Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What types of hormones do exist?

A

Three:

  • Proteins and polypeptides -> secreted by anterior and posterior pituitary gland, pancreas (insulin and glucagon), parathyroid and many others. Water soluble - enter easy in circulation.
  • Steroids -> secreted by adrenal cortex (cortisol and aldosterone), the ovaries (estrogens and progesterone) the testes (testosterone) and the placenta (estrogen and progesterone).
  • Derivates of the aa tyrosine -> secreted by the thyroid (thyroxine and triiodothyronine) and the adrenal medulla (epinephrine and norepinephrine).

Not known polysaccharides or nucleic acid hormones.

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2
Q

Describe the protein and peptide hormone synthesis, storage and release.

A
  • Synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum as large, nonactive proteins called prehormones.
  • Prehormones cleaved to form smaller prohormones, that will be transferred to the Golgi apparatus.
  • In the Golgi apparatus they will be packet into small vesicles, and enzymes in the vesicles will cleave the pro hormones to produce smaller, biologically active hormones and inactive fragments.
  • Vesicles stored in cytoplasm until their secretion is needed -> via exocytosis.
  • In many cases, the stimulus for exocytosis is increased cytosolic calcium concentrations caused by depolarization of the cell membrane.
  • In other cases, the stimulus can be increases of cAMP that will activate protein kinases, initiation the secretion of the hormone.
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3
Q

Steroid hormones synthesis

A
  • Chemical structure similar to cholesterol, in most cases they derive from it.
  • Normally very little hormone storage -> large stores of cholesterol esters in cytoplasm vacuoles that can be rapidly mobilized for steroid synthesis after a stimulus.
  • Most of the cholesterol comes from the plasma, but also de-novo synthesis in steroid-producing cells
  • Highly lipid soluble -> once synthesized they can diffuse across the cell membrane, enter the interstitial fluid then blood.
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4
Q

Amine hormones synthesis

A
  • Formed by the actions of enzymes in the cytoplasm of glandular cells.
  • Thyroid hormones -> synthesized and stored in thyroid gland, and incorporated into macromolecules of the protein thyroglobulin -> stored in large follicles within the thyroid gland.
  • Hormone secretion: when the amines are split from the thyroglobulin and free hormones released into the blood stream, they combine with plasma proteins, especially thyroxine-binding globulin (slowly releases the hormones to target tissues).
  • Epinephrine and norepinephrine -> formed in the adrenal medulla (x4 more epi than norepinephrine). They are taken up into preformed vesicles and stored until secreted.
  • Catecholamines vesicles released from adrenal medulla by exocytosis -> once in the circulation they can exist free in the plasma or in conjugation with other substances.
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5
Q

What is the most common mechanism to regulate hormonal secretion? Explain and give an example.

A
  • Negative feedback.
  • A hormone has biologic actions that, directly or indirectly, inhibit further secretion of the hormone.
  • Parathyroid hormone is secreted by the chief cells of the parathyroid gland in response to a decrease in serum Ca2+ concentration. In turn, parathyroid hormone’s actions on bone, kidney, and intestine all act in concert to increase the serum Ca2+ concentration. The increased serum Ca2+ concentration then decreases further parathyroid hormone secretion.
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6
Q

Explain and give examples of positive feedback

A
  • Rare. Explosive and self-reinforcing.
  • A hormone has biologic actions that, directly or indirectly, cause more secretion of the hormone.
  • The surge of luteinizing hormone (LH) that occurs just before ovulation is a result of positive feedback of estrogen on the anterior pituitary. LH then acts on the ovaries and causes more secretion of estrogen.
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7
Q

How do hormones regulate the sensitivity of the target tissue?

A
  • By regulating the number or sensitivity of receptors.

a) Down-regulation of receptors: a hormone decreases the number or affinity of receptors for itself or for another hormone. For example, in the uterus, progesterone down-regulates its own receptor and the receptor for estrogen.

b) Up-regulation of receptors: a hormone increases the number or affinity of receptors for itself or for another hormone. For example, in the ovary, estrogen up-regulates its own receptor and the receptor for LH.

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8
Q

Where are the different type of hormone receptors generally located?

A
  • In or on the surface of the cell membrane -> for protein/peptides and catecholamine hormones
  • In the cell cytoplasm -> for steroid hormones
  • In the cell nucleus -> for the thyroid hormones, believed to be located in direct association with one or more of the chromosomes.
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9
Q

G protein coupled receptors (GPCR)

A

1) Receptor structure
Receptor with seven transmembrane helices - passes through the membrane 7 times

Binding sites for ligands are found in extracellular regions or between helices -> has an intracellular binding site for the G protein.

2) The G protein is normally bound to GDP (‘Off’ state – inactive receptor -> the G protein is bound to GDP).

Binding of a peptide hormone (e.g., epinephrine or oxytocin) changes the overall three-dimensional structure of the inside portion of the receptor

  • The receptor activates the G protein by removing the GDP and adding on GTP (‘On’ state – active receptor -> the G protein is bound to GTP).
  • The activated G protein can move along the membrane
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10
Q

Explain Gs protein-coupled receptors

A

1) G stimulatory protein.

The activated Gs protein (bounded to GTP) goes to an EFFECTOR enzyme on the cell membrane -> adenylate cyclase -> it has a specific point of attachment for the activated Gs protein. The effector enzyme then becomes very active.

2) Adenylate cyclase -> has a specific enzyme – GTPase
o GTPase cuts the GTP and turns it into GDP (removes a phosphate) -> G protein is turned off
o Energy is produced when removing the phosphate and used to convert ATP to cAMP
o cAMP activates protein kinase A (pkA)

NOTE: a kinase, by definition, is an enzyme that phosphorylates.

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11
Q

What can an activated pkA do?

A

Can phosphorylate multiple proteins which leads to different effects:

o Regulation of membrane permeability for different ions -> will phosphorylate channel proteins on the cell membrane.

o Regulation of metabolic pathways (glycolysis) -> phosphorylation of enzymes.

o Increased production of new proteins (transcription) -> phosphorylation of transcription factors.

o Increased cell proliferation and DNA replication, etc.

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12
Q

Explain Gq protein-coupled receptors

A

1) The activated Gq protein goes to an effector enzyme on the cell membrane -> Phospholipase C

o Phospholipase C becomes very active

2) Phospholipase C has a specific enzyme – GTPase

o GTPase cuts the GTP and turns it into GDP -> G protein is turned off
o Energy is produced and used to cut a specific molecule that is found in the membrane -> phosphatidylinositol biphosphate (PIP2) into diacylglycerol (DAG) and inositol trisphosphate (IP3)
o DAG activates a specific enzyme – protein kinase C (pkC)

3) pkC has the same function as pkA -> phosphorylation of different proteins (activation or deactivation).

o IP3 affects the smooth endoplasmic reticulum in most cells or the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. The reticulum has specific receptors for IP3 -> IP3 binds to the receptor to open a specific channel -> calcium leaves the reticulum and goes in the cytoplasm.

4) Calcium binds to Calmodulin which then activate different types of kinases. The activated kinases phosphorylate different proteins (e.g., myosin to initiate contractions).

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13
Q

Steroid hormone receptors

A
  • Can be intra cytosolic or intranuclear.
  • Normally are bound to heat shock protein (HSP) (“off” state)
  • When a steroid hormone (testosterone) goes through the cell membrane and binds to the receptor it displaces the HSP and activates the receptor (“on” state).
  • The activated receptor binds to a specific gene sequence – hormone response element (HRE)
  • A plethora of effects is triggered:
    o DNA replication -> stimulates cell proliferation (mitosis)
    o Transcription followed by translation -> stimulates the synthesis of proteins that:
    • Control metabolism
    • Control ion permeability
    • Control protein synthesis
    • Control cell growth
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14
Q

Catalytic (or enzymatic-linked) receptor mechanisms

A
  • Hormone binds to extracellular receptors that have, or are associated with, enzymatic activity on the intracellular side of the membrane.
  1. Guanylyl cyclase
    a. Atrial natriuretic peptide -> receptor guanylyl cyclase -> the extracellular side of the receptor binds ANP and the intracellular side of the receptor has guanylyl cyclase activity. Activation of guanylyl cyclase converts GTP to cyclic GMP, which is the second messenger.

b. Nitric oxide -> cytosolic guanylyl cyclase. Activation of guanylyl cyclase converts GTP to cyclic GMP, which is the second messenger.

