androgens
renin:aldosterone ratio for HTN

RX:
Surgery
Alpha blockade first - PHENOXYBENZAMINE
If b blockade first can be sent into hypertensive crisis

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28
Q

What are the multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes

A

Cause:
2 hit hypoth - genetic and somatic in MEN1 gene
Transcripts found in all body systems

MEN1 patients usually have a family history of MEN1. Inheritance is autosomal dominant

Carcinoid tumours are also associated

MEN I (3 Ps) - Pituitary, Pancreatic,  Parathyroid, 
MEN IIa (2Ps, 1M) - Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Ca + Parathyroid
MEN IIb (1P, 2Ms) - Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Ca, Marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuroma
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29
Q

How is gestational Grave’s disease managed?

A
Thyroxine does not cross the placental barrier
Other will be experiencing symptoms of GD
 - hypertension
 - palpitations 
 - headache
 - flushing and anxiety
 - sweating
 - thyroid acropatchy
 - exophthalmos
 - smooth goitre - painless

MX:
Abs = ANTI-THYROID ANTIBODY POSITIVE
Thyroid receptor stimulating antibodies
TSH neg

RX:
No need to block and replace
Instead block and monitor T4 levels aiming to keep in upper 2/3 of normal range

USE CARBIMAZOLE LATE - LESS HEPATOTOXICITY IN PREGNANCY
PROPYLTHIOURACIL CAN BE USED IN EARLY PREGNANCY BUT NOT IN LATE

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30
Q

How does Paget’s disease cause deformity?

osteitis deformans

A

Paget’s disease is described in four stages

1 - Increased Osteoclastic activity VIA RANK-L - loss lamellar bone
2 - Mixed osteoclastic – osteoblastic activity
3 - Osteoblastic activity - lay down trabecular bone - weak - and replace marrow with highly vascularised trabecullar bone
Eventually the whole struture becomes decellularised = BURNED OUT PAGETS
4 - Malignant degeneration - 1% osteosarcoma

Overall this leads to

1) lytic lesions / wedge fractures / spont fractures / osteolytica circumspecta of the skull
2) MSCC / hip fractures
3) malignant osteosarcoma in a minority
4) pancytopenia

MX:
BONE SCAN
SKELETAL SURVEY
BISPHOSPHONATES
6 MONTHLY ALP LEVELS

Goal of therapy is to normalise bone turnover and ALP is a marker of this

typical bloods at presentation
NORMAL CALCIUM and PHOSPHATE
RAISED ALP
NORMAL LFTS OTHERWISE without history of ALD / hepatitis / psc / pbc and no jaundice

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31
Q

What is the function of the adrenal gland

- ZONA GFR=ACT

A

The functions of the adrenal gland can be split into 3 anatomically distinct regions of the cortex

1. Zona glomerulosa = ALDOSTERONE
REABSORB SALT AND EXCRETE POTASSIUM
reduces renin production (initial stimulus)
2. Zona fasciculata =  CORTISOL
GLUCOSE / METABOLISM / INFLAMMATION
3. Zona reticularis = TESTOSTERONE
FERTILITY / LIBIDO
Peripheral tissues 
Testosterone to DIHYDROTESTOSTERON via 5a reductase
Testosterone to oestrogen via AROMATASE
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32
Q

What is CONN SYNDROME and how is it different to LIDDLE SYNDROME?
How is it diagnosed?
What causes it?
How is it treated?

A

Principally Conn and Liddle are very similar
Both result in the effects of hyperactivation of the NA/K DCT exchanger
HYPERTENSION
HYPOKALAEMIA
HYPERNATRAEMIA / NORMAL / NORMAL HIGH
METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

HOWEVER

CONN
= HYPERSECRETION OF ALDOSTERONE
-Renin suppressed
-High Aldosterone
-acidified urine - activation of Na+/H+ exchanger
-metabolic alkalosis
=Primary hyporeninaemic hyperaldosteronism

Constant secretion of aldosterone from zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex either due to a ZG hyperplasia or adenoma
= Hyporeninaemic hyperaldosteronism with hypernatremic, hypokalemic, metabolic alkalosis.

LIDDLE 
= HYPERACTIVATION OF DCT SODIUM/K+ EXCHANGER 
-Renin and Aldosterone suppressed
-urine acidified
-metabolic alkalosis

Actions:
DCT and CD = sodium absorption / K+ excretion
DCT H+ / Na+ exchanger = acidifies urine / absorbs sodium

CONSEQUENCES:
Plasma volume expansion results due to osmosis
BP rise = > Atrial stretch + JMA reduces renin
ANP = natriuretic and decreases sodium reabsorption - no effect on K+ channels
JMA = reduces renin = reduces ang1/ang2

Result = correction of hypernatraemia - high normal
hyporeninism
hypokalaemia
metabolic alkalosis (loss of H+)

DIAGNOSIS:
HYPOKALAEMIA - esp if occurs while on ACEi
-Normally ACEi would reduce ANG II and so reduce aldosterone production leading to retention of potassium rather than a low potassium
-renin:alodesterone ratio

MX:
SPIRONOLACTONE / EPILERONONE FOR CONNS
Salt restricted diet

AMILORIDE FOR LIDDLE
-spiro has no effect as defect is with the channel itself - not the upstream receptor

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33
Q

What is polyglandular syndrome

A

3 types of AUTOIMMUNE polyglandular syndromes
HYPOS of EVERYTHING

1) PGS 1 = WHITAKER SYNDROME
AIRE GENE MUTATION - aut recessive
addisons
hypoparathyroidism 
-candidiasis 
2)PGS 2  = SCHMIDTS - most common PGS
(HLA-DQ2, HLA-DQ8 and HLA-DR4 linked)
addisons
hypothyroid
DM1
\+/- coeliac and myaesthenia / graves and hashimotos
 - low sodium (no aldosterone)
 - low T4 / high TSH
 - elevated FG >7 / random >11

3) X linked PGS 3 - FOXP3 mutation - loss of tolerance
AI thyroiditis and other assorted AI conditions

34
Q

What is PGS1 associated with?

A

Whitaker syndrome
AIRE mutation

ADDISONS
HYPOPARATHYROID
CANDIDA

35
Q

What is PGS2 associated with?

A

SCHMIDTS syndrome
HLA linked

DM1
ADDISONS
HYPOTHYROID

COELIAC / MYAESTHENIA / pernicious anaemia

36
Q

What is PGS3 associated with?

A

X linked IPEX syndrome = mutation in FOXP3
Responsible for T cell tolerance mechanisms
multiple AI pathologies arise due to lack of screening in thymus / lack of Il-10 and tgfb secretion by CD25+ Tregs

37
Q

How does postpartum hyperthryoidism present?

how is it diagnosed

A

Causes hyperthyroidism and low TSH
TSH R ab +VE
TPO ab +ve

follows similar course to deQuervains
thyrotox–>euthyroid –>hypothyroid (may be permanent)

38
Q

How is Insulinoma diagnosed?

A

Fasting for 15hrs
C peptide and pro-insulin titre measured
glucose measured

Normal response is insulin suppressed and normal glucose levels maintained due to glucagon and glycogenolysis

Glucose <2.5 and insulin >5 (majority is proinsulin) = insulinoma

72hr fast = 98% sensitivity

ALL MEN
Associations:
MEN I (3 Ps) - Pituitary, Pancreatic Insulinomas or glucagonoma, Parathyroid,

MEN IIa (2Ps, 1M) - Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Ca + Parathyroid

MEN IIb (1P, 2Ms) - Pheochromocytoma, Medullary Thyroid Ca, Marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuromaMEN 1 = classic 3 Ps - phaeo / pancreatic insulinoma or glucagonoma / parathyroid cancer

39
Q

What is he pentagastrin stimulation test and when is it used?

A

What does it do? - SYNTHETIC GASTRIN
stimulates gastrin / gastric acid / calcitonin and intrinsic factor release
binds CCK-R

Used to diagnose
1. Carcinoid syndrome to induce flushing / drive serotonin response in borderline individuals
2. diagnose meckels
3. diagnose medullary thyroid cancer = Men 2a and Men 2b
typically a hard mass is found on the neck and may be associated with signs of phaeochromocytoma

PENTAGASTRIN - CALCITONIN STIMULATION TEST
Pentagastrin given
-cause calcitonin levels to rise significantly above the normal or basal range
-calcitonin normally inhibits PTH - thus in MTC expect low calcium levels.
-After a total thyroidectomy for medullary thyroid carcinoma, the pentagastrin-stimulated calcitonin release can be used to detect residual parafollicular cell C-cells.

40
Q

What is medullary thyroid cancer?

A

Malignancy of calcitonin parafocllicular C cells - secreting cells of thyroid and associated with raised calcitonin levels

41
Q

How is PCOS diagnosed

A
Rotterdam criteria - need 2/3
Oligo  / amenorrhoea
hyperandrogenism 
- raised DHT / low oestrogen
- coarse hair / facial hair
cysts on USS - >12 follicles in each or 1 ovary over 2mm

Associated:
adrenal hyperplasia, hypothyroidism, and hyperprolactinemia.

Present:
weight gain
irregular menstruation - heavy / oligo / amen
hirsutism
polydipsia / polyurea if early DM2
infertility
42
Q

What is the normal ratio of TP : globulins

A

60:40

globulins combine all binding globulins / immunoglobulins / enzymes in plasma

43
Q

How does myeloma present?

A

Hypercalcaemia WITHOUT hypophosphataemia

  • bone pain
  • low mood and depression
  • renal stones
  • abdominal pain and constipation

+ spontaenous fracture
+ proetinureia

Diagnosis:
Serum free K and L light chain electrophoresis
will be either IgM / IgA / IgG dominant process
B cell myeloma

Mx:
Steroid - pred 40
pamidronate
chemotherapy

44
Q

How do bisphosphonates work

A

Bind to hydroxyapetite and inhibit osteoclast activity

Can rapidly correct hypercalcaemia from bone turnover in myeloma

risk of AVN

45
Q

What is necrobiosis lipodica?

A

Associated with DM1 and may repdate onset - 0.3-1% incidence

Characterised by area of skin atrophy and ulceration with pigmentation

Nona trophied areas should be treated with topical steroid

46
Q

What is Von Hippel Lindau syndrome?

A

Haemangioblastoma
Renal cell cancer
Phaeochromocytoma

Syndrome characterised by cyst formation, -Haemangioblastomas
- cns ataxia / retina / spinal cord
RCC
- polycythaemia due to secondary increase in EPO

47
Q

When switching from sliding scale to insulin how should it be prescribed

A

Insulin requirement whilst in hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state will be greater than normal 24 hr requirement

Therefore count sum fo insluin over 24 hours on sliding scale
prescribe 2/3 dose split bd mix 30

48
Q

What are common features observed in autonomic diabetic neuropathy?

A
Postural drops
Gastroparesis
peripheral sensory neuropathy
proprioceptive feedback loss - charcot's joints
achalasia

DDX:
AXR = dilated stomach
isotope motility study - assess gastric emptying

RX:
bed head elevation / compression stockings / education re: sitting up - FLUDROCORTISONE 50MCG start and titrate to max 400mcg /24 hr

Erythromycin 50 qds / metoclop / domperidone
senna

49
Q

Where do Xanthoma typically present

A

Accumulation of lipid laden foam macrophages reflecting lipid metabolism
The defect makes the body unable to remove low density lipoprotein = ACCELERATED ATHEROMATOUS DISEASE

FAMILIAL HYPERCHOLESTEROLAEMIA = 1/500
Tendon Xantholamata + high cholesterol
= PATHOGNEMONIC 
 - Other causes of tendon deposition are very rare
Achilles tendon
Knuckles
extensor hallucis longus
triceps tendon
tibial tubersotity
Cholesterol >7.5mmol/l

Heterozygotes - CAD in 30s and MI 60s
Homozygotes - CAD in teens and MI 30s - Cholesterol >16

Treatment:

  1. atorvastatin - reduce LDL - promote HDL - improve TG clearance
  2. ezetimibe statin dual therapy or if statin not tolerated
  3. add in fibrate to reduce TG absorption
50
Q

What does necrobiosis lipodica look like?

A

Associated with diabetes 0.3-1%
may predate / post date

atrophic skin changes associated with multifocal necrotic uclers with that are slow to heal

51
Q

What is the most common arthropathy

A

Gout and Pseudo gout characterised by uric acid crystals and calcium pyrophosphate crystals within the joint space respectively

52
Q

How does phenoxybenzamine work?

A

Alpha blocker - highly potent - non selective irreversible
used in treatment of phaeochromocytoma prior to b-blockade

Dose 10mg bd increased to 20mg qds. - 3 days continuous treatment before surgical intervention to ensure complete alpha blockade

53
Q

What is characteristic of neurofibromatosis 1

A

autosomal dominant mutation of TSG NF1 Chr 17

NIH criteria need >2

  • > 6 Cafe au Lait spots >15mm
  • > 2 neurofibromas or one plexiform lesion - bag of worms. Neurofibromas are tumors of the peripheral nerves
  • Axillary or Inguinal freckling
  • Lisch nodules - iris brown hamartomas >2
  • Optic Glioma (MOST COMMON TUMOUR)
  • FMH
  • pseudarthrosis - previous non healed fracture forms pseudojoint
  • SCOLIOSIS

optic gliomas are treated with chemo

Associated with HTN
Renal Artery Stenosis
Phaeochromocytoma
Aortic Coarctation

RARE - SCHWANNOMA / MENINGIOMA

normal LE

54
Q

What is characteristic of neurofibromatosis 2

A

Chr 22

Differs considerable from NF1 - mainly schwanomas

  • scanty neurofibromas - S/C gliomas / schwannomas instead
  • very scanty cafe au lait- <6
  • NO Crowe’s sign - axillary freckling
  • NO LISCH nodules on iris (hamartomas)

LEARNING DIFFICULTIES
ACOUSTIC NEUROMAS + SN DEAFNESS - BILATERAL
ATAXIA

NIH Diagnosis:
A) Bilateral acoustin neuromas on CN VIII on Ct or MRI
or
2 of:
-unilateral acoustic neuroma
-glioma / schwanomma / meningioma/neurofibroma
-FMH

Associated HTN:
phaeochromocytoma
Renal artery stenosis
Aortic Coarctation

Reduced LE due to compressive CNS lesions

55
Q

McCune Albright syndrome may also present with neurofibromas - how is it different to NF1 / NF2?

A

Mutations in a G protein coupled receptor found in multiple body systems

  • hyperactivation of many endocrine processes
  • cafe au lait pigmentation whcih does not cross the midline
  • cafe au lait spots that follow developmental lines =nape of neck and crease of buttocks

Path fractures

Precocious puberty: Commonest
- estrogen-producing cysts
=early menarch / rapid growth / early breast development 
BUT
Less common in males = macroorchidism

Hyperthyroidism: 33%

Growth Hormone Excess: GNAS mutation ant.pit.

Cushing’s Syndrome: rare + in infancy

56
Q

How does gonadal failure present in bloods

A

Low testosterone
high FSH
high LH
High GnRH

e.g. Kleinfelter XXY = gonadal failure - HIGH FSH / HIGH LH AND LOW TESTOSTERONE

DIff to Kallman where LH and testosterone are low (Gonadotrophin deficiency)

57
Q

What triad defines Conns and Liddle Syndrome

A

HYPERTENSION
HYPOKALAEMIA
METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

58
Q

How does Conns differ from Liddle syndrome - SPIRONOLACTONE / AMILORIDE TARGET

A

Conns is primary hyperaldosteronism - can be blocked with spironolactone

Liddle is constitutive activation of the aldosterone receptor target channel - NA/K+ exchanger. Spironolactone will have no effect but amiloride will block the channel

59
Q

What is Gittelman syndrome? (TZD / INDAPAMIDE TARGET)

A

Aut Recessive mutation in thiazide-sensitive sodium-chloride symporter in DCT = transports K+ / Na / CL / Cal / Mag

Constitutively inactive

Results:
-hypokalaemia
-hypomagnesia
-hypocalcaemia
- METABOLIC ALKALOSIS
The high lumenal K+ results in compensatory ativation of H+/K+ exchanger and net loss of H+
60
Q

What is Bartters syndrome (FUROSEMIDE TARGET)

A

Aut Recessive mutation in furosemide sensitive thick ascending limb of th eloop of henle affecting the loop diuretic transporter Na+ 2cl- / K+ transporter

hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and normal to low blood pressure and secondary hypomagnesia / hypocalcaemia

Normally works through active transport of Na+ and Cl-into medulla.
Water follows. lumen osm increases.
Diffusion of K+ back into nephron further increasing osm and +Ve charge
Mg2+ and Ca2+ transport relies on maintaining +ve charge in lumen i.e Mg2+ Ca2+ moves down ion gradient into cell from lumen

Therefore dysfunction of Na / K / CL transporter results in
- HYPOTENSION (NO H20 MOVEMENT)
-HYPOKALAEMIA
-HYPOMAG
-HYPOCAL
- METABOLIC ALKALOSIS
The high lumenal K+ results in compensatory ativation of H+/K+ exchanger and net loss of H+

61
Q

How is Paget’s disease activity monitored

A

ALP 6 monthly
skeletal survey
limited evidence bisphosphonates slow progression

62
Q

What paraneoplastic conditions arise in SCLC

A

SIADH

  • Thirst
  • Dilutional Hypontraemia
  • dilute serum osm
  • Can lead to salt wasting syndrome as well due to secondry renal medulla washout
  • urinary sodium >20
  • responds to fluid restriction

Ectopic ACTH
- cortisol - glycusouria and impaired FG / OGTT
- aldosterone - hypokalaemia + corrected hypernatraemia
- metabolic alkalosis
- HTN
hyporeninemic hyperaldosteronism
- will fail dexamethasone suppression test

63
Q

Is prolactin elevated in thyroid disease?

A

prolactin is elevated in hypothyroidism

It is suppressed by dopamine - e.g. bromocriptine / cabergoline / percolide

64
Q

What does lead poisoning cause

A

Aldosterone resistance

Also lead poisoning interstitial nephritis

also headaches
abdo pain
glycosuria
aminoacid uria

Mx:
penicillamine
DMSA
calcium disodium edetate

65
Q

How does glucagonoma present and what is the incidence?

A

Rare

skin = NECROLYTIC MIGRATORY ERYTHEMA

impaired FG and OGTT
lethargy
weight loss
glycosuria

66
Q

What picture is seen in SIADH?

A

ADH causes urinary concentration in the colelcting ducts via AQ2
It causes a net movement of water

Therefore
EXPECT:
Low serum osm (being diluted) <280
high urine osm (being concentrated >300
Dilutional hyponatraemia - becomes salt wasting 
Stable BP

worsened by given salt fluids

treat:
tolvaptan
fluid restriction

67
Q

What is the aetiology of secondary hyperparathyroidisms?

A

CKD
insufficient a1 hydroxylase in kidney = less 25oh vit D
therefore less calcium absorbed from guy
greater calcium urinary losses

activation of PTH. Remains elevated as vit D conversion correction pathway is irreperable

treat with calcium supplementation
vit d supplementation
calcitonin

68
Q

How does DeQuervains thyroiditis present?

How is it treated

A

Post viral thyroiditis - over release Vs over production
inflammatory attack of thyroid gland leading to degranulation of T3 and T4
No rise in TSH - suppressed

typical features of hyperthyroid
May then appear hypothyroid

may recover - may not

MX:
nsaid - pred if pain not improving
conservative
replacement if not recovering

69
Q

How is Grave’s hyerpthyroidism treated?

A

Radioiodine uptake into nodules

increased uptake seen on isotope scan

70
Q

How is Cushings disease diagnosed?

A

Low dose Dexamethasone suppression test
Aim is to suppress ACTH production and therefore Cortisol production.
Successful suppression results in cortisol <50 and rules it out
>50 = cushings disease

Progress to MRI pituitary ?ACTH secreting adenoma
In this case high ACTH would suggest pituitary
Low ACTH would suggest adrenal cushings

71
Q

What is high dose dexamethasone suppression used for?

A

Differentiate Cushings disease from ectopic ACTH production

i.e.

72
Q

How is overactive bladder managed?

A

botulinum toxin if failed anti-muscarinics (oxybutynin)

73
Q

How is a diabetic foot ulcer managed?

A

Co-amoxiclav - 2 weeks

MRI to rile out osteomyelitis if deep ulceration

74
Q

How is PCOS managed

A

Androgen effects - anti-androgen or oestrogens
COCP
co-cyprindrol

help to re-establish menstrual regularity
reduce hirsutism

metformin
can help regularise periods

Liraglutide - weight loss + glycaemic control
GLP-1 agonist
inhibits glucagon secretion
increases insulin production
increases satiety and promotes weight loss
takes up to 6 months to see an effect

ovaarian drilling

75
Q

How is oesteoporosis managed?

A

bisphosphonates
alendronate / risedronate etc

Anti-Rank L
denosumab

76
Q

How does osteomalacea present and how is it treated?

A

low vit D = High PTH = high turnover to restore calcium homeostasis

Fractures
proximal weakness
malaise

Treat with high dose cholecalciferol

77
Q

How is Grave’s eye disease managed?

A

Eye disease may manifest before thyrotoxicosis and smooth goitre

Caused by deposition of hydrophillic glycosaminoglycans in retro-orbital tissue leading to exophthalmos

typically causes opthalmoplegia and vision loss over time

MAnagement:
high dose steroids
retuximab
extra orbital radiation - limited evidence
surgical decompression once disease quiescent

78
Q

When can postural hypotension commonly occur?

How is it managed?

A
Parkinsonism
MND
SACD
DM1 autonomic neuropathy
Addisons
pituitary failure
alcohol induced neuropathy
  1. compression stockings
  2. permanent head tilt of bed
  3. fludricortisone
  4. pyridostigmine
79
Q

How is thryoxine therapy instigated

A

subclincial hypothyroid and asymptomatic TPO negative
Repeat TFTs in 3 years

subclincial hypothyroid TPO positive
Annual TFTs

Subclinical hypothyroidism IF symptomatic
-Start 50mcg

Clinical hypothyroidism and symptomatic
- start 100mcg

80
Q

How is acromegally treated?

A

Somatostatin analogues
- (primary therapy or while awaiting surgery)

Dopamine agonists - cabergoline / l doppa / bromocriptine / silegiline
-(particularly for prolactin cosecretion)

Pituitary Surgery

Post-operative radiotherapy

Stereotactic ‘gamma knife’ radiotherapy for recurrence

GH receptor antagonists for recurrence
-Pegvisomant is an analogue of human growth hormone that has been genetically modified to
be a growth hormone receptor antagonist.
• It binds to growth receptors on cell surfaces, where it blocks growth hormone binding and
decreases IGF-1.
• Licensed for use in patients with acromegaly who have had an inadequate response to
surgery and/or radiation therapy and in whom an appropriate medical treatment with
somatostatin analogues did not normalise IGF-1 concentrations or was not tolerated.

annual colonoscopic surveillance - RR adenocarcinoma

81
Q

Which anti-hypertensives are recommended in diabetes and which are not?

A

Ramipiril recommended esp if proteinurea present

bendroflumethiazide not recommended due to adverse effects on glucose
- use amlodipine if already on ramipril

82
Q

MTC screening

A

Depending on what type of gene mutation
RET = MEN 2 - moderate risk

screen from age 5 with calcitonin levels / uss / thyroid exam