Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the classifications of Acromegaly?

A

Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) independent:
- Pituitary adenoma (most common)
- Primary pituitary hyperplasia

GHRH dependent (rarer):
- Hypothalamic source = excess GHRH from he hypothalamus causes secondary pituitary hyperplasia
- Ectopic release = excess GHRH from ectopic tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Acromegaly

A

A disorder caused by an excessive amount of growth hormone w/ characteristic clinical features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What’s the difference between acromegaly and gigantism?

A

Age of onset - gigantism occurs before the epiphyseal plates close leading to excess linear growth, whilst acromegaly occurs after the plates close leading to enlargement of bones and soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acromegaly pathophysiology

A
  • Excess GH results in the excess production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)
  • IGF-1 receptor is widely distributed across a wide range of tissues, and excess stimulation results in abnormal growth of these tissues
  • Excess GH also results in increased gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and insulin resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acromegaly features

A

Hands:
- spade-like, large, doughy hands
- Sweaty
- Thick skin w/ large pores
- Carpal tunnel syndrome

Face:
- Interdental separation
- Prognathism
- Large ears, nose, lips
- Prominent supraorbital ride and facial creases
- Macroglossia
- Acne

Visual field defects = bitemporal hemianopia/upper quadrantanopia

Axilla:
- Acanthosis nigricans
- Skin tags

Neck:
- Acanthosis nigricans
- Goitre

Chest:
- Cardiomegaly
- Pulmonary oedema
- Gynaecomastia

Legs:
- Peripheral pitting oedema
- Proximal muscle weakness
- OA
- Large feat

Back:
- Kyphoscoliosis

Systemic:
- Secondary HTN
- Organomegaly
- Increased risk of colonic polyps and thus colorectal cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Acromegaly investigations

A

Bedside:
- Fundoscopy -=optic atrophy
- Visual fields testing
- Urine dip = glycosuria
- ECG = LVH due to HTN

Bloods:
- IGF-1 levels
- If raised, do confirmatory test = oral glucose tolerance test - fails to supress GH

Imaging:
- MRI pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Acromegaly management

A

Medical = if surgery is contraindicated, mechanism not due to pituitary adenoma, or is refractory to surgery:
- Somatostatin analogues (1st line) = octreotide (supress GH release)
- GH antagonists = pegvisomant
- Dopamine agonist = cabergoline

Surgery (1st line):
- Transphenoidal surgery to remove pituitary adenoma (1st line)
- Transfrontalr resection of the pituitary
- +/- radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define Adrenal insufficiency

A

A clinical syndrome that arises due to the insufficient production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids from the adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the classifications of Adrenal insufficiency?

A

Primary = Addison’s disease:
- AI destruction
- Surgical removal
- Trauma
- TB
- Haemorrhage
- Infarction
- Neoplasm
- Steroid overuse

Secondary:
- Congenital disorders
- Basal skull fractures
- Pituitary surgery
- Pituitary neoplasm
- Infiltration or infection of the brain
- Corticotrophin-releasing hormone deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adrenal insufficiency features

A
  • Hypotension
  • Fatigue and weakness
  • GI symptoms
  • Syncope
  • Skin pigmentation due to increased ACTH production and thus increased melanocyte stimulating hormone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Adrenal insufficiency investigations

A
  • U&Es and serum cortisol = hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and low serum cortisol
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • ABG = hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemic metabolic acidosis
  • Ab testing
  • CT adrenals
  • MRI pituitary

Short synacthen test is confirmatory:
- Measure cortisol before
- Give syacthen (syhnethtic ACTH)
- Measure cortisol 30 min later
- Cortisol should be >420, else probably Addison’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Adrenal insufficiency management

A

Chronic:
- Replace glucocorticoids (w/ hydrocortisone - 10mg in the morning, 5mg at noon, 5mg at night- or prednisolone)
- Replace mineralocorticoids (w/ fludrocortisone)
- Education on sick day riles (doubling steroid dose when ill)

Addisonian crisis:
- Aggressive fluid resuscitation
- IV/IM hydrocortisone STAT
- Glucose if hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Addisonian crisis

A

A life-threatening condition due to an acute deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone

Presents w/:
- Hypotension
- Hyperkalaemia
- Hyponatraemia
- Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the side effects of amiodarone?

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hyperthyroidism (rarer - amiodarone thyrotoxicosis)
  • Corneal deposits
  • SJS
  • Grey discoloration of the skin
  • Liver failure
  • Pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis

A

A side effect of amiodarone which is rich in iodine, presents w/ symptoms of thyrotoxicosis

Manifests in 2 types:
- AIT 1 = pt has underlying thyroid nodules, amiodarone increases thyroid hormone production due to high iodine content
- AIT 2 = pt has normal function gland, amiodarone triggers destructive thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis investigations

A
  • TFTs
  • Thyroid uptake scan - AIT 1 = normal uptake, AIT 2 = decreased uptake
  • Doppler US - AIT 1 = increased vascularity, AIT 2 = reduced vascularity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis management

A
  • AIT 1 = carbimazole
  • AIT 2 = corticosteroids
  • Consult w/ cardio about stopping amiodarone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the causes of vasopressin deficiency?

A
  • Head trauma
  • Inflammatory conditions e.g. sarcoidosis
  • Cranial infections e.g. meningitis
  • Vascular conditions e.g. sickle cell
  • Rare genetic causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the causes of vasopressin resistance?

A
  • Drugs e.g. lithium
  • Metabolic disturbances e.g. hypercalcaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperglycaemia
  • Chronic renal disease
  • Rare genetic causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Vasopressin disorders (diabetes insipidus) features

A
  • Large volumes of dilute urine (> 3L in 24 hrs and urine osmolality of <300 mOsm/kg)
  • Nocturia
  • Excessive thirst
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Vasopressin disorders (diabetes insipidus) investigations

A
  • U&Es = sodium normal/raised
  • Urine dip
  • Paired serum and urine osmolality (raised serum osmolality w/ inappropriately dilute urine w/ a low osmolality)

Water deprivation test is diagnostic and can distinguish from primary polydipsia:
- Deprive pt of fluids and monitor urine osmolality and weight changes (stop if pt loses >5% body weight)
- In vasopressin disorders, urine osmolality wont decrease
- In vasopressin deficiency, urine osmolality will decrease on administration of ADH
- In vasopressin resistance, urine osmolality wont change w/ administration of ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Vasopressin deficiency management

A
  • Desmopressin
  • Monitor sodium levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vasopressin resistance management

A
  • Correct underlying metabolic abnormalities
  • Stop any offending drugs
  • High dose desmopressin has varying results
  • Thiazide diuretics and NSAIDs can reduce urine volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define Carcinoid tumour

A

A slow-growing, neuroendocrine tumour which secretes hormones (usually serotonin) - most often occur in the appendix, lungs and small intestine

Can become malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What’s the difference between Carcinoid tumours and Carcinoid syndrome?

A

Carcinoid tumour = NET secreting serotonin

Carcinoid syndrome = occurs when the serotonin enters the blood stream, usually when the tumour has spread to the liver which allows the serotonin to be released to the systemic circulation w/out being broken down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Carcinoid tumour symptoms

A
  • Abdo pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Flushing
  • Wheeze
  • Pulmonary stenosis

Pts only have symptoms if they have liver mets which allow serotonin to enter circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Carcinoid tumour investigations

A
  • 5-HIAA urine levels = breakdown product of serotonin
  • CT, MRI or octreotide scans to locate the tumour
  • Tissue biopsy for definitive diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Carcinoid tumour management

A

Medical:
- Octreotide (somatostatin analogue) to inhibit serotonin production
- Chemo/radiotherapy

Surgical:
- Tumour resection
- Emobliation
- Radiofrequency ablations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define Cushing’s syndrome

A

Excess glucocorticoids (cortisol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the causes of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

ACTH-dependent disease:
- Pituitary tumour (Cushing’s disease)
- Ectopic ACTH-production = lung/thymic carcinoid tumours

ACTH-independent disease:
- Primary adrenal disease = adrenal adenomas, adrenal carcinomas
- Exogenous steroid overuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cushing’s syndrome features

A
  • Proximal myopathy
  • Striae and easy bruising
  • Osteoporosis and fractures
  • Glucose intolerance and DM
  • Truncal obesity
  • HTN
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Facial changes = moon face, acne
  • Hirsutism in women
  • Supraclavicular fat pads
  • Thin extremities due to muscle wasting
  • Thin skin
  • Erectile dysfunction
  • Depression or cognitive dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cushing’s syndrome investigations

A
  • 24-hr urinary free cortisol test
  • Plasma ACTH levels to distinguish between ACTH-dependent and independent
  • Inferior petrosal sinus sampling for suspecting pituitary causes
  • MRI pituitary
  • CT chest abdo

Low dose dexamethasone suppression test to confirm and distinguish:
- Measure cortisol levels, then administer 1mg oral dex and remeasure cortisol levels 24 hrs later
- Normal response = a significant decrease in cortisol levels (<1.8)
- Cushing’s disease = not supressed by low-dose, but supressed by high dose (8mg of dex)
- Cushing’s syndrome = not supressed by low or high-dose dex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cushing’s syndrome management

A

Medical:
- Metyrapone = inhibitor of cortisol synthesis
- Ketoconazole = adrenolytic agent
- Mifepristone = glucocorticoid receptor antagonist
- Pasireotide = somatostatin analogue

Surgical (1st line):
- Resection of the tumour
- If its Cushing’s disease pt will need exogenous steroids for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define Delayed puberty

A

Absence of pubertal development by 14 in boys and 13 in girls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the causes of Delayed puberty?

A

Constitutional delay (most common)

Low gonadotrophin secretion:
- Craniopharyngiomas
- Kallmann syndrome
- Panhypopituitarism
- Isolated gonadotrophin deficiency
- CF
- Crohn’s disease

High gonadotrophin secretion:
- Turners XO
- Klinefelter’s XXY
- Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
- Acquired hypogonadism e.g. post chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Delayed puberty investigations

A
  • Clinical assessment
  • Hand-wrist X-ray = to determine bone age, which is typically delayed in constitutional growth delay as the epiphyseal plates are late to fuse
  • Hormone testing = FSH, LH, thyroid hormones, sex hormones - can help distinguish between causes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Delayed puberty management

A

Depends on the cause:
- Constitutional delay = monitor growth
- Low gonadotrophin secretion = hormone replacement therapy, surgery for tumours, management of underlying disease
- High gonadotrophin secretion = hormone replacement therapy, supportive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T1DM features

A
  • Polyuria
  • Polydipsia
  • WL (distinguishes it from T2DM)
  • DKA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define Maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

A

A rare form of diabetes that presents in adolescence or early adulthood (<25)

It is due to impaired insulin secretion, however, this is not due to AI destruction like T1DM but instead 1 of 5 mutations which impair the beta cells ability to produce insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY) management

A
  • Sulfonylureas to stimulate insulin production
  • Insulin therapy (less common)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

T1DM investigations

A
  • Random blood glucose > 11.1 or fasting plasma gluocse > 7
  • 2-hour glucose tolerance > 11.1
  • HbA1C > 48

If pt is symptomatic then only needs one of those results

If pt is asymptomatic then they need 2

Can confirm w/ C-peptide levels (will be low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T1DM management

A

Insulin therapy:
- Long actin insulin given at night time
- Short acting insulin given after meals and snacks

Tight glycaemic control:
- Pre-meal BM = 4-7
- Bedtime BM = 6-10
- HbA1c < 53

Regular BM’s

Hypoglycaemic management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the sick day rules for T1DM?

A
  • Monitor BM every 3-4 hours and adjust insulin doses
  • Monitor ketones, seek help if levels > 3mmol
  • Maintain normal meal patterns
  • If unable to eat, replace meals w/ carbohydrate-containing drinks e.g. fruit juice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T2DM investigations

A
  • Random blood glucose > 11.1
  • Fasting plasma gluxose > 7
  • 2 hour glucose toelrance test > 11.1
  • HbA1c > 48

Need 1 if symptomatic

Need 2 on different days if asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T2DM management

A

Conservative:
- Dietary advice
- Regular exercise
- Smoking cessation

Medical:
- Initial management = metformin
- If HbA1c > 58 on monotherapy, add pioglitazone, DDP-4 inhibitors or a sulfonylurea
- If dual therapy not working than add a 3rd agent from the list
- Always add an SGLT-2 inhibitor if pt has HF
- If triple therapy not working then switch to insulin (start w/ intermediate acting, then switch to long/short acting regime)
- If pt obese, consider a GLP-1 agonist
- ACEi if HTN (renoprotective)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are examples of sulfonylureas?

A

Gliclazide, tolbutamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are examples of DDP-4 inhibitors?

A

Sitagliptin, linagliptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are examples of GLP-1 agonists?

A

Semaglutide, dulaglutide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors?

A

Empagliflozin, dapagliflozin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the complications of T2DM?

A

Macrovascular:
- CVD
- PAD
- Cardiac complications

Microvascular:
- Diabetic retinopathy
- Diabetic neuropathy
- Diabetic nephropathy (+ diabetic foot)
- Autonomic neuropathy (gastroparesis)
- Sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the T2DM medication sick day rules?

A
  • Metformin = stop if risk of dehydration (vomit/diarrhoea) to lower risk of lactic acidosis
  • Sulfonylureas = may cause hypoglycaemia if reduced oral intake
  • SGLT-2 inhibitors = stop if dehydrated as can cause euglycemic DKA
  • GLP-1 agonists = stop if risk of dehydration to decrease risk of AKI
  • Insulin = don’t stop, adjust based on recommendations of diabetic team
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Define Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

A medical emergency consisiting of the triad of:

  • Hyperglycaemia (BM > 11)
  • Ketosis (blood ketones > 3, or urinary ketones ++)
  • Acidosis (pH <7.2 or bicarb <15)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What parameters classify a DKA as severe?

A

One of:

  • Blood ketones > 6
  • Bicarb < 5
  • Blood pH < 7
  • Anion gap > 16
  • Hypokalaemia on admission
  • GCS < 12
  • O2 sats <92% on air
  • Systolic BP < 90
  • Brady or tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

DKA features

A

Symptoms:
- N&V
- Abdo pain
- Polyuria
- Polydipsia
- Weakness

Signs:
- Dry mucous membranes
- Hypotension
- tachycardia
- Altered mental state
- Kussmaul breathing (deep, sighing breaths to compensate for metabolic acidosis by b lowing of CO2)
- Fruit-like smelling breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are common triggers for DKA?

A
  • Infection
  • Dehydration and fasting
  • Missing dose of insulin
  • Steroids
  • Diuretics
  • Surgery
  • CVD
  • Alcohol excess or illicit drugs
  • Pancreatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

DKA investigations

A

Bedside:
- Cap BM
- Blood or urinary ketones
- Urine dip to look for UTI
- ECG

Bloods:
- ABG
- U&Es

Imaging:
- Consider CXR for septic screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis management

A
  • A-E
  • IV fluid replacement = IL over 1hour, then 2L over 2 hours, then 2L over 4 hours, the 1L over 6 hours (potassium should be added after the 1st bag depending on levels)
  • Then start a fixed rate insulin infusion at a rate of 0.1units/kg/hour
  • Continue long-actin insulin, but stop short acting
  • Once blood glucose < 14, add a 10% glucose infusion alongside the saline and insulin

Continue fixed rate insulin until:
- Ketones < 0.6
- pH > 7.3

At this point start short-acting insulin if they can eat, stop the infusion 30 min after subcut insulin is given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Diabetic neuropathy features

A

Depends on the type:

Distal symmetrical sensory neuropathy:
- Most common
- Loss of touch, vibration and proprioception in glove and stocking distribution

Small-fibre predominant neuropathy:
- Due to loss of small sensory fibres
- Loss of pain and temp sensation in glove and stocking distribution
- Often has episodes of burning pain

Diabetic amyopathy:
- Inflammation of the lumbosacral or cervical plexus
- Severe pain around the thighs and hips, along w/ proximal muscle weakness

Mononeuritis multiplex:
- Painful neuropathy of 2 distinct peripheral nerves

Autonomic neuropathy:
- Postural hypotension
- Gastroparesis
- Constipation
- Urinary retention
- Arrhythmias
- Erectile dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define Charcot Arthropathy

A

A chronic, progressive arthropathy that occurs in pt w/ peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Charcot Arthropathy features

A

6 D’s:

  • Destruction of bone and joints
  • Deformity
  • Degeneration
  • Dense bones
  • Debris of bone fragments
  • Dislocation

Typically affects the tarsometatarsal joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Charcot Arthropathy management

A
  • Prolonged offloading
  • Bisphosphonates
  • Gabapentin/pregabalin
  • Resection of bony prominences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Define Galactorrhoea

A

Inappropriate and spontaneous milk secretion from the breasts unrelated to childbirth or lactation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the causes of Galactorrhoea?

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Prolactinoma
  • Drugs = antipsychotics, SSRIs, cimetidine, beta blockers
  • Metabolic conditions = hypothyroidism, liver disease, CKD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Galactorrhoea investigations

A
  • Serum prolactin
  • TFTs
  • U&Es and LFTs
  • MRI pituitary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Galactorrhoea management

A
  • Manage underlying condition
  • Stop offending drug
  • Cabergoline to increase dopamine and thus decrease prolactin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Define Gestational diabetes

A

Glucose intolerance in pegnancy defined as:

  • Fast blood glucose levels of 5.6 or above
  • 2 hour post OGGT levels of 7.8 or above

(5678)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the risk factors for Gestational diabetes?

A
  • Previous Hx of GDM
  • Prior delivery of macrosomic baby
  • Maternal obesity
  • Diabetes in a 1st degree relative
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the foetal complications of Gestational diabetes?

A
  • Macrosomia (BW > 4kg)
  • Pre-term delivery
  • Neonatal hypoglycaemia
  • Increased risk of baby developing T2DM in later life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the maternal complications of Gestational diabetes?

A
  • Increased risk of HTN and pre-eclampsia
  • Risk of having it in subsequent pregnancies
  • Increased risk of T2DM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Gestational diabetes management

A
  • Lifestyle modifications if fasting glucose < 7 - if not below 5.6 after 2 weeks then start metformin
  • If blood glucose levels > 7 on presentation - start insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define Goitre

A

An abnormal enlargement of the thyroid gland

2 types:
- Smooth = no distinct nodules
- Nodular = presence of 1 or more distinct nodule which may be hot (functioning) or cold (non-functioning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the causes of smooth Goitres?

A
  • Graves disease
  • Hashimoto’s disease
  • Drugs = lithium, amiodernone
  • Iodine deficiency/excess
  • De Quervain’s thyroiditis
  • Infiltrative diseases = sarcoid, hemochromatosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the causes of nodular Goitres?

A
  • Toxic solitary adenoma
  • Non-functioning adenoma
  • Multinodular goitre
  • Thyroid cyst
  • Thyroid cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Goitre features

A
  • Visible and palpable swelling in the neck which moves up on swallowing but not on tongue protrusion
  • Hoarseness
  • Dysphagia (in large goitres)
  • Symptoms of hypo/hyperthyroidism depending on the underlying cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Goitre investigations

A
  • TFTs
  • US = evaluate size, number and characteristics of nodules
  • FNA = in nodular goitres to assess malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Define Gynaecomastia

A

Enlargement of male breast tissue

Results from a benign increase in glandular breast tissue rather than adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the causes of Gynaecomastia?

A

Occurs due to an imbalance in the actions of oestrogen (stimulates breast growth) and androgens (inhibit growth)

  • Obesity = increases peripheral conversion of androgens to oestrogens
  • Chronic liver disease = reduces livers capacity to metabolise oestrogen
  • Anabolic steroid use
  • Tumours = Sertoli cell, Leydig cell, germ cell tumours all can produce oestrogen
  • Chronic illness = testosterone is supressed more than oestrogen during periods of malnourishment
  • Hyperthyroidism = increases conversion of androgens to oestrogen
  • Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism = lower testosterone
  • Hyperprolactinaemia
  • testicular failure
  • Drugs = spironolactone (anti-androgen effects), ketoconazole, GnRH agonists, chemo
  • Cannabis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Gynaecomastia features

A

Symmetrical (in relation to the nipple), rubbery enlargement of the breasts in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Gynaecomastia investigations

A
  • Bloods = LFTs, U&Es, TFTs, testosterone levels, oestradiol levels, LH/FSH levels, prolactin levels
  • Imagine = breast USS, testicular USS (to assess for tumours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Gynaecomastia management

A
  • Observation and reassurance = most cases resolve over time
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Medication = selective oestrogen receptor modulators (tamoxifen) and androgens (danazol)
  • Breast reduction surgery in long standing cases where medical management has not been successful
  • Psychological help
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Define Hirsutism

A

A clinical condition where females have excess hair growth in a male pattern distribution including the face, back, chest and abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the causes of Hirsutism?

A
  • PCOS (most common in women of reproductive age)
  • Androgen-secreting tumours
  • Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Cushing’s
  • Acromegaly
  • Severe insulin resistance
  • Idiopathic
  • Drugs = steroids, phenytoin, ciclosporin
  • Anorexia nervosa
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Familal traits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Hirsutism investigations

A
  • Serum testosterone
  • Other hormone levels = DHEAS, 17-hydroxyprogesterone, prolactin, TSH as indicated
  • Pelvic USS = to identify polycystic or tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Hirsutism management

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Cosmetic = shaving, waxing, laser hair removal
  • Medical = anti-androgens (spironolactone, flutamide), OCC, insulin-sensitising drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the causes of Hyperaldosteronism?

A

Primary (increased aldosterone secretion):
- Conn’s syndrome (adrenal adenoma or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia)
- Familial
- Adrenal carcinoma

Secondary (increased activation of RAAS):
- Renal artery stenosis
- HF
- Liver cirrhosis
- Reninoma
- CKD
- Acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Hyperaldosteronism features

A
  • HTN
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Muscle weakness/fatigue
  • Assythmias
  • Metabolic alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

A

1) Renin is released from the kidneys in response to low BP, low sodium or sympathetic NS activation
2) Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
3) Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2 by ACE
4) Angiotensin 2 increases BP by: vasoconstriction, stimulating aldosterone release, stimulating ADH release, promoting thirst
5) Aldosterone acts on the DCT and collecting ducts where it causes the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Hyperaldosteronism investigations

A

1st line = Aldosterone:Renin ration - high ratio suggests hyperaldosteronism

2nd line:
- HRCT or MRI to locate adrenal lesions
- Selective venous sampling (Gold standard for locating source)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Hyperaldosteronism management

A

Medical:
- In cases of bilateral adrenal hyperplasia = K-sparing diuretics (spironolactone, amiloride, eplerenone)

Surgical:
- If due to adrenal adenoma = resection of tumour or affected adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Define Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS)

A

A life-threatening condition associated w/ T2DM - it results from severe hyperglycaemia, profound dehydration and altered mental state (due to insulin deficiency and osmotic diuresis)

Suspect in pts w/:
- Marked hyperglycaemia (>30) w/out significant ketosis (<3) or acidosis (pH > 7.3, bicarb > 15))
AND
- Osmolality > 320

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the risk factors associated w/ Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state?

A
  • T2DM
  • Advanced age
  • Infections or illness
  • Medications that affect glucose metabolism
92
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state features

A
  • Profound dehydration w/ dry mucous membranes
  • Polydipsia and polyuria
  • Altered mental state - confusion to coma
  • Neuro = seizure or focal deficits
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
93
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state investigations

A
  • BM
  • Serum osmolality
  • U&Es
  • Urinalysis for ketones
  • Evaluation of underlying cause
94
Q

Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state management

A
  • Fluid resuscitation is mainstay - w/ saline
  • Glucose levels should not fall by >5mmol per hour
  • Insulin (0.05 units/kg/hr) can be commenced if sugars stop falling by fluids alone, or if there is ketosis
95
Q

What are the different types of Hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Primary = caused by parathyroid adenoma, hyperplasia of all 4 glands or parathyroid carcinoma
  • Secondary = due to Vit D deficiency, abnormal PTH activity or inadequate Ca intake
  • Tertiary = occurs after prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism due to CKD, gland becomes hyperplastic
96
Q

Hypercalcaemia features

A
  • Bones= bone pain
  • Stones = renal stones
  • Groans = GI issues - N&V, constipation, indigestion
  • Psychiatric moans = lethargy, fatigue, memory loss, psychosis, depression
97
Q

Hyperparathyroidism investigations

A
  • Ca levels
  • Phophate levels
  • PTH levels
  • ALP levels

Primary HPT = high Ca, low Phos, high/normal PTH, high ALP

Secondary = low/normal Ca, low/high Phos, high PTH, high ALP

Tertiary = normal/high Ca, low/normal Phos, high PTH, high ALP

Vit D deficiency = normal/low Ca, low Phos, high PTH, high ALP

98
Q

Hyperparathyroidism management

A
  • Primary = parathyroidectomy
  • Secondary = address underlying cause, Vit D replacement and phosphate binders
  • Tertiary = total/subtotal parathyroidectomy, Cinacalcet (mimics Ca action on tissues)
99
Q

What does PTH do?

A
  • Stimulates osteoclasts
  • Increases Ca reabsorption in the DCT
  • Increases phosphate excretion
  • Stimulates alpha-hydroxylate to activate vit D in the kidneys
100
Q

What does Vitamin D do?

A

Stimulates osteoclast activity and Ca absorption in the gut

101
Q

Define Thyrotoxicosis

A

A syndrome resulting from the presence of excessive thyroid hormones, not always due to thyroid overactivity

102
Q

What are the causes of Hyperthyroidism?

A

Primary:
- Grave’s
- Toxic adenoma
- Toxic multinodular goitre
- Thyroiditis

Secondary:
- Amiodarone
- Lithium
- TSH producing adenoma
- Choriocarcinoma (bHCG can activate TSH receptors)
- Gestational hyperthyroidism
- Pituitary resistance to thyroxine (-ve feedback failure)
- Struma ovarii (ectopic thyroid tissue in ovarian tumours)

103
Q

Hyperthyroidism features

A
  • Increased basal metabolic rate
  • Heat intolerance
  • Tachycardia and arrhythmias
  • WL
  • Diarrhoea
  • Sweaty skin
  • Insomnia and sleep disturbances
  • Restlessness and tremor
  • Goitre
  • Mood disturbances
  • Menstrual disturbances

Grave’s specific:
- Exophthalmos, proptosis and lid lag
- Thyroid acropachy = soft tissue welling in extremities (nail clubbing and periosteal new bone growth)
- Pretibial myxoedema = mucopolysaccharide deposition in the dermis leading to oedema and skin thickening, mostly in the shins

104
Q

Hyperthyroidism investigations

A
  • TFTs = high T4, low TSH
  • Antibody tests
  • Thyroid US
  • Radioiodine uptake test = diffuse uptake in Grave’s, focal uptake in a toxic nodule
105
Q

Hyperthyroidism management

A

Medical:
- Antithyroid drugs (1st line) = Carbimazole or propylthiouracil
- Propranolol for symptomatic relief
- Radioiodine = for definitive treatment, kills the thyroid tissue and then you replace w/ levothyroxine

Surgery:
- Thyroidectomy + replacement = for pts w/ large goitres causing compression, suspicion of malignancy or when other treatment is contraindicated or refused

106
Q

Define Thyroid storm

A

A life-threatening emergency due to thyrotoxicosis

It is often triggered by stressors e.g. surgery, trauma or infection

107
Q

Thyroid storm features

A
  • Restlessness and agitation
  • High-output heart failure
  • Profound tachycardia
  • Fever
  • Delirium and altered mental state
108
Q

Thyroid storm management

A
  • Counteract peripheral action of thyroxine = propranolol and digoxin to control HR and manage cardiac symptoms
  • Inhibit thyroid synthesis = propylthiouracil through a NG tube and Lugol’s iodine
  • Inhibit peripheral conversion of T4 to more active T3 = prednisolone or hydrocortisone
  • Supportive care = fluids, cooling measures, address precipitating factors
109
Q

Define Hypocalcaemia

A

Serum Ca levels < 2.1

110
Q

What are the causes of Hypocalcaemia?

A

W/ low PTH:
- Hypoparathyroidism
- Impaired PTH excretion = low magnesium, calcimimetics (cinacalet), Ca receptor mutations

W/ high PTH:
- Vit D deficiency
- Pseudohypoparathyroidism
- Bisphosphonate use

Due to compartmental shift:
- Alkalosis (increases Ca affinity for binding to albumin)
- Massive blood transfusion
- Artefact
- Osteoblastic mets
- Hungry bone syndrome (after parathyroidectomy)
- Acute pancreatitis
- Severe hyperphosphataemia which leads to complex formation w/ Ca e.g. secondary to tumour lysis syndrome, rhabdomyolysis, paraentral feeding

111
Q

Hypocalcaemia features

A

SPASMODIC:

  • Spasms (trousseau’s sign)
  • Perioral paraesthesia
  • Anxiety/irritability
  • Seizures
  • Muscle tone increase (colic, dysphagia)
  • Orientation impairment (confusion)
  • Dermatitis
  • Impetigo herpetiformis
  • Chvostek’s sign
  • ECG shows prolonged QTc
112
Q

Hypocalcaemia management

A
  • Address underlying cause
  • Mild = oral supplements
  • Severe (ECG changes/clinical features) = IV calcium gluconate
113
Q

Define Hypoglycaemia

A

Blood glucose < 3.5

114
Q

What are the causes of Hypoglycaemia?

A
  • Drugs = insulin, Sulphonylureas, GLP-1 analogues, DDP-4 inhibitors, Beta-blockers
  • Alcohol
  • Acute liver failure
  • Sepsis
  • Adrenal insufficiency
  • Insulinoma
  • Glycogen storage disease
115
Q

Hypoglycaemia features

A

Adrenergic symptoms (<3.3):
- Trembling
- Sweating
- Palpitations
- Hunger
- Headache

Neuroglycopenic symptoms (<2.8):
- Double vision
- Difficulty concentrating
- Slurred speech
- Confusion
- Coma

116
Q

Hypoglycaemia management

A

Mild (pt is conscious):
- ABCDE
- 15-20g of fast acting carbohydrate (glucose tablet/gel, non-diet soda, sweets, frit juice)
- Follow up w/ slower carbohydrates (e.g. toast)

Severe (pt unconsciousness/seizing):
- ABCDE
- 200ml 10% dextrose IV (or 20% via large vein)
- If no IV access = 1mg IM glucagon (doesn’t work if alcohol ingestion as alcohol blocks gluconeogenesis)

117
Q

What are the causes of Hypogonadism?

A

Primary:
- Klinefelter’s (XXY)
- Orchitis
- Testicular trauma
- Chemo
- Radiation

Secondary:
- Kallmann’s (failure of GNRH neurons to migrate resulting in anosmia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism)
- Pituitary adenomas
- Hyperprolactinaemia
- Anorexia nervosa
- Opioid use
- Glucocorticoid use
- HIV
- Hemochromatosis

118
Q

Hypogonadism features

A
  • Lethargy
  • Weakness
  • Weight gain
  • Loss of libido
  • Erectile dysfunction
  • Gynecomastia
  • Depression
  • Infertility
  • Osteoporosis
119
Q

Hypogonadism investigations

A
  • FBC, U&E, LFTs
  • Bone profile
  • Fasting glucose and lipids
  • PSA
  • Oestrogen, testosterone, sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)
  • LH/FSH
  • Prolactin
  • TSH/thyroxine
  • Cortisol
  • Pituitary MRI
  • CXR
  • Karotyping
120
Q

Hypogonadism management

A

HRT = either topical, buccal, oral or IM testosterone

121
Q

What are the causes of Hypoparathyroidism?

A
  • Neck surgery or radiation therapy
  • AI polyendocrine syndrome
  • Familial forms
122
Q

Hypoparathyroidism features

A
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Neuropsychiatry = anxiety, depression, cognitive impairment
  • Ocular symptoms = cataracts, impaired night vision
  • Dental abnormalities = dental enamel hypoplasia, tooth discolouration
123
Q

Hypoparathyroidism investigations

A
  • Serum Ca (low) and phosphate (high)
  • PTH levels (low/inappropriately normal)
  • Vit D levels
  • Low urinary Ca
  • Prolonged QTc
124
Q

Hypoparathyroidism management

A

Ca and Vit D supplementation

Close monitoring

125
Q

What are the causes of Hypothyroidism?

A
  • AI = Hashimoto’s, atrophic thyroiditis, polyendocrine syndromes
  • Iatrogenic = surgical removal, radioablations, radiation therapy
  • Congenital = Thyroid aplasia, Pendred syndrome (defect in thyroxine synthesis)
  • Iodine deficiency/excess
  • Infiltrative disorders = sarcoid, haemochromatosis
126
Q

Hypothyroidism features

A
  • Peripheral = dry/thick skin, brittle hair, scanty secondary sexual hair
  • Queen Anne’s sign = loss of other 1/3 of eyebrows
  • Cold intolerance
  • Head and neck = macroglossia, puffy face, goitre
  • Cardiac = bradycardia, cardiomegaly
  • Neuro = carpal tunnel, slow relaxing reflexes, cerebellar ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, loss of concentration
  • Joint pain
  • Menorrhagia
127
Q

Hypothyroidism investigations

A
  • TFTs (1st line)
  • Antibody testing = anti-TPO, anti-thyroglobulin, Anti-TSH receptor
  • Imaging and biopsy
  • Iodine levels
128
Q

Hypothyroidism management

A
  • Levothyroxine
  • Recheck TFTs every 3 moths after initiation, and adjust dose accordingly
  • Once the TSH level is stable (2 similar measurements w/in reference range 3 months apart) then check TFTs annually
  • During pregnancy, LT4 is usually increased by 25-50mg
129
Q

Define Infertility

A

The failure to conceive over a 2-year period despite regular (3-4x a week) unprotected sexual intercourse

130
Q

What are the causes of Infertility?

A

Natrual:
- Increasing age
- Smoking and obesity
- Tight fitting underwear (males)
- Excessive alcohol
- Anabolic steroid use
- Illicit drugs

Genetic:
- Turner’s
- Klinefelter’s

Ovulation/endocrine:
- PCOS
- Pituitary tumours
- Sheehan’s
- Hyperprolactinaemia
- Cushing’s
- POI

Tubal abnormalities:
- Congenital
- Adhesions secondary to PID

Uterine abormalities:
- Bicornate
- Fibroids
- Asherman’s syndrome
- Endometriosis

Cervical abnormalities:
- After biopsy or LLETZ

Testicular:
- Cryptorchidism
- Varicocele
- Cancer
- Congenital defects

Ejaculation:
- Obstruction
- Retrograde ejaculation
- Premature ejaculation

131
Q

Infertility (female) investigations

A

Bedside:
- Thorough Hx
- Speculum and bimanual exam to assess for obvious abnormalities
- STI screen

Bloods:
- Serum progesterone testing (performed 7 days before period) - a rise in progesterone indicates a corpus luteum has formed
- Prolactin
- LH/FSH
- Anti-Mullerian hormone = measure ovarian reserves
- TFTs

Imaging:
-TVUS
- Hysterosalpingography
- Laparoscopy

132
Q

Infertility (male) investigations

A

Bedside:
- Thorough Hx
- Testicular exam
- Semen analysis

Bloods:
- Serum testosterone
- LH/FSH
- TFTs

133
Q

Infertility management

A

Treat underlying cause

Conservative:
- WL
- Smoking cessation
- Stress and alcohol reduction

Medical:
- Clomiphene (increases ovulation)
- FSH/LH injections
- GnRH or DA agonists

Surgical:
- IVF
- Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

134
Q

MEN-1 features

A

3 Ps

  • Parathyroid hyperplasia/adenoma
  • Pancreas = gastrinomas or insulinomas
  • Pituitary = prolactinomas
135
Q

MEN-2a features

A

2 Ps, 1 M

  • Pheochromocytomas
  • Parathyroid hyperplasia/adenoma
  • Medullary thyroid cancer
136
Q

MEN-2b features

A

1 P, 2 Ms

  • Pheochromocytomas
  • Medullary thyroid cancer
  • Mucosal Neuromas = on lips, tongues and eyes

(+ Marfanoid habitus = tall stature, arachnodactyly)

137
Q

MEN investigations

A
  • Genetic testing for mutations in MEN1 or RET genes
  • Hormonal assays
  • CT/MRI to look for tumours
138
Q

What are the BMI classifications of Obesity?

A
  • Overweight = 25 - 29.9
  • Class 1 = 30 - 34.9
  • Class 2 = 35 - 39.9
  • Class 3 (severe) = > 40
139
Q

Obesity management

A

Conservative:
- Dietary
- Exercise
- CBT and motivation counselling

Medical:
- Orlistat (lipase inhibitor)
- GLP-1 receptor agonists (e.g. liraglutide) - these should be discontinued after 12 wks if pt has not lost at least 5% of their initial body weight

Surgical - for BMI > 40, or > 35 with significant symptoms:
- Gastric bypass
- Sleeve gastrectomy
- Adjustable gastric banding
- Biliopancreatic diversion

140
Q

Define Osteomalacia

A

Metabolic bone disease due to Vit D deficiency that occurs after the epiphyses close

Characterised by osteopenia and disordered bone calcification (excess osteoid and unmineralised collagenous tissue)

141
Q

Osteomalacia features

A
  • Pain in lower back, hips and pelvis
  • Pseudofractures or Looser’s zones = incomplete stress fractures
  • Bone tenderness
  • Muscle weakness
142
Q

Osteomalacia investgiations

A
  • Vit D levels, Ca and phosphate
  • Bone biopsy (gold standard)
  • XR
143
Q

Osteomalacia management

A
  • Replenish Vit D and Ca
144
Q

Define Osteoporosis

A

Skeletal disease characterised by reduced bone mass and altered microarchitecture of the bone tissue

This results in increased bone fragility and increased fracture risk

Defined as DEXA scan T-score of -2.5 or lower

145
Q

What are the risk factors for Osteoporosis?

A

SHATTERED FAMILY

  • Steroid use
  • Hyperthyroidism/parathyroidism
  • Alcohol and smoking
  • Thin (BMI < 22)
  • Testosterone deficiency
  • Early menopause
  • Renal/liver failure
  • Erosive/inflammatory bone disease
  • Diabetes
  • Family Hx
146
Q

Osteoporosis features

A
  • Back pain due to fractured/collapsed vertebra
  • Loss of height over time
  • Stooped posture
  • Fractures from low-impact trauma
147
Q

Osteoporosis investigations

A
  • DEXA = -2.5 or lower
  • X ray
  • PTH, Ca and vit D levels
  • FRAX score = assessment of 10-year risk of major osteoporotic fracture
148
Q

Osteoporosis management

A
  • Bisphosphonates = to all pts w/ T score < -2.5, or T score -1 to -1.5 w/ a high FRAX score, or to all pts > 75 with a low-energy fracture
  • Denosumab
  • Ca supplements
149
Q

Define Pheochromocytoma

A

A catecholamine (adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine) secreting tumour that originates in the adrenal medulla

When a similar tumour arises in sympathetic nerve tissue = paraganglioma

150
Q

Pheochromocytoma features

A
  • Episodic HTN (esp when adrenals compressed)
  • Anxiety
  • WL
  • Fatigue
  • Palpitations
  • Excessive sweating
  • Headaches
  • Flushing
  • Fever
  • SOB
  • Abdo pain
  • Tremor
151
Q

Pheochromocytoma investigations

A
  • Plasma metanephrines (breakdown product of catecholamines) followed by urinary metanephrines = will be elevated
  • Adrenal CT
  • Paragangliomas can be identified using iodine-labelled metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scans or PET scans
152
Q

Pheochromocytoma management

A
  • Initial alpha blockade w/ phenoxybenzamine to prevent intraoperative hypertensive crisis
  • Beta blockers can then be added to manage tachycardia or arrhythmias if neccessary
  • Then, surgical resection
153
Q

What does the anterior pituitary secrete?

A
  • Growth hormone
  • Prolactin
  • LH and FSH
  • Thyroid stimulating hormone
  • Adrenocorticotrophin
154
Q

What does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A
  • Oxytocin
  • Vasopressin (ADH)
155
Q

Pituitary adenoma features

A
  • Specific hormone imbalance (if functional)
  • Headache (localised to front of head, persistent)
  • Bitemporal hemianopia
156
Q

Pituitary adenoma management

A
  • Tran-sphenoidal surgery
  • Radiotherapy in cases where complete tumour removal is not possible or reoccurs
  • Medication to target overproduction of functioning hormones
157
Q

Prolactinoma features

A

Women:
- Oligomenorrhea or amenorrhea
- Galactorrhoea
- Infertility
- Vaginal dryness

Men:
- Erectile dysfunction
- reduced facial hair growth

Both:
- Headaches
- Visual field defects

158
Q

What’s the difference between a micro and macroprolactinoma?

A
  • Micro < 10mm, macro > 10mm
  • Micro prolactin levels < 200, macro > 200 (usually above 1000)
  • Micro = hyperprolactinaemia, macro = hyperprolactinaemia + mass effects
159
Q

Prolactinoma management

A

Medical:
- Dopamine agonists (cabergoline) to increase dopamine inhibition

Surgery:
- Trans-sphenoidal resection +/- radiotherapy

160
Q

Define Hypopituitarism

A

Inadequate production of 1 or more pituitary hormones

Deficiencies in GH, FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH and ADH

161
Q

Hypopituitarism features

A

Depends on the missing hormone

GH:
- Central obesity
- Dry skin
- Reduced muscle strength
0 Decreased exercise tolerance

FSH/LH = Hypogonadotropism

TSH = hypothyroidism

ACTH = adrenal deficiency:
- Fatigue
- Anorexia
- Sarcopenia
- Myalgia
- GI upset

ADH = vasopressin deficiency

162
Q

Define Impaired fasting glucose

A

Fasting blood glucose levels between 6.1 - 6.9

163
Q

Define Impaired glucose tolerance

A

2-hour oral glucose tolerance test values between 7.8 - 11.1

164
Q

Define Pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

A genetic condition where the target organs (bones, kidneys and gut) fail to respond to normal levels of PTH

165
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism features

A
  • Short stature and shortened fingers
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Bone pain and fractures
166
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism investigations

A
  • Hypocalcaemia on serum Ca
  • Normal or elevated PTH levels
167
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism management

A
  • Calcium supplements
  • Vit D supplements
168
Q

Define Secondary diabetes

A

A form of diabetes where there is a clear causative factor other than the typical insulin resistance or beta cell failure associated w/ T2DM

169
Q

What are the causes of secondary diabetes?

A

Pancreatic:
- Cystic fibrosis
- Chronic pancreatitis
- Haemochromatosis
- Cancer

Endocrine:
- Cushing’s = elevated cortisol leads to insulin resistance
- Acromegaly = elevated GH leads to insulin resistance
- Pheochromocytoma = chronic catecholamine-induced glucose intolerance
- Thyrotoxicosis = thyroid hormone excess can enhance hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis and impair insulin secretion

Drugs:
- Steroids
- Atypical neuroleptics
- Thiazides
- Beta blockers = can inhibit insulin secretion

Glycogen storage disease (types 1 and 2)

170
Q

What does Cortisol do?

A

Metabolic:
- Increases blood sugar = glucose and glycogen synthesis in liver, breakdown of glycogen in muscles, decreases glucose uptake in muscles and adipose,
- Decreases protein synthesis
- Lipolysis

Immune:
- Prevents release of cytokines
- Inhibits T cell proliferation

Electrolytes:
- Increases Na absorption in gut
- Increases K (cellular shift due to increased Na)

171
Q

What are the side effects of metformin?

A

Lactic acidosis (avoid if renal impairment) and GI disturbances (switch to modified release)

172
Q

What are the side effects of Sulfonylureas (e.g. Gliclazide)?

A

Hypoglycaemia and weight gain

173
Q

What are the side effects of Pioglitazone?

A

Fluid retention (worsens HF) and weight gain

174
Q

What are the side effects of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

DKA when used w/ insulin

Increased risk of UTIs

175
Q

What are the side effects of DPP-4 inhibitors (e.g. sitagliptin)?

A

Hypoglycaemia, GI upsets

176
Q

What are the side effects of GLP1 analogues?

A

Hypoglycaemia, GI upsets and may increase risk of pancreatitis when used w/ DPP-4 inhibitors

177
Q

Define Subclinical hyperthyroidism

A

A condition where TSH levels are below the reference range, but T3 and T4 levels are w/in normal range

Pts are usually asymptomatic, but may show moderate signs of hyperthyroidism

178
Q

What are the causes of Subclinical hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Early Grave’s disease
  • Autonomic nodular disease
  • Exogenous intake of thyroid hormones or iodine
  • Transient thyroiditis
179
Q

Subclinical hyperthyroidism investigations

A
  • 2 TFT results showing supressed TSH but normal T3/4, 3-6 months apart
  • Rule out transient causes
180
Q

Define Subclinical hypothyroidism

A

A condition where TSH levels are slightly raised (<10) but T3 and T4 levels are normal

Pts are usually asymptomatic, but may show moderate signs of hypothyroidism

181
Q

What are the causes of Subclinical hypothyroidism?

A
  • Early thyroid failure
  • Hashimoto’s
  • Lithium/amiodarone/radioiodine treatment
182
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism investigations

A
  • 2 TFT results showing elevated TSH but normal T3/4, 3-6 months apart
  • Rule out transient causes
183
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism management

A

Most pts require no treatment other than regular monitoring

If TSH > 10 or pt is symptomatic, consider replacing thyroxine

184
Q

What are the causes of SIADH?

A
  • Pituitary tumour
  • Tumours = SCLC, thymoma, lymphoma
  • Pulmonary disease = infections, pneumothorax, asthma, CF
  • CNS = infections, head injury (SAH)
  • Drugs = chemo, psychiatric drugs
  • Idiopathic
185
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Binds to aquaporin 2 channels in the collecting duct to increase water reabsorption

Vasoconstricts to increase BP

186
Q

SIADH features

A

Symptoms largely due to resulting dilutional hyponatraemia:
- Muscle cramps
- N&V
- Confusion, coma
- Seizures

187
Q

SIADH investigations

A
  • U&E = hyponatraemia
  • Plasma osmolality = low (<270)
  • Urine sodium = high (>20)
  • Urine osmolality = high (>100)
188
Q

SIADH management

A
  • Fluid restriction
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Monitor and correct sodium levels
  • Demeclocycline = reduces collecting ducts sensitivity to ADH
189
Q

What are the different types of Thyroid cancer?

A
  • Papillary = most common, occurs at 30-40 yrs, can met to bone a lung, excellent prognosis
  • Follicular = more common in women and places w/ low iodine, occurs at 30-60 yrs, mets to bone and lung
  • Medullary = originates from calcitonin-producing C cells, presents w/ hypocalcaemia and diarrhoea due to increased calcitonin, associated w/ MEN 2, mets to lymph nodes, worse prognosis
  • Anaplastic = rarest, occurs 60-70 yrs, rapidly growing mass w/ median survival of 8 months
  • Thyroid lymphoma = NHL, occurs 50-80 yrs, strongly associated w/ Hashimoto’s
190
Q

Thyroid cancer investigations

A
  • Thyroid USS for imaging
  • FNA for cytology
  • TSH and calcitonin levels
191
Q

Thyroid cancer features

A

Depend on the type, common ones include:

  • Lump/swelling in the neck
  • Voice changes
  • Dysphagia
  • Pain in neck or throat
  • Persistent cough
192
Q

Thyroid cancer management

A
  • Thyroidectomy or lobectomy followed by radioactive iodine treatment
  • then lifelong replacement
  • Chemo + radiation for anaplastic
193
Q

Define Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

Bilateral adrenal haemorrhage and failure due to DIC caused by a significant bacterial infection

Most commonly due to Neisseria meningitides

194
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome features

A
  • Systemic illness due to infection
  • Septic shock due to adrenal insufficiency = marked hypotension, altered mental status
  • Multi-organ dysfunction
195
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome management

A
  • Aggressive fluid therapy
  • Vasopressor support
  • Broad-spectrum abx
  • Corticosteroid replacement therapy
196
Q

Define Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

A

A group of aurtosomalresessive disorders chaarcterised by impaired steroid hormone synthesis w/in the adrenal cortex due to enzyme defects

The most common type = 21-hydroxylase deficiency (an enzyme critical for the production of gluco/mineralocorticoids, cortisol and aldosterone) - it leads to elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels

197
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia features

A

Depends on the enzyme defects, typically features include:
- Ambiguous genitalia (esp in females) due to in-utero exposure to excessive androgens
- Salt wasting crisis at birth = diarrhoea and vomiting, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, circulatory shock and metabolic acidosis
- Virilisation = development of masculine secondary sexual characteristics in females
- Precocious puberty in men

198
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia investigations

A
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone and ACTH are elevated in CAH
  • Cortisol is low
  • Corticotropin stimulation test is the gold standard for diagnosis
  • Genetic testing = Can confirm the diagnosis and identify the specific enzyme defect
  • Ultrasound can help in the assessment of internal sex organs in patients with ambiguous genitalia
199
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia management

A
  • Addisonian crisis = fluids, NaCl replacement
  • Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone
  • Sick day rules
  • Surgery to fix virilisation
200
Q

Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia complications

A
  • Growth suppression
  • metabolic syndrome
  • Infertility
201
Q

Define Addisonian crisis

A

Acute, life-threatening deficiency in cortisol leading to hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and hypoglycaemia

202
Q

Addisonian crisis features

A

Symptoms:
- Fatigue/malaise
- Abdo pain
- N&V
- Myalgia
- Headache

Signs:
- Dehydration
- Hypotension
- Hypovolaemic shock
- Low-grade fever
- Confusion or coma
- Seizures

203
Q

Addisonian crisis management

A
  • ABCDE
  • Fluid resuscitation
  • IV or IM hydrocortisone 100mg as soon as suspected
  • Then regular hydrocortisone
  • IV glucose to correct hypoglycaemia
204
Q

Define Pituitary apoplexy

A

Infarction or haemorrhage of the pituitary gland

205
Q

Pituitary apoplexy features

A
  • Sudden and severe headache
  • Confusion
  • Fatigue
  • Fever
  • N&V
  • Addisonian crisis due to hypopituitarism and no ACTH
206
Q

Define Sheehan’s syndrome

A

Hypopituitarism due to large blood loss during child birth

This leads to ischaemia of the pituitary gland

207
Q

Define De Quervain’s thyroiditis

A

A self-limiting inflammatory illness of the thyroid gland usually due to a viral infection

208
Q

De Quervain’s thyroiditis features

A

Has 4 phases:
1) Thyroid swelling and discomfort w/ thyrotoxicosis (+fever like illness)
2) Brief euthyroid phase
3) Hypothyroid phase
4) Recovery euthyroid phase

Usually resolves w/in 3-6 months

209
Q

Define Hypokalaemia

A

Potassium levels < 3.5

210
Q

What are the causes of Hypokalaemia?

A

Renal (urine K > 20):
- Diuretics (furosemide, thiazides)
- Renal tubular acidosis
- Endocrine = Conn’s, Cushing’s
- Hypomagnesaemia

Extra-renal:
- Inadequate intake
- Gut loss = dialarhoea, vomiting, ileostomy, VIPoma, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
- Redistribution into cells = beta agonists, insulin, theophylline, alkalosis (swaps for H+)

211
Q

Hypokalaemia features

A
  • Muscle weakness/cramps
  • Paraesthesia
  • Polyuria/polydipsia
  • Constipation
  • ECG = flattened T waves, prominent U waves, ST depression
212
Q

Hypokalaemia management

A
  • K between 3-3.5 = SandoK
  • K < 3 = cardiac monitoring, correct magnesium (low mag causes renal K wasting) and IV replacement (no more than 10mmol/hr in a peripheral vein)
213
Q

Define Hyperkalaemia

A

Potassium > 5.5

214
Q

Hyperkalaemia features

A
  • Paraesthesia
  • Muscle weakness
  • Oliguria
  • Arrhythmias (esp VF)
  • ECG = Tall tented T waves, flattened P waves, widened QRS complexes
215
Q

What are the causes of Hyperkalaemia?

A

Impaired excretion:
- AKI
- CKD
- ACEi
- Potassium sparing diuretics
- NSAIDs
- Heparins
- Ciclosporin
- Trimethoprim
- Renal tubular acidosis type 4
- Addison’s

Increased release from cells:
- Lactic acidosis
- Insulin deficicency
- Rhabdomyolysis
- Tumour lysis syndrome
- Massive haemolysis
- Digoxin toxicity
- Beta-blockers

216
Q

Hyperkalaemia management

A
  • Mild = 5.5-5.9 = repeat
  • Moderate = 6-6.4 = give potassium binders if can tolerate PO, give Calcium gluconate if ECG changes, give Insulin-glucose IV infusion, then give salbutamol if not coming down
  • Severe = >6.5 = give potassium binders if can tolerate PO, give Calcium gluconate, give Insulin-glucose IV infusion, then give salbutamol if not coming down
217
Q

What are the causes of Hypomagnesaemia

A

Decreased gut absorption:
- PPIs
- Insufficient intake
- Alcoholism
- Dialarhoea
- Malabsorption
- SB bypass
- Vomiting
- Short bowel syndrome

Redistribution to intracellular space;
- Refeeding syndrome
- Insulin
- Acute pancreatitis
- Alcohol withdrawal

Increased renal excretion:
- Loop and thiazide diuretics
- Digoxin
- Gentamicin
- Chemo
- Renal tubular acidosis
- Dialysis
- Genetic

218
Q

Hypomagnesaemia features

A
  • Weakness
  • Paraesthesia
  • Seizures
  • Confusion/Coma
  • Hypocalcaemia = low mag stops PTH release
  • Hypokalaemia = stimulates renal K loss
  • Ventricular arrhythmias
  • Chondrocalcinosis
219
Q

Hypomagnesaemia management

A
  • Mild (0.5-0.7) = oral replacement if symptomatic
  • Moderate (0.4-0.5) = magnesium salts (can cause diarrhoea) if asymptomatic, IV if symptomatic
  • Severe (<0.4) = IV replacement
220
Q

What are the causes of Hyponatraemia in a hypovolaemic patient?

A

Urinary Na > 20 (renal loss):
- Addison’s
- Renal failure
- Diuretics
- Osmotic diuresis

Urinary Na < 20 (loss elsewhere):
- Diarrhoea & vomiting
- Fistulae
- Burns
- Small bowel obstruction
- Excessive sweating

221
Q

What are the causes of Hyponatraemia in a euvolemic patient?

A

High urine osmolality = SIADH

Normal urine osmolality:
- Water intoxication
- Severe hypothyroidism
- Glucocorticoid insufficiency

222
Q

What are the causes of Hyponatraemia in a hypervolaemic patient?

A

Failures = cardiac, liver, renal

Nephrotic syndrome

223
Q

What are the causes of Hypernatraemia in a hypovolaemic patient?

A

Renal:
- Osmotic diuresis
- Loop diuretics

Other:
- D&V
- GI fistulae
- Burns

224
Q

What are the causes of Hyponatraemia in a hypervolaemic patient?

A
  • NaCL infusion
  • Salt water ingestion
  • Cushing’s syndrome
  • Conn’s syndrome
225
Q

What are the causes of Hyponatraemia in a euvolemic patient?

A
  • Vasopressin insufficiency
  • Vasopressin resistance
226
Q

Hypernatraemia symptoms

A
  • Fever and flushed skin
  • Restlessness/irritability
  • Increased BP
  • Oedema
  • Fluid retention
  • Oliguria
227
Q

Hyponatraemia symptoms

A

LOW SODIUM:

  • Levels of consciousness altered
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Weakness
  • Seizures
  • Osmolality low (serum)
  • Diarrhoea
  • Increased ICP
  • Urine osmolality high
  • More bowel sounds