  1. Tyrosine kinases -> hormone binds to extracellular receptors that have, or are associated with, tyrosine kinase activity. When activated, tyrosine kinase phosphorylates tyrosine moieties on proteins, leading to the hormone’s physiologic actions.
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15
Q

Mechanisms of hormone action

A
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16
Q

“These type of hormones are water soluble and work through the ____________ systems after binding to cell membrane receptors. Some examples are:

These type of hormones can pass through the bilipid bilayer and act in receptors inside the cell. Some examples are: “

A
  1. Peptide hormones, second messenger (Gs, Gi),
    ex: oxytocin, FSH, LH, glucagon, PTH, calcitonin, TRH…
  2. Steroid hormones/lipid soluble (derived from colesterol). Examples: testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, aldosterone, cortisol, vitamin D, thyroid hormone
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17
Q

How does thyroid hormones contribute to an increase cardiac output

A

Upregulate expression of B1 receptors (increases HR and inotrophy)

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18
Q

T/F Thyroid hormone increases the synthesis of Na+, K+-ATPase and consequently increases 02 consumption related to Na/K pump activity

A

TRUE

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19
Q

Mention two molecules that act through the Guanylyl cyclase pathway having GMP as the second messenger

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide
Nitric oxide

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20
Q

List the hormones that act via the tyrosine kinase pathway

A

Insulin
Insulin-like growth factor
Growth hormone
Prolactin

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21
Q

The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is linked to the hypothalamus by the _________________________

A

Hypothalamic- hypophyseal portal system.

Blood from the hypothalamus that contains high concentrations of hypothalamic hormones is delivered directly to the anterior pituitary. Hypothalamic hormones then stimulate or inhibit the release of anterior pituitary hormones.

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22
Q

Connection between hypothalamus and hypophysis

A
  • Tract – neural connection - between the hypothalamus and the neurohypophysis (hypothalamic hypophyseal tract)
  • Portal system – connection of two capillary beds by a portal vein -> between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis (hypothalamic hypophyseal portal system)
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23
Q

Anatomy of hypothalamus / hypophysis

A

1) Hypothalamus
- Several gray matter nuclei – supraoptic nucleus (SON), paraventricular nucleus (PVN), arcuate nucleus (AN), preoptic nucleus (PON), etc

  • Situated anterior and a little bit inferior to the thalamus

2) Infundibulum -> connection between the hypothalamus and the hypophysis

3) Pituitary gland (Hypophysis)
Anterior pituitary gland (Adenohypophysis)
o Made of glandular cuboidal epithelial tissue
o Originates form pharyngeal mucosa - Rathke’spouch

Posterior pituitary gland (Neurohypophysis)
o Made of neural tissue - pituicytes (glial cells)
o Considered a part of the brain and not a separate type of endocrine gland.

REMINDER:
- Nucleus - a group of cell bodies in the central nervous system collectively joined together in a specific area which is unmyelinated and forming gray matter.

  • Tract – a bundle of axons grouped together in the central nervous system.
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24
Q

The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is derived from where?

A

From neural tissue. The nerve cell bodies are located in hypothalamic nuclei. Posterior pituitary hormones are synthesized in the nerve cell bodies, packaged in secretory granules, and transported down the axons to the posterior pituitary for release into the circulation.

Supraoptical nucleus -> ADH
Paraventricular nucleus -> oxytocin

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25
Q

Neurohypophysis -> supraoptic nucleus (SON)

A

Secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH, aka vasopressin)

After it’s created it is transported down the axons, in synaptic vesicles by specific motor proteins.

The vesicles need certain stimuli to release the ADH
o ↓ blood volume → ↓ blood pressure
o ↑ plasma osmolality
o Pain

Inhibitors of the ADH secretion
o ↑ blood volume
o ↓ plasma osmolality
o Alcohol

REMINDER:
Osmolality refers to the concentration solutes and water inside the plasma
o High plasma osmolality - ↓ water, ↑ solutes -> hypertonic plasma
o Low plasma osmolality - ↑ water, ↓solutes -> hypotonic plasma

o Osmoreceptors - register the plasma osmolality -> high osmolality stimulates the receptors

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26
Q

Mention the 4 main actions of ADH

A

1) Increases H20 permeability (aquaporin 2, AQP2) of the principal cells of the late distal tubule and collecting duct (via a V2 receptor and an adenylate cyclase-cAMP mechanism).

2) Constriction of vascular smooth muscle (via a V1 receptor and an IP3 /Ca2+ mechanism).

3) Increased Na+-2CI–K+ cotransport in thick ascending limb, leading to increased countercurrent multiplication and osmotic gradient.

4) Increase urea recycling in inner medullary collecting ducts, leading to increased osmotic gradient.

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27
Q

Regulators of ADH secretion

A
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28
Q

Where is oxytocin produced?

A

In the paraventricular nucleus in the hypothalamus

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29
Q

Regulation of oxytocin secretion

A

1) Suckling is the major stimulus for oxytocin secretion.

Afferent fibers carry impulses from the nipple to the spinal cord. Relays in the hypothalamus trigger the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.

The sight or sound of the infant may stimulate the hypothalamic neurons to secrete oxytocin, even in the absence of suckling.

2) Dilation of the cervix and orgasm increases the secretion of oxytocin.

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30
Q

Actions of oxytocin

A

1) Contraction of myoepithelial cells in the breast

Milk is forced from the mammary alveoli into the ducts and ejected.

2) Contraction of the uterus - during pregnancy, oxytocin receptors in the uterus are up-regulated as parturition approaches, although the role of oxytocin in normal labor is uncertain. Oxytocin can be used to induce labor and reduce postpartum bleeding

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31
Q

What controls the secretion of the anterior pituitary hormones?

A

The hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory hormones.

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32
Q

What are the different cells present in the anterior pituitary, and what do they synthesize?

A
  • Usually, there is one cell type for each major hormone formed in the anterior pituitary gland.
  • Somatotropes - growth hormone (GH) - 30-40% of the cells
  • Corticotropes - adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - about 20% of the cells
  • Thyrotropes - thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) - 3-5% of the cells
  • Gonadotropes - gonadotropic hormones - Luteinizing hormone (LH and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) - 3-5% of the cells
  • Lactotropes - prolactin (PRL) - 3-5% of the cells.
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33
Q

What type of hormones are the hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory hormones?

A

Peptides, polypeptides or derivatives of tyrosine.

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34
Q

Hypothalamic release and inhibitory hormones

A
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35
Q

Regulation of growth hormone secretion

A
  • Growth hormone is released in pulsatile fashion.
  • Secretion is increased by sleep, stress, hormones related to puberty, starvation, exercise, and hypoglycemia.
  • Secretion is decreased by somatostatin (aka growth hormone inhibitory hormone), somatomedins, obesity, hyperglycemia, and pregnancy.

1) Hypothalamic control -> GHRH and somatostatin
- GHRH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of growth hormone.
- Somatostatin inhibits secretion of growth hormone by blocking the response of the anterior pituitary to GHRH.

2) Negative feedback control by somatomedins
- Somatomedins are produced when growth hormone acts on target tissues. Somatomedins inhibit the secretion of growth hormone by acting directly on the anterior pituitary and by stimulating the secretion of somatostatin from the hypothalamus.

3) Negative feedback control by GHRH and growth hormone
- GHRH inhibits its own secretion from the hypothalamus.
- Growth hormone also inhibits its own secretion by stimulating the secretion of somatostatin from the hypothalamus.

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36
Q

Actions of growth hormone

A
  • In the liver, growth hormone generates the production of somatomedins (IGFs),which serve as the intermediaries of several physiologic actions.
  • The IGF receptor has tyrosine kinase activity, similar to the insulin receptor

1) Direct actions of growth hormone
- Decreases glucose uptake into cells (diabetogenic).
- Increases lipolysis.
- Increases protein synthesis in muscle and increases lean body mass.
- Increases production of IGF.

2) Actions of growth hormone via IGF
- Increases protein synthesis in chondrocytes and increases linear growth (pubertal growth spurt).
- Increases protein synthesis in muscle and increases lean body mass.
- Increases protein synthesis in most organs and increases organ size.

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37
Q

_______________ inhibits secretion of growth hormone by blocking the response of the anterior pituitary to GHRH

A

Somatostatin (aka growth hormone inhibitory hormone)

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38
Q

Growth hormone deficiency

A

In children causes dwarfism, failure to grow, short stature, mild obesity, and delayed puberty.

Can be caused by:
(a) Hypothalamic dysfunction (decreases in GHRH).
(b) Lack of anterior pituitary growth hormone.
(c) Failure to generate IGF in the liver.
(d) Growth hormone receptor deficiency.

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39
Q

Growth hormone excess

A

Hypersecretion of growth hormone causes acromegaly.

(a) Before puberty, excess growth hormone causes increased linear growth (gigantism).

(b) After puberty, excess growth hormone causes increased periosteal bone growth, increased organ size, and glucose intolerance Can be treated with somatostatin analogues (e.g., octreotide), which inhibit growth hormone secretion.

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40
Q

Prolactin

A
  • Is the major hormone responsible for lactogenesis.
  • Participates, with estrogen, in breast development.
  • Is structurally homologous to growth hormone.
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41
Q

Regulation of prolactin secretion

A

1) Hypothalamic control by dopamine and thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

  • Prolactin secretion is inhibited by dopamine (prolactin-inhibiting factor [PIF]) secreted by the hypothalamus. Thus, interruption of the hypothalamic-pituitary tract causes increased secretion of prolactin and sustained lactation.
  • TRH increases prolactin secretion.

2) Negative feedback control -> prolactin inhibits its own secretion by stimulating the hypothalamic release of dopamine.

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42
Q

Actions of prolactin

A

1) Stimulates milk production in the breast.

2) Stimulates breast development (in a supportive role with estrogen).

3) Inhibits ovulation by decreasing synthesis and release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

4) Inhibits spermatogenesis (by decreasing GnRH).

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43
Q

Pathophysiology of prolactin

A

1) Prolactin deficiency (destruction of the anterior pituitary) -> results in the failure to lactate.

2) Prolactin excess

  • Results from hypothalamic destruction (due to loss of the tonic “inhibitory” control by dopamine) or from prolactin-secreting tumors (prolactinomas).
  • Causes galactorrhea and decreased libido.
  • Causes failure to ovulate and amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) because it inhibits GnRH secretion.
  • Can be treated with bromocriptine, which reduces prolactin secretion by acting as a dopamine agonist.
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44
Q

Thyroid gland

A
  • Located in the anterior neck - just below the larynx of the voice box
  • Butterfly shaped
  • Consists of thyroid follicles -> structural and functional unit of the thyroid gland. They are made up of simple cuboidal epithelial cells called follicular cells.
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45
Q

What hormones are mainly secreted by the thyroid

A

Thyroxine - T4 (about 93%)
Triiodothyronine - T3 (about 7%)

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46
Q

Hypothalamic - pituitary - thyroid axis (HPT)

A

1) The synthesis begins in the paraventricular nuclei (PVN) inside the hypothalamus, secreting thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH).

2) TRH goes in the hypophyseal portal system to the anterior pituitary and stimulates specific cells -> the thyrotropes, to secrete thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) into the bloodstream.

3) TSH (it is a peptide hormone) goes to the follicles of the thyroid gland and binds to receptors present on the cell membrane -> it activates a G stimulatory protein (2nd messenger is adenylate cyclase) -> will convert ATP into cAMP and activate protein kinase A (pkA).

4) Activated pkA goes into the cell nucleus and stimulates genes to start producing thyroglobulin colloid

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47
Q

Why is iodine needed?

A
  • To produce thyroid hormone - it is ingested with different nutrients (iodized salt).
  • It circulates in the bloodstream in ion form (called iodide, has a negative charge)
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48
Q

Iodide transport

A
  • It has be to be transported from area with low concentration (blood) to area with high concentration (follicular cells)
  • Sodium uses passive transport to go from an area with high concentration (blood) to area with low concentration (follicular cells) -> iodide cotransports with it (secondary active transport - an indirect use of ATP).
  • A specific protein called pendrin transports iodide from the follicular cells into the luminal space.
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49
Q

What happens in the luminal space of the thyroid follicles once iodide has been moved in by pendrin?

A

There is an enzyme called thyroid peroxidase that has three functions:

1) Iodine oxidation
o Converts iodide into iodine -> iodide loses an electron (loses its negative charge, oxydation) -> becomes neutral

2) Iodination
o Attaches 1 or 2 iodine molecules to the tyrosine amino acids in the thyroglobulin colloid
- 1 molecule creates monoiodotyrosine (MIT)
- 2 molecules create diiodotyrosine (DIT)

3) Coupling
o Couples the iodinated tyrosine amino acids into thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)
- Diiodotyrosine and diiodotyrosine (DIT+DIT) creates T4
- Diiodotyrosine and monoiodotyrosine (DIT+MIT) creates T3

o Apart from thyroid peroxidase there are other enzymes that help the coupling reaction with cleavage processes and rearrangements

T3 and T4 collectively are the thyroid hormone (TH)

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50
Q

Isolation of T3 and T4

A

1) The iodinated thyroglobulin goes inside the follicular cells via endocytosis
o Ends up inside vesicles - then the vesicles fuse with lysosomes
o The lysosomal enzymes cut the thyroglobulin to isolate the T3 and T4

Then the vesicles containing the T3 and T4 fuse with the cell membrane to release the thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.

2) The tyrosine amino acid contains a benzene ring inside its molecule, therefore, T3 and T4 are not water soluble
o In the blood T3 and T4 bind to a transporting protein -> thyroxine binding globulin (TBG, synthesized by the liver).

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51
Q

Recap of thyroid synthesis steps

A
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52
Q

What happens in the peripheral tissues with T3 and T4?

A
  • T4 is converted to T3 by 5’-iodinase (or to rT3).
  • T3 is more biologically active than T4.
  • rT3 is inactive.
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53
Q

Control of thyroid hormone secretion

A
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54
Q

Which are the target organs of thyroid hormones?

A
  • Cells
  • Liver
  • Heart
  • CNS
  • Bones
  • Adipose tissue
  • Muscle
  • Integumentary system
  • GI
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55
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on cells

A

1) Thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) circulates the bloodstream bound to thyroxine binding globulin (T4 is major component) -> passes through the lipid bilayer of the cellular membrane.

2) Inside the cell the enzyme 5’-deiodinase removes an iodine form thyroxine, converting T4 into T3 (the active form of the thyroid hormone).

3) T3 binds to a transcription factor -> to exert its effects, it needs retinoic acid (RXR) to
bind to the transcription factor as well. When both substances bind to the transcription factor o It is activated
o Moves inside the nucleus
o Stimulates a specific gene sequence

4) The gene sequence undergoes transcription, translation and modifications
o The end result is the synthesis of a protein -> sodium-potassium ATPase -> merges with the cell membrane pumps 3Na+ out - 2K+ inside, ATP dependent process -> will deplete ATP.

5) This ATP depletion will force the cells to start “burning more fuel” to increase the ATP -> more consumption of carbohydrates, lipids and proteins to produce ATP.
- Increased O2 consumption
- Increase metabolic rate
- Increase heat production
- Increase number of mitochondria
- Hyperthrophy of the mitochondria

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56
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the liver

A

Produces proteins that stimulate

  • Glycogenolysis (conversion of glycogen into glucose) -> BG goes into the blood, increasing its levels.
  • Gluconeogenesis -> conversion of non-carbohydrates into glucose (glycerol, amino acids and lactate located in the liver).
  • The expression of LDL receptors (LDL-R) -> increases numbers of LDL receptors, increases LDL uptake and decreases LDL levels in blood (LDL - low-density lipoproteins - bad cholesterol).
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57
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the heart

A

1) On the cardiomyocytes -> stimulates the expression of B1-adrenergic receptors -> they bind epinephrine and norepinephrine: increases contractility, stroke volume -> cardiac output -> increases in BP.

2) TH also affects the non-contractile muscle cells of the SA node and the AV node
Stimulates the expression of B1-adrenergic receptors -> they bind epinephrine and norepinephrine: increases action potentials -> increases heart rate -> increases BP.

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58
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the CNS

A

↑ dendrite formation -> increase number of neural connections

↑ myelination -> faster action potentials

↑ number of synapses -> increases number of chemical reactions between neurons.

As a result of all this hyperthyroidism can lead to anxiety and irritability

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59
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the bone

A

1) In the bones there are two types of important cells
o Osteoblasts -> responsible for bone deposition
o Osteoclasts -> responsible for bone resorption

2) TH regulates and maintains the balance between the two
o Prevents excessive osteoblastic or osteoclastic activity
o The process is called bone remodeling

3) TH affects the chondrocytes in the epiphyseal plates
o The chondrocytes undergo proliferation, hypertrophy and eventually ossification
o This causes the bones to grow in length -> interstitial growth

4) TH stimulates endochondral ossification (turning cartilage into bone).

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60
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the adipose tissue

A

TH stimulates lipolysis:

  • The process of of breakdown of triglycerides (main component of the adipose tissue) into fatty acids and glycerol by activating specific enzymes
  • The produced glycerol goes to the liver and is converted into glucose via gluconeogenesis
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61
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the muscle

A

1) The protein metabolism is the sum total of catabolism (conversion of proteins to amino acids) and anabolism (conversion of amino acids into proteins).

2) TH regulates the activity of both keeping them balanced

3) Hyperthyroidism causes the balance shifts to catabolism -> weak, atrophied muscles, weak muscle movements (not to be mistaken with lethargy).

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62
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the integumentary system

A

1) Skin
- Epidermis
- Dermis - contains the blood vessels that provide nutrition

2) TH increases the metabolic rate -> increases internal body temperature.

  • The body tries to regulate it. Blood vessels dilate and increase the blood flow -> the skin to look soft and flushed and radiates heat.
  • The apocrine and merocrine sweat glands start producing sweat -> TH ↑ the sweat glands sensitivity to catecholamines (epi and norepinephrine) -> increases sweat production -> when sweat is on the skin -> evaporative cooling.

3) Hypothyroidism causes brittle nails and thin hair

4) Hyperthyroidism causes thick hair

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63
Q

Effects of thyroid hormones on the GI tract

A

1) TH stimulates the secretions of the entire GI tract
o Alkaline fluid
o Intestinal fluid, etc.

2) TH enhances the motility of the entire GI tract -> stimulates the contractions of the smooth muscle cells.

Hyperthyroidism causes diarrhea

Hypothyroidism causes constipation

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64
Q

Anatomy of parathyroid gland

A

The parathyroid glands are located in the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland

There are generally 4 parathyroid glands

Parathyroid glands consist of two types of cells:
(i) Oxyphilcells -> believed to play a role in stimulating the other cells to produce parathyroid hormone and to play a role in producing parathyroid hormone-related protein and vitamin D

(ii) Chief cells -> primarily responsible for secreting parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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65
Q

Parathyroid hormone synthesis

A

There are specific genes expressed in the nucleus -> will be translated it into a protein -> a preform of parathyroid hormone

The protein undergoes specific modifications and cleavage processes within the rough ER and Golgi apparatus -> turns into parathyroid hormone packaged into vesicles.

The vesicles remain in the cell, ready to be released until the appropriate stimulus triggers them.

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66
Q

Primary stimulus for RELEASE of PTH

A

Hypocalcemia

On the chief cells there are 7 pass transmembrane receptors, very sensitive to Ca++

When Ca++ levels are high -> calcium binds to these receptors -> triggers different intercellular processes and the overall effect of it is the inhibition of PTH release.

If the Ca++ levels are low, there is less inhibitory input -> the vesicles containing PTH merge with the cell membrane -> PTH is released into the bloodstream.

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67
Q

Primary stimulus for PRODUCTION of PTH

A

Is stimulate by humoral stimuli, that could be:
o Ions -> Ca++ in the case of PTH
o Nutrients
o Chemicals, etc.

There are two other types of stimuli
o Hormonal
o Neural

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68
Q

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid

A

The main structural unit of the thyroid gland -> follicular cells

In between the follicles there is another type of cells -> parafollicular cells (aka C-cells)

  • Regulate calcium
  • Stimulated by high calcium blood levels
  • They work through calcium sensitive receptors (or also though calcium channels) -> the overall stimulus is hypercalcemia.

Hypercalcemia -> stimulates the production of calcitonin packaged in vesicles -> The vesicles remain in the cell, ready to be released until the appropriate stimulus triggers them.

High blood calcium levels stimulate the vesicles to fuse with the cell membrane and calcitonin is released into the bloodstream

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69
Q

Between PTH and calcitonin, which one is the primary to regulate calcium levels?

A

PTH

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70
Q

On which organs is the PTH going to work?

A

Bone
Kidneys

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71
Q

Effect of PTH on the bones

A

Two types of cells in the bones that regulate bone remodeling:

o Osteoclasts -> responsible for bone resorption (breakdown the bone and the release the
breakdown products in the blood.

o Osteoblasts -> responsible for bone deposition (taking the required substance from the blood and depositing them into the bones).

2) On the osteoblasts there are receptors for PTH -> PTH binds to them -> the cell is stimulated to start secreting a specific chemical: RANK ligand

3) On the osteoclasts there are RANK-receptors. When RANK ligand binds to RANK receptors. The osteoclast becomes very active -> start secreting chemicals that will start breaking down some of components of the bones (collagen type 1, hydroxyapatite, calcium phosphate…)

4) A lot of Ca++ and PO43- are accumulated and released into the blood, increasing calcium and phosphate levels.

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72
Q

Effect of PTH on the kidneys (direct effect)

A

1) PTH affects the cells of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) in the nephron

2) It activates a G stimulatory protein -> converts ATP to cAMP and cAMP activates protein kinase A

3) The activated pKA goes to the cell nucleus and stimulates specific genes -> produce specific proteins (packed into vesicles) -> calcium transport proteins

4) These proteins will be embed into the cellular membrane -> allow the Ca++ in the lumen of the DCT to flow into the cell, when normally the DCT is impermeable to ions (Na, Cl, Ca) and water. But Ca2+ cannot go out into the circulation as it would go against concentration gradient -> needs help.

5) There are sodium-potassium ATPases embedded in the membrane that pump 3Na+ outside and 2K+ inside the cells (primary active transport, requires ATP).

6) When there is a buildup of Na+ in the extracellular space, it goes into the cell down the concentration gradient (without using energy) -> this process helps Ca++ get out to the blood against its concentration gradient (secondary active transport) -> This leads to an increase in calcium concentration in the blood.

At the same time phosphates are excreted in the form of PO43- or HPO42- -> they are part of the phosphate buffer system.

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73
Q

Effect of PTH on the kidneys (indirect effect)

A

1) In the skin there is a specific chemical – INACTIVE precursor of vitamin D -> it is converted into cholecalciferol (CCF) when exposed to UV light, then it is released into the bloodstream and goes to the liver.

2) In the liver 25-hydroxylase will convert the CCF into 25-hydroxycholecalciferol and is released back into the blood. Then it goes to the kidneys.

3) In the kidneys, PTH affects specific tubular cells, increasing the expression of a specific enzyme -> 1-alpha-hydroxylase.
- 25-hydroxycholecalciferol interacts with 1-alpha- hydroxylase -> produces 1,25-hydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol, it is the ACTIVE form of vitamin D).

  • The produced calcitriol is released into the bloodstream and goes to the the duodenum (small intestine)

4) In the duodenum Vitamin D goes to the enterocytes and acts a steroid hormone -> asses through the cell membrane, binds to the intracellular receptor and stimulates a specific gene sequence -> produce specific proteins -> called calcium channel proteins. They help absorb more calcium from the gut lumen, and it is then released into the blood

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74
Q

Effects of calcitonin

A

1) Calcitonin is stimulated by high blood calcium levels -> its purpose is to lower them. It only affects the bones (changes the balance between osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity).

2) There are receptors for calcitonin directly onto the osteoclasts -> when calcitonin binds it sends signals to inhibit the osteoclast -> tips the balance towards osteoblastic activity (taking calcium from the blood and depositing it into the bone).

3) The osteoblasts also secrete other substances to complete bone deposition and make the bones thicker.

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75
Q

Adrenal gland anatomy

A

1) The adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys -> also called suprarenal glands

2) Have a roughly pyramid shape

3) Parts of the adrenal gland

Cortex - has three layers (all layers are mostly glandular cuboidal epithelial tissue)
- Zona glomerulosa - most superficial
- Zona fasciculata - in the middle, the thickest
- Zona reticularis - the deepest

Medulla -> has only one layer and is made up of neural tissue -> chromatin cells (cell bodies of the postganglionic neurons of the SNS.

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76
Q

Stimuli / inhibition for aldosterone production / secretion

A

1) Low blood pressure

  • The strongest STIMULUS of zona glomerulosa
  • Low blood pressure causes the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys produce renin.
  • The liver produces angiotensinogen -> renin acts on the angiotensinogen and converts it into angiotensin I.
  • In the lungs, angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II.
  • ATII goes to zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and it activates a G stimulatory protein (adenylate cyclase 2nd messenger) -> converts ATP to cAMP o cAMP activates protein kinase A (pkA).

2) Hyponatremia / hyperkalemia - the second strongest STIMULUS of zona glomerulosa

  • Zona glomerulosa cells are very sensitive to hyponatremia and hyperkalemia.
  • ↓ Na+ levels and ↑ K+ levels exert a specific type of stimulus to synthesize aldosterone

3) ACTH - the weakest STIMULUS of zona glomerulosa.

  • The paraventricular nucleus in the hypothalamus secrete corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) -> goes to the anterior pituitary and stimulates the corticotrope cells in the adenohypophysis to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) into the bloodstream.
  • ACTH goes to the adrenal cortex, binds to a g-protein coupled receptor, it activates a G stimulatory protein (adenylate cyclase) - converts ATP to cAMP that will activate protein kinase A.

4) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) -> an INHIBITOR for the synthesis of aldosterone. Secreted when the blood pressure is high. Binds to specific receptors and activates a G inhibitory pathway. Results in potassium efflux out of the cell -> hyperpolarization of the cell -> alters enzymatic activity within the cholesterol pathway, resulting in inhibition of aldosterone production.

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77
Q

Synthesis and release of aldosterone

A

1) In the adrenal cortex steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. Cholesterol is converted to corticosterone, and this to aldosterone -> each step in this pathway is regulated by specific enzymes.

2) The activated pkA (coming from all the stimuli previously mentioned) activates by phosphorylation the enzymes catalyzing this pathway on multiple steps.

3) Aldosterone is released into the bloodstream. It is a steroid hormone, therefore needs to bind to specific proteins for transportation -> mostly it binds to corticosteroid binding globulin (CBG, aka transcortin. Sometimes it binds to albumin).

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78
Q

Effects of aldosterone

A

Aldosterone goes to the the cells of the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron

As a steroid hormone, aldosterone passes through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane and binds to an intracytosolic receptor.

The activated receptor activates 3 specific gene sequences, producing three different proteins:

1) Sodium-potassium ATPase -> pumps 3Na+ out and 2K+ into the cell. Utilizes ATP

2) Protein channels for Na+ into the luminal membrane -> bring Na+ from the filtrate into the cell and from the cell it goes into the blood -> water follows sodium -> increases blood volume, increases BP.

3) Protein channels for K into the luminal membrane -> move potassium that comes from the blood from the cell into the filtrate, to be lost in the urine (in response to the hyperkaliemia stimulus).

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79
Q

Cortisol synthesis

A

1) The paraventricular nucleus in the hypothalamus secrete corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH). CRH goes to the anterior pituitary and stimulates the corticotropes cells in the adenohypophysis to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) into the bloodstream.

2) ACTH (STRONG STIMULUS) goes to the adrenal cortex and binds to a g-protein coupled receptor, triggering an intracellular cascade -> G stimulatory protein -> cAMP -> pkA.

3) In the adrenal cortex steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. Cholesterol is converted to progesterone, then to cortisol -> each step in this pathway is regulated by specific enzymes.

4) The activated pkA (produced after ACTH stimulation) activates by phosphorylation the enzymes catalyzing this pathway on multiple steps, leading to the formation of cortisol.

5) Cortisol it is a steroid hormone (lipid soluble), therefore needs to bind to specific proteins for transportation
- Approx. ~75% binds to corticosteroid binding globulin (CBG, aka transcortin)
- Approx. ~25% of it binds to albumin

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80
Q

Stimuli for the release of cortisol

A

1) Hypoglycemia is one of the main stimuli of cortisol. In response to it, cortisol will:

o Indirectly stimulates glycogenolysis (by increasing the sensitivity of adrenergic receptors to norepinephrine).

o Directly stimulates gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources).

o Directly stimulates glycogenesis (the conversion of glucose into glycogen).

2) Long term (chronic) stress is another stimulus -> causes a direct release of CRH -> excessive ACTH -> increased production of cortisol. In response cortisol will:

o ↑ the sensitivity of adrenergic receptors for NE in the smooth muscle cells of the vessels -> vasoconstriction -> increased BP -> allows cells to get more nutrients.

o ↑ muscle catabolism -> provides nutrients

o Depresses the immune system

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81
Q

Cortisol feedback

A

↑ levels of cortisol in the blood
- Exert a negative feedback on the hypothalamus.
- Inhibit the adenohypophysis production of ACTH.

↓ levels of cortisol in the blood
- Not enough is going to the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis to cause inhibition.
- The hypothalamic nuclei are stimulated to produce more CRH -> the pituitary is stimulated to produce more ACTH -> synthesis of cortisol is stimulated.

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82
Q

Cortisol effects on the muscles

A

As a steroid hormone cortisol passes through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane, binds to an intracytosolic receptor and activates it.

The activated receptor activates specific genes expressed in the nucleus -> translate it into proteins - PROTEASES.

The proteases break the peptide bonds inside the muscle proteins -> produce amino acids that will be released into the bloodstream and go to the liver.

The process is called protein CATABOLISM and it is stimulated by cortisol.

Cortisol also stimulates catabolism within the bones.

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83
Q

Cortisol effects on the adipose tissue

A

Main component of the adipocytes -> triglycerides

Cortisol passes through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane and binds to an intracytosolic receptor, activating it.

The activated receptor activates specific genes expressed in the nucleus and will be translate it into proteins.

These proteins break down the triglycerides into fatty acids (utilized by the muscles or redistributed and relocated to different parts of the body) and glycerol (goes to the liver).

This is called LIPOLYSIS.

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84
Q

Cortisol effects on the liver

A

Cortisol passes through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane, binds to an intracytosolic receptor and activates it.

The activated receptor activates specific genes expressed in the nucleus and will be translate it into proteins

These proteins stimulate the processes of gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis.

GLUCONEOGENESIS is a process where glucose is produced from non- carbohydrate sources (amino acids and lactic acid from the muscle, or glycerol / fatty acids coming from the adipose tissue).

GLYCOGENESIS is a process where glucose is converted into glycogen (a storage molecule for glucose)

Cortisol enhances the sympathetic nervous system -> acts on many different tissues sensitive to norepinephrine -> there are adrenergic receptors on the liver and they bind to NE, cortisol enhances the sensitivity of the G proteins to E/NE.

The overall effect of norepinephrine on the vessels is glycogenolysis (conversion of glycogen into glucose).

Therefore cortisol, directly stimulates glycogenesis (the conversion of glucose into glycogen), and indirectly stimulates glycogenolysis (the conversion of glycogen into glucose) by increasing the sensitivity of the adrenergic receptors for norepinephrine.

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85
Q

Cortisol effects on the blood vessels

A

Cortisol enhances the sympathetic nervous system

Acts on many different tissues sensitive to norepinephrine -> there are adrenergic receptors in the smooth muscle cells within the tunica media of the vessels (they bind norepinephrine).

As a steroid hormone cortisol passes through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane, binds to an intracytosolic receptor and activates it.

The activated receptor activates specific genes expressed in the nucleus and will be translate it into proteins

These proteins increase the sensitivity of the G protein-coupled adrenergic receptors of the cell -> the overall effect of norepinephrine on the vessels is vasoconstriction

Cortisol amplifies the VASOCONSTRICTION.

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86
Q

Cortisol effects on the immune system

A

Cortisol can inhibit specific processes inside the immune cells:

o Basophils are responsible for secreting histamines, leukotrienes and prostaglandins

o Lymphocytes and monocytes are responsible for secreting interleukins (IL1, IL2, IL4, etc.) and cytokines

Cortisol inhibits the inflammatory immune response by preventing the immune cells from producing all those chemicals.

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87
Q

What is the thoracolumbar outflow?

A

T1-L2, sympathetic outlflow

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88
Q

What is the primary stimulus for the SNS?

A

Short term stress (fight or flight)

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89
Q

Who activates the sympathetic nervous system and where do the fibers go?

A

The hypothalamus activates the SNS (very strong regulator)

Has a sympathetic and a parasympathetic component and it sends presynaptic potential down through descending fibers to the lateral gray horn (LGH) of the spinal cord, between T1 to L2.

In the LGH are located the bodies of the preganglionic motor neurons of the SNS- -> their axons come out through the ventral ramus and move through sympathetic chain ganglia, all the way to the adrenal medulla.

REMEMBER:
In most cases, SNS preganglionic neurons -short -> go to the chain ganglia -> postganglionic neurons are long (they begin from the chain ganglia).

The ADRENAL MEDULLA is an EXCEPTION -> preganglionic motor neurons are long -> reach the postganglionic cell bodies -> postganglionic cell neurons are very short -> cell bodies located inside the actual organ (adrenal medulla) -> called an intramural ganglion.

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90
Q

Synthesis of catecholamines

A
  • SNS preganglionic motor neurons are cholinergic -> they release acetylcholine, that binds to nicotinic receptors on the chromaffin cells.
  • Cations (e.g. Na+) flow in and activate specific action potentials, stimulating certain processes within the cell.
  • The depolarization of the cell activates certain enzymes (a specific biochemical pathway is triggered)
  • Tyrosine is the building block of this pathway -> will be converted to dopamine
  • Dopamine is converted to norepinephrine (by dopamine betahydroxylase)
  • Norepinephrine is converted to epinephrine.
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91
Q

Release of catecholamines

A

The synapse of the axon of the postganglionic motor neurons secretes 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine.

Normally epinephrine and norepinephrine are presynthesized, put into vesicles and located in the terminal bulb of the axon.

When Na+ enters the cell -> action potential -> travel down the axon and when they reach the terminal bulb -> Ca++ channels located there, open -> Ca++ starts flowing in and acts as a bridge. Causes the vesicles to merge with the cell membrane and epinephrine and norepinephrine are released into the bloodstream.

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92
Q

On which organs do catecholamine produce effects? (main ones)

A

Liver
Adipose tissue
Heart
Respiratory system
Blood vessels going to GI tract, kidneys and skin.

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93
Q

Effects of catecholamines on liver

A

Epinephrine goes to the liver and binds to a G protein-coupled receptor -> activates a G stimulatory protein (adenylate cyclase -> convert ATP to cAMP, cAMP activates pkA).

Glycogenolysis -> there is about 300g of glycogen in the liver -> enzymes (glycogen phosphorylase, debranching enzymes, etc.) cut up the glycogen into individual monomers (glucose). The process is stimulated by catecholamines (cortisol increases the sensitivity of the adrenergic receptors to catecholamines).

Gluconeogenesis -> a process where non-carbohydrate sources are turned into glucose (amino acids and lactic acid form the muscles, glycerol and odd chain fatty acids from the adipose tissue)

The overall result of both glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis is increased blood glucose

The glucose can be utilized by the muscles for contraction

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94
Q

Effects of catecholamines on adipose tissue

A

Catecholamines bind to a G protein-coupled receptor and activated the enzyme hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) -> breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.

The glycerol then goes to the liver and gets converted to glucose

The fatty acids go to the muscles and undergo beta oxidation and produce ATP (helps with contraction).

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95
Q

Effects of catecholamines on the heart

A

On the cardiomyocytes:
Stimulates the expression of B1-adrenergic receptors -> they bind catecholamines -> increase contractility -> increased stroke volume -> increased CO -> increased BP.

Non-contractile muscle cells of the SA node and the AV node:
Stimulates the expression of B1-adrenergic receptors, that bind catecholamines -> increased action potentials -> increased HR -> increased CO -> increased BP.

Catecholamines also bind to alpha-1-adrenergic receptors on some blood vessels -> cause vasoconstriction -> decreases lumen diameter -> increased vascular resistance -> increased BP. Increases in blood pressure will get more nutrients to the vital tissues and faster.

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96
Q

Effects of catecholamines on the respiratory system

A

Smooth muscle surrounds the bronchi -> catecholamines act on those smooth muscle cells by binding to B-2-adrenergic receptors -> cause the bronchioles to dilate.

If they dilate -> more air into respiratory system -> increases oxygen going into the lungs and amount of CO2 being exhaled.

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97
Q

Effects of catecholamines on GI, kidneys and skin

A

The vessels going to the GI tract constrict and divert the blood to skeletal muscles, brain, heart, etc. Therefore catecholamines ↓ GI tract activity.

The blood vessels going to the kidneys constrict and divert the blood.

The blood vessels in the skin constrict and divert the blood.

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98
Q

Describe the 2 functions of the pancreas and where are they generated

A
  • Endocrine function -> from Islets of Langherans (alpha, beta, delta, pp and epsilon cells)
  • Exocrine (digestive) functions -> from pancreatic acini
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99
Q

Which cells produce insulin? And glucagon?

A

B cells
Alpha cells

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100
Q

Which cells produce amylin? And somatostatin?

A

Beta cells
Delta cells

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101
Q

Where is the pancreatic polypeptide secreted from?

A

PP cells

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102
Q

What are stimulus for insulin secretion?

A

Secreted in response to increased energy-giving foods in the diet:
- Glucose
- Amino acids
- Gastrin, secretin, CCK, glucose-dependent insulinotrophic peptide
- Glucagon, growth hormone, and cortisol (prolonged excessive increased cortisol leads to beta cell exhaustion -> leads to diabetes mellitus)

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103
Q

This pump actively transports iodide into the thyroid follicular cells for subsequent incorporation into thyroid hormones

A

The iodide (i-) pump, or Na+-I- cotransport

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104
Q

In the peripheral tissues, T4 is converted to T3 by

A

5’-iodinase

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105
Q

This molecule activates a Gi receptor in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland inhibiting aldosterone secretion

A

Atrial Natriuretic peptide

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106
Q

ACTH increases steroid hormone synthesis in all zones of the adrenal cortex by stimulating the enzyme______________ and increasing the conversion of cholesterol to _______________

A

cholesterol desmolase
pregnenolone

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107
Q

How can you differentiate a patient with a low dose dexamethasone test from normal, having an ACTH secreting tumor or having an adrenal cortical tumor?

A

In normal persons, low-dose dexamethasone inhibits or “suppresses” ACTH secretion and, consequently, cortisol secretion. In persons with ACTH-secreting tumors, low-dose dexamethasone does not inhibit cortisol secretion but high-dose dexamethasone does. In persons with adrenal cortical tumors, neither low- nor high-dose dexamethasone inhibits cortisol secretion.

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108
Q

Glucocorticoids induce the synthesis of __________ which is an inhibitor of phospholipase A

A

Lipocortin

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109
Q

What are the anti-inflammatory effects of glucocorticoids?

A
  1. induce the synthesis of lipocortin, an inhibitor of phospholipase A,
  2. inhibit the production of IL-2
  3. inhibit the proliferation of T lymphocytes.
  4. Inhibit the release of histamine from mast cells
  5. inhibit the release of serotonin from platelets.
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110
Q

How do glucocorticoids supress the immune system?

A

Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of IL-2 and T lymphocytes

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111
Q

21-carbon steroids include: ______________,____________,__________and _____________

Hydroxylation at ______leads to the production of deoxycorticosterone, which has mineralocorticoid (but not glucocorticoid) activity. Hydroxylation at _____ leads to the production of glucocorticoids (cortisol).

A

progesterone, deoxycorticosterone, aldosterone, and cortisol.

C-21
C-17

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112
Q

Comparison of insulin and glucagon: stimulus for secretion, major actions and overall effects on blood levels

A
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113
Q

Cells of the Islets of Langherans

A
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114
Q

Mechanism of insulin secretion
* Glucose, the stimulant for insulin secretion, binds to the _________receptor on the beta cells.
* Inside the beta cells, glucose is oxidized to ATP, which closes _____channels in the cell membrane and leads to depolarization of the beta cells.
* Depolarization opens ____ channels, which leads to an increase in _________and then to secretion of insulin

A

Glut 2
Potassium
Calcium
intracellular [Ca2+]

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115
Q

How is the composition of the insulin receptor

A

Is a tetramer, with two alpha subunits and two beta subunits.
a. The alpha subunits are located on the extracellular side of the cell membrane.
b. The beta subunits span the cell membrane and have intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity.

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116
Q

This hormone is secreted by the delta cells of the pancreas. inhibits the secretion of insulin, glucagon, and gastrin

A

Somatostatin

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117
Q

Which of the following hormones originates in the anterior pituitary?
(A) Dopamine
(B) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
(C) Somatostatin
(D) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
(E) Thyroid -stimulating hormone (TSH)
(F) Oxytocin
(G) Testosterone

A

E. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by the anterior pituitary.

Dopamine, growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH), somatostatin, and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) all are secreted by the hypothalamus. Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary. Testosterone is secreted by the testes.

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118
Q

Which of the following hormones acts on its target tissues by a steroid hormone mechanism of action?
(A) Thyroid hormone
(B) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
(C) Antidiuretic hormone {ADH) on the collecting duct
(D) beta 1-adrenergic agonists
(E) Glucagon

A

A)Thyroid hormone, an amine, acts on its target tissues by a steroid hormone mechanism, inducing the synthesis of new proteins.

The action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the collecting duct (V2 receptors) is mediated by cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), although the other action of ADH (vascular smooth muscle, V1 receptors) is mediated by inositol1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3). Parathyroid hormone (PTH), beta 1 -agonists, and glucagon all act through cAMP mechanisms of action.

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119
Q

Which of the following inhibits the secretion of growth hormone by the anterior pituitary?
(A) Sleep
(B) Stress
(C) Puberty
(D) Somatomedins
(E) Starvation
(F) Hypoglycemia

A

The answer is D. Growth hormone is secreted in pulsatile fashion, with a large burst occurring during deep sleep. Growth hormone secretion is increased by sleep, stress, puberty, starvation, and hypoglycemia. Somatomedins are generated when growth hormone acts on its target tissues; they inhibit growth hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary, both directly and indirectly (by stimulating somatostatin release).

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120
Q

Selective destruction of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex would produce a deficiency of which hormone?
(A) Aldosterone
(B) Androstenedione
(C) Cortisol
(D) Dehydroepiandrosterone
(E) Testosterone

A

The answer is A. Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex because that layer contains the enzyme for conversion of corticoste- rone to aldosterone (aldosterone synthase). Cortisol is produced in the zona fasciculata. Androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone are produced in the zona reticularis. Testosterone is produced in the testes, not in the adrenal cortex.

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121
Q

Which step in steroid hormone biosynthesis, if inhibited, blocks the production of all androgenic compounds but does not block the production of glucocorticoids’?
(A) Cholesterol -> pregnenolone
(B) Progesterone–> 11-deoxycorticosterone
C) 17-Hydroxypregnenolone –> dehydroepiandrosterone
(D) Testosterone –> estradiol
(E) Testosterone –> dihydrotestosterone

A

The answer is C. The conversion of 17-hydroxypregnenolone to dehydroepiandrosterone (as well as the conversion of 17-hydroxyprogesterone to androstenedione) is catalyzed by 17,20-lyase. If this process is inhibited, synthesis of androgens is stopped.

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122
Q

Which of the following decreases the conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?
A) A diet low in Ca2+
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hyperparathyroidism
D) Hypophosphatemia
E) Chronic renal failure

A

The answer is E deficiency (low caz.. diet or hypocalcemia) activates !a-hydroxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of vitamin D to its active form, 1,25-dihy- droxycholecalciferol. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) and hypophosphatemia also stimulate the enzyme. Chronic renal failure is associated with a constellation of bone diseases, including osteomalacia caused by failure of the diseased renal tissue to produce the active form of vitamin D.

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123
Q

Increased adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion would be expected in patients
a. with chronic adrenocortical insufficiency (Addison disease)
b. with primary adrenocortical hyperplasia
c. who are receiving glucocorticoid for immunosuppression after a renal transplant
d. with elevated levels of angiotensin II

A

The answer is A, Addison disease is caused by primary adrenocortical insufficiency. The resulting decrease in cortisol production causes a decrease in negative feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. Both of these conditions will result in increased adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion. Patients who have adrenocortical hyperplasia or who are receiving exogenous glucocorticoid will have an increase in the negative feedback inhibition of ACTH secretion.

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124
Q

Which of the following hormones acts by an inositol1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3)-Ca2+ mechanism of action?
A) 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
B) Progesterone
C) Insulin
D) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

A

E) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

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125
Q

Which step in steroid hormone biosynthesis is stimulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)?
A) Cholesterol ~pregnenolone
B) Progesterone~ 11-deoxycorticosterone
C) 17-Hydroxypregnenolone ~ dehydroepiandrosterone
D) Testosterone ~ estradiol
E) Testosterone ~ dihydrotestosterone

A

The answer is A. The conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone is catalyzed by cholesterol desmolase. This step in the biosynthetic pathway for steroid hormones is stimulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

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126
Q

Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion?
A) Decreased blood volume
B) Administration of an inhibitor of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
C) Hyperosmolarity
D) Hypokalemia

A

The answer is A. Decreased blood volume stimulates the secretion of renin (because of decreased renal perfusion pressure) and initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldo- sterone cascade. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the cascade by decreasing the production of angiotensin II. Hyperosmolarity stimulates antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (not aldosterone) secretion. Hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia, directly stimulates aldosterone secretion by the adrenal cortex.

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127
Q

Which of the following results from the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on the renal tubule?
(A) Inhibition of 1a-hydroxylase
(B) Stimulation of Ca2+ reabsorption in the distal tubule
(C) Stimulation of phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule
(D) Interaction with receptors on the luminal membrane of the proximal tubular cells
(E) Decreased urinary excretion of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

A

The answer is B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) stimulates both renal Ca2+ reabsorption in the renal distal tubule and the 1a-hydroxylase enzyme. PTH inhibits (not stimulates) phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, which is associated with an increase in urinary cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). The receptors for PTH are located on the basolateral membranes, not the luminal membranes.

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128
Q

Which of the following pancreatic secretions has a receptor with four subunits, two of which have tyrosine kinase activity?
(A) Insulin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Somatostatin
(D) Pancreatic lipase

A

The answer is A. The insulin receptor in target tissues is a tetramer. The two J3 subunits have tyrosine kinase activity and autophosphorylate the receptor when stimu- lated by insulin.

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129
Q

List common causes of secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A
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130
Q

T/F Glucocorticoid administration is thought to decrease vasopressin release in dogs and therefore can be included in the causes of canine acquired CDI.

A

TRUE

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131
Q

Medullary washout occurs in small animal patients for two common reasons

A
  1. Severe PU/PD (ex. Cushings, aggressive IV fluid therapy)
  2. The solutes necessary to produce the medullary hypertonicity gradient are lacking, such as insufficient urea in dogs and cats with hepatic insufficiency or insufficient sodium in dogs with hypoadrenocorticism.
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132
Q

Chronic kidney disease as a cause of polyuria and polydipsia is unlikely if the urine specific gravity is _____________

A

Hyposthenuric

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133
Q

What would be your differentials in the following patient:

older dog with severe polyuria, polydipsia, and hyposthenuric urine and no abnormal findings on physical examination, complete blood count, serum biochemistry profile, urinalysis (except the hyposthenuria), urine culture, and abdominal radiographs or ultrasonography.

Which additional diagnostics would you recommend to rule out your differential diagnoses?

A

The most likely remaining causes of the severe polyuria and polydipsia in this dog are hyperadrenocorticism, CDI or NDI, and primary or psychogenic polydipsia.

Additional diagnostics:
- low dose dex. Suppresion test for cushing’s (or urine cortisol/creat ratio)
- Serum osmolality (if <280mOsm/L –> suspect psycogenic polydipsia / if 280 or more –> grey zone)
- Modified water deprivation test
- Desmopressin acetate trial

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134
Q

How can a serum osmolality help you distinguish between psycogenic polydipsia vs conditions that cause polyuria (Cushings, DI)?

A

Theoretically the dogs with primary or psychogenic polydipsia should always be slightly overhydrated (with a low serum sodium concentration and low serum osmolality), and dogs with other causes of polyuria and polydipsia including diabetes insipidus should be slightly dehydrated (with a relatively high serum sodium concentration and serum osmolality)

why? because in primary polydipsia dogs drink excessively and as a consecuence of the polydipsia they become polyuric. In other causes (Cushings, DI), patient urinates excessively and as a consecuence becomes polydipsic

On a random serum osmolality assay a result of less than 280 mOsm/L would be most consistent with psychogenic polydipsia.

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135
Q

Explain the water deprivation test (indications, interpretation)

A

Is based on the premise that a dog that truly suffers from diabetes insipidus will not be able to concen- trate its urine even under conditions of moderate dehydration. This is because of either a lack of vasopressin (CDI) or lack of an appropriate renal response to vasopressin (NDI). An appropriate rise in urine specific gravity while dehydrated would be suggestive of psychogenic polydipsia.

If not appropiate rise in USG after dehydration –> CDI vs NDI? –> Desmopressin given IM:
marked increase in USG –> CDI
Complete lack of response –> suggestive of NDI

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136
Q

The modified water deprivation test was created in an attempt to eliminate this problem ____________________

A

Medullary washout

If the medullary interstitium has been “washed out” of solutes because of chronic severe polyuria and polydipsia for any reason, no urine concentration will occur despite the presence of endogenous vasopressin, desmopressin, and intact renal V2 receptors. These dogs are then mistakenly diagnosed as suffering from NDI. The modified water deprivation test protocol attempts to eliminate this problem by recommending mild water restriction for a number of days before the test.

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137
Q

Explain the mechanism of SIADH secondary to pulmonary disease

A

Pulmonary tumors that ectopically produce ADH
Diseases that interrupt the inhibitory impulses in vagal afferents from stretch receptors in the atria and great veins.

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138
Q

This findings are consistent with __________________

Serum osmolality is less than 280 mOsm/kg, whereas urine osmolality is more than 150 mOsm/kg and urine sodium usually more than 20 mEq/L

A

SIADH

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139
Q

T/F An increased BUN concentration typically excludes a diagnosis of SIADH

A

TRUE

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140
Q

T/F Plasma ADH determination is the gold standard for the diagnosis of SIADH

A

FALSE - Most cases of hyponatremia, hyposmolality, and hypovolemia are associated with an elevated ADH concentration, regardless of the cause.

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141
Q

List Potential Precipitating Events for Feline Thyroid Storm

A
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142
Q

MOA of Methimazole

A

Methimazole inhibits iodine incorporation into thyroglobulin and thus prevents the synthesis of active thyroid hormone

it does not prevent the secretion of already formed thyroid hormones

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143
Q

Methimazole will block the formation of new, active thyroid hormone, but other measures must be instituted to prevent further secretion of formed hormone, which is stored in high concentrations in the thyroid gland. This can be done with

A

stable iodine compounds such as potassium iodide

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144
Q

T/F Dexamethasone at a dose of 0.1 to 0.2 mg/kg PO or IV may be used to inhibit the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland and to block the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

A

TRUE

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145
Q

The most rapid relief of signs caused by thyroid storm is accomplished with medications that block _______________, such as _______________

A

The β-adrenergic receptors
Propranolol and atenolol

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146
Q

What is the advantage of using Propanolol vs atenolol in thyroid storm?

A

Propranolol inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

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147
Q

This breed is at increased risk of hypothyroid crisis

A

Rottweiler

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148
Q

T/F Oral prednisone at a dosage of 0.55 mg/kg q12h lowers the concentration of thyroid hormones in dogs.

A

TRUE

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149
Q

This is a possible finding on the CBC of a dog with hypothyroid crisis_____________

A

Non-regenerative anemia

Thyroid hormones bind thyroid hormone receptors on erythroid progenitors and act directly to increase erythroid proliferation. Thyroid hormones also increase expression of the erythropoietin gene, further contributing to red blood cell formation

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150
Q

This enzyme converts tyrosine to Dopa, leading to synthesis of NE

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase

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151
Q

Approximately ____% of dogs with pheochromocytomas have neoplastic invasion of the caudal vena cava

A

15-38%

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152
Q

T/F In patients with pheochromocytoma, clinical signs are not reliably associated with the extent or presence of vena caval invasion

A

TRUE

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153
Q

T/F A very low percentage of patients with pheochromocytoma are diagnosed via abdominal ultrasound, limiting it’s use as a first line imaging modality

A

FALSE - In dogs 65% to 83% of pheochromocytomas are detected via abdominal ultrasonography, making it a useful first-line imaging modality.

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154
Q

This adrenal tumors seem to have a higher likelihood for vena caval invasion ____________

A

Pheochromocytomas seem to have a higher likelihood for vena caval invasion than do adrenocortical tumors (ultrasonographically both can look very similar).

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155
Q

From the tests that measure urinary and plasma cathecholamines and its metabolites for diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, which one has proven to be superior?

A

Urinary normetanephrine to creatinine ratio

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156
Q

Which one would be your first choice for treatment of hypertensive crisis in a patient with pheochromocytoma?

A. alpha-adrenergic antagonists
b. beta-blockers

A

a. alpha-blockers –> phenoxybenzamine 0.6mg/kg PO q12h for 20 days before surgical removal decreased mortality by 48 to 13% of patient undergoing adrenalectomy

Use of beta-blockers is not reported in veterinary pheochromocytoma patients and should be initiated only after alpha-blockade is achieved.

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157
Q

_____% of patients with acute hemoabdomen secondary to a pheochromocytoma can die in the perioperative period, and ___% of patient in general going for adrenalectomy for pheochormocytoma do not survive the perioperative period.

A

50%
18-31%

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158
Q

Secondary hyperaldosteronism can result from:

A

Renal hypoperfusion, JG cells hypoperfusion
Renin secreting tumors

*rare –> primary hyperaldosteronism is more common (cats)

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159
Q

T/F Most patient with hyperaldosteronism are hypernatremic

A

FALSE –> despite an absolute increase in total body sodium, these patients appear normonatremic due to water retention

  • most cats with PHA will have a normal sodium but are typically hypokalemic.
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160
Q

Which recommendations would you give for medical management of a cat with PHA before adrenalectomy?

A

Amlodipine besylate 0.625mg/kg PO q24h
Potassium supplementation (K gluconate 2mEq/cat q12h)
Spironolactone 2mg/kg q12h

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161
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercortisolism in dogs and cats?

A

~85% of cases pituitary adenoma (micro or macro adenomas)
~15% of cases functional adrenal tumors (1/2 of the time are malignant)

162
Q

List conditions other than hypoadrenocorticism that can cause a Na/K ration <27

A

GI disease
Parasitism (trichuris vulpis)
Third spacing
CHF
Diabetes Mellitus

163
Q

Why USG is not reliable to differentiate renal from pre-renal azotemia in patients with hypoadrenocorticism?

A

Because usually azotemia is pre-renal but there is medullary washout secondary to the hyponatremia which decreases USG.

164
Q

What’s the % of dogs with a basal cortisol of <2ug/dL that have non-adrenal disease?

A

~21%

165
Q

List medications that can alter the HPA axis and contribute to CIRCI

A

Opioids, etomidate, azole antifungals, benzodiazepines

166
Q

A D-cortisol of _______ is associated with hypotension an death in one study, and with 5.7x more chances of requiring vasopressors in other study in dogs

A

Equal or <0.3ug/dL

167
Q

The CORTICUS investigation (performed by the Corticosteroid Therapy of Septic Shock – CORTICUS – group) was a multicenter, international, randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled trial that set out to investigate the usefulness of the standard ACTH stimulation test and hydrocortisone treatment in 800 people with septic shock. Their results were:

A

The primary findings of CORTICUS were that low-dose hydrocortisone treatment led to more rapid pressor weaning regardless of ACTH stimulation test results, that hydrocortisone had no survival benefit despite more rapid pressor weaning, and that hydrocortisone treatment was associated with more incidents of superinfection than placebo

  • Limitations : small sample size, study population was less severely ill and its control group mortality was lower than that of the French study.
168
Q

What is the function of the 11beta-HSD1 enzyme

A

Cytoplasmic enzyme that has the capability to convert inactive cortisone to active cortisol, and under some conditions, to convert active cortisol to inactive cortisone –> active cortisol then binds to the GR receptor –> this complex moves to the nucleus to exerst genomic effects and alter protein production and cell function

169
Q

T/F - Both the 2012 Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines and the 2008 recommendations for the diagnosis andmanagement of corticosteroid insufficiency in critically ill adult patients recommend using the ACTH stimulation test to determine which patient should receive hydrocortisone therapy

A

FALSE - they recommend AGAINST

170
Q

Hydrocortisone has approximately ____ the potency of prednisone

A

1/4

171
Q

Why the Sepsis Campaign guidelines recommend 200 mg hydrocortisone be given specifically as a constant rate infusion?

A

To help avoid hyperglycemic episodes

172
Q

What can be the disadvantage of using Dexamethasone instead of hydrocortisone for the treatment of CIRCI?

A

Dexamethasone is highly structurally altered from the parent cortisol molecule and may therefore carry excessive immunosuppressive effects without the benefit of hydrocortisone’s modest mineralocorticoid effect.

173
Q

What would be the dose of hydrocortisone you would use for a patient with suspected CIRCI

A

0.5 mg/kg hydrocortisone IV every 6 hours or 0.08 mg/kg/hr as a constant rate infusion

174
Q

During stress, glucocorticoid synthesis can be stimulated by ACTH-independent mechanisms via: ___________________

A

Toll like receptors –> specially TLR-2 and TLR-4 in the adrenal cortex itself

175
Q

T/F - Cortisol is produced from cholesterol stored lipid droplets as cholesterol esters (like mineralocorticoids and androgens) and is stored in large quantities in the cytoplasm

A

FALSE - is is produced from cholesterol but minimal cortisol is stored and thus increased cortisol production during stress relies almost entirely on cortisol synthesis

176
Q

T/F - Intracellular cholesterol is converted to cortisol in the adrenal mitochondria by two P450-type enzymes

A

TRUE - the enzymes are CYP11B1 and CP11B2

177
Q

Pancreas overview

A

Exocrine part - made up of Acini
99% of the pancreas volume Release pancreatic juice
Rich in digestive enzymes and bicarbonates

Endocrine part - made up of Islets of Langerhans
1% of the pancreas volume
Different cells:
o Alpha cell -> produce glucagon
o Beta cells -> produce insulin
o Delta cells -> produce somatostatin
o F cells (PP cells) -> produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone

178
Q

Pancreatic alpha cells - secretion, stimuli and effects

A

1) Secretion -> glucagon
GlucAgon is secreted by the Alpha cells.

2) Stimuli
Low blood glucose levels -> below 70-80 mg/dl
Glucagon is secreted when glucose is Gone.

Sympathetic nervous system hormones
o Epinephrine
o Norepinephrine

Hormones produced by the intestine
o Cholecystokinin
o Secretin

3) Effects -> increases the blood glucose levels
Liver
o Gluconeogenesis (glycerol, amino acids, etc. get converted to glucose)
o Glycogenolysis (glycogen gets broken down to glucose)

Adipose tissue
o Lipolysis (triacylglycerol (TAG) gets broken down to fatty acids and glycerol)

179
Q

Pancreatic beta cells - secretion, stimuli and effects

A

1) Secretion - insulin

2) Stimuli -> high blood glucose levels
o Above 120-130 mg/dl

3) Effects - decreases the blood glucose levels
Liver
o Glycogenesis
o Minor ↑ protein synthesis
o Minor ↑ amino acid uptake

Adipose tissue
o Lipogenesis
o ↑ glucose intake via GLUT-4

Muscles
o ↑ glucose intake via GLUT-4
o ↑ amino acids intake
o ↑ protein synthesis
o Minor glycogenesis

180
Q

Describe the different types of hormone interactions

A

1) Antagonism -> hormones that have opposing effects -> glucagon and insulin

2) Synergism -> hormones that have the same effect -> epinephrine and norepinephrine

3) Permissiveness -> when one hormone needs to be present in order for another hormone to function -> thyroid hormone is required for certain types of sex hormones to cause brain development.

181
Q

What are GLUT 2?

A

Glucose transporters type 2, that are insulin independent

182
Q

Insulin synthesis

A

Inside the DNA of ß-cells there is a specific gene that undergoes transcription and gets converted specific protein

The protein goes to the rough endoplasmic reticulum and undergoes modifications

Then it goes to the Golgi apparatus where it gets packaged

Out of the Golgi come vesicles with fully packaged insulin, C-peptide and amylin.

183
Q

Hyperglycemia and insulin release

A

1) Beta cells respond to hyperglycