Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the symptoms of PHEochromocytoma?

A

*Palpitations
*Headache
*Excessive sweating

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2
Q

What are the names of the two metabolites that will be elevated in PHEochromocytoma? Which is most sensitive?

A

Metanephrines (more sensitive)
Vanillylmandelic acid

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3
Q

How should PHEochromocytoma be treated?

A

1) Alpha blocker: PHEnoxybenzamine or PHEnotolamine
2) Beta blocker
3) Complete adrenalectomy

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4
Q

Why are alpha-blockers initated before beta-blockers in treating phenoxybenzamine?

A

Unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation causes severe vasoconstriction without the counterbalancing vasodilation from beta-2 receptors = a hypertensive crisis.

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5
Q

What is the most specific test for crushing syndrome?

A

24 hr urinary free cortisol is most specific

nighttime salivary cortisol & low dexamethasone can also be used.

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6
Q

If a pituitary adenoma is suspected what diagnostic imaging is used? What if it comes back as negative?

A

MRI; if pos conduct a transsphenoidal resection of pituitary tumor
If MRI is negative: inferior petrosal venous sampling

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7
Q

What is the treatment of Addisonian crisis?

A

1) IV isotonic fluids +/- dextrose (if hypoglycemic)
2) IV hydrocortisone
3) R/O infections and treat.

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8
Q

What is somogyi Effect?

A

Nocturnal hypoglycemia triggers regulator hormones that increase glucose causing hyperglycemia

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9
Q

What is the treatment of somogyi effect?

A

Prevent hypoglycemia
1) decrease night NPH insulin dose
2) Move NPH insulin dose to earlier in the evening
3) Have a bedtime snack

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10
Q

What is Dawn Phenomenon?

A

Normal glucose levels until there is an increased release of Growth hormone at night which increases glucose levels

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11
Q

What is the treatment of Dawn phenomenon?

A

1) bedtime injection of NPH
2) increased evening NPH
3) Avoid late night snacking
4) insulin pump use early morning

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12
Q

Which lipid lowering medication shoudl be a avoided in a patient with gout?

A

Niacin it can increase uric acid levels and potentially exacerbate gout attacks. Niacin raises uric acid by reducing its excretion in the kidneys

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13
Q

What is metabolic syndrome?

A

3 or more of the following: abdominal obesity, increased triglycerides, decreased HDL, HTN, and hyperglycemia. -> increase risk for DM and cardiovascular disease

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14
Q

What is the 1st line managment of prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonist: Cabergoline or Bromocriptine

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15
Q

Why is dopamine agonist used to treate prolactinoma instead of transsphenoidal resection?

A

Dopamine naturally inhibits prolactin secretion via dopamine receptor activation in the pituitary gland

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16
Q

What are increased levels of beta-hydroxybutyrate diagonstic of?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

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17
Q

What is a key component of Metabolic syndrome?

A

Insulin resistance: increased triglyceride & glucose levels leads to hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance. -> High insulin inturn causes Na+ reabsorption = HTN

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18
Q

in metabolic syndrome, what are the 5 metabolic abnormalities that increase risk for complication of DM & CVD?

A

HDL <40 (men & <50 (women)
BP>135/85
Fasting triglyceride levels >150
Fasting blood sugar >100
waist circumference >40inch (men) >35 in women

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19
Q

What are medication that can be used for weight loss?

A

Phentermine (only 3 months)
Phentermine/topiramate (no duration limts)

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20
Q

What is the difference between acromegaly & gigantism?

A

Both are a result of increased growth hormone but Gigantism is found in children before the fusion of growth plate and acromegaly is found in adult after growth plate has fused.

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21
Q

What marker is elevated in paget disease of the bone, and why?

A

Paget disease of the bone is the aggressive breakdown of bone by osteoclast as a result, there is increased bone formation by osteoblast (disorganized and weak structure, prone to breakage)

Alkaline phosphate is released by osteoblast and will be elevated as a result of its activity

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22
Q

What are the phases of paget disease of the bone?

A

1) lytic phase: osteoclast agressively breaks down bone
2) mixed phase: osteoclast break down and osteoblast disorganizely tries to rebuild bone
3) Sclerotic phase: bone formation exceeds bone break down = weaker than normal healthy bone

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23
Q

What is the diagnosis of T2DM?

A

1) Fasting plasma >126
2) Random plasma glucose >200
3) OGTT >200 after 2hr
4) HbA1C >6.5%
x2 abnormal test required if asymptomatic
sxs require 1 abnormal test

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24
Q

What are the two T2DM known to decrease ASCVD risk?

A

GLP1a: Glucagon-like peptide agonist
SGLT2i: Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor

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25
Q

How does GLP1a: Glucagon-like peptide agonist work?

A

1) Increase insulin
2) decrease the release of glucagon
3) Increase incretin which decreases gastric emptying (promoting fullness & suppressing appetite)

26
Q

GLP1a: Glucagon-like peptide agonist drug names

A

Dulaglutide
Semaglutide

27
Q

SGLT2i: Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor drug names?

A

empagliflozin, canagliflozin, dapagliflozin

28
Q

How does SGLT2i: Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitor work?

A

blocks glucose re-absorption in the proximal tubules of kidneys = increased glucose removal via urine.

29
Q

What are the side effects of metformin?

A

decreases vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
Increase lactic acid overtime
N/V/D

30
Q

Which T2DM diabetic drug is known to cause fluid retention?

A

Thiazolidinediones: increases insulin sensitivity at tissues sites
But known associated with peripheral edema and fluid retention
contraindicated in heart failure and pregnancy.

31
Q

Thiazolidinediones drug names

A

Pioglitazone, rosiglitazone

32
Q

Explain why hirsutism and hyperpigmentation is seen in corticotroph pituitary adenoma (cushing disease)?

A

1) ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone shares a precursor molecule which leads to increased release of SMH with ACTH.
2) ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex, not only increasing cortisol but also adrenal androgens like dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) = excess facial hair.

33
Q

diabetic nephropathy is defined as a lab reading of?

A

albuminuria >300mg/day or >300 mg/g creatinine on random urine sample

34
Q

What electrole findings are common in primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hyponatremia is seen in primary AI because the adrenal gland is affected = no aldosterone release to hold on to Na+ during Na+ deficit. As a result K+ is elevated

35
Q

Hyperpigmentation can be seen in which endocrine disorders?

A

Primary Adrenal insufficiency & and Cushing disease in both conditions the negative feedback on ACTH is disrupted leading to increased ACTH release and melanocyte stimulating hormone is also release since they are derived from the same precurose.

36
Q

What are drugs for neurpathic pain

A

Amitriptyline and nortriptyline (TCA) -> increased serotonin & norepinephrine signalling
duloxetine ( SNRI) -> block reuptake of serotonin & norepinephrine
Gabapentin (anticonvulsants
Capsaicin (topical)

37
Q

Why is methimazole preferred over propylthiouracil when treating hyperthyroidism?

A

Propylthiouracil has a increased risk of hepatotoxicity

38
Q

What is the most common presentation of diabetes insipidus?

A

Sevre polyuira and mild hypernatremia

39
Q

What is the difference between central DI and Nephrogenic DI?

A

Central DI: decreased antididuretic hormone production
Nephrogenic DI: renal resistance to ADH

40
Q

What are common causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, interstitial renal disease & medications (lithium, amphotericin)

41
Q

What are common lab finding for diabetes insipidus?

A

Hypernatremia
Increased serum osmolality (normal range 275-295)
Decreased urine osmolality <300
(normal range 300-900)

42
Q

Long acting insulins

A

Glargine, Detemir, Degludec

The body produces low levels of insulin continuously (basal insulin). long-acting insulin mimics this process but has no peak inactivity during meals. that is why short acting insulin are often paired with long acting insulin to prevent postprandial hyperglycemia.

43
Q

True or false, metformin is metabolized by the liver.

A

False; Instead of liver metabolism, metformin is excreted unchanged by the kidneys through active tubular secretion

44
Q

Rapid acting insulin

A

aspart, lispro, glulisine

45
Q

Amiodarone adverse effects on the endocrine system and cardiac system

A

cards: bradycardia, QT prolongation
Endocrine: hyperthyroidism or hypothroidism

46
Q

what is the most common type of thyroid nodule?

A

follicular adenoma (benign tumor)

47
Q

what is the most common clinical presentation of a patient with a thyroid nodule?

A

a palpable nodule on the anterior of the neck.
asymptomatic of thyroid-related sxs & most are euthyroid.

48
Q

What are key presentations that distingiushes a benign thyroid nodule from a malignant thyroid nodule?

A

benign: smooth, soft, moble
Malginant: rapid growth, firm, hard, fixed, non-moblie or no movement with swallowing

49
Q

What is the inital testing for a supected thyroid nodule?

A

TSH level & thyroid US
(U/S finding showing high risk nodules: hypoechoic nodule, irregular margin, central vascularity, microcalcification)
most are asymptomatic but should always get a TSH & US

49
Q

Performance enhancing drugs

49
Q

In the evaluation of thyroid nodules, a low TSH levels is shown on lab work. What is the next step?

A

Radioactive iodine scintigraphy
-> Hyofunctional (cold) nodules should get worked up for malignancy
->hyperfunctional (hot) nodule is depictive of hyperthyroidism and should be treated as such.

50
Q

Growth hormone elevation is known to stimulate the grow of which major organ?

A

Cardiac growth leading to left ventricular hypertrophy

51
Q

Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis is known to follow a

A

Upper respiratory illness

52
Q

Subacute (de quervain) thyroiditis is known to have a ___

A

Subacute thyroiditis is self-limiting. It presents w hyperthyroid sxs the follows a hypothyroid phase before returning to euthyroid.

53
Q

Subacute (de Quervain) thyroiditis presentation

54
Q

Evaluation of hyperthyroidism

A

Always conduct a radioactive iodine uptake id no sxs of Graves disease

55
Q

What are complications of hyperthyrodism?

A

Osteoporosis (thyroid hormones increase osteoclastic bone resorption), arrhythmia and cardiomyopathy

56
Q

What is the managment of DKA

57
Q

Hallmarks of Dequrvain (subacute thyroiditis)

A

DequerPAINS
Diffuse decreased uptake on radioactive scan
Painful thyroid
After viral illness
Increased CRP & ESR
Negative thyroid antibodies
Self-limiting. Salicylates or NSAID for pain

58
Q

Which thyroid antibody is specific for hashimoto thyroditis?

A

Anti-thyroid peroxidase Ab
Anti-thyroglobulin Ab

59
Q

Which thyroid antibody is specific for Graves Disease?

A

Thyroid stimulating Antibody (TSH receptor Ab)

60
Q

Radioactive uptake scan will show what for each disorders; Graves disease, multinodular goiter, Toxic adenoma, thyroditis

A

Thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s, deQuervain: diffused decreased or absent uptake. This is due to the release of already-made thyroid hormones, The inflammation prevents the production of new hormones.

Toxic multinodular goiter: multiple areas of increased & decreased uptake

Toxic adenoma (hot nodule): increased uptake in a focal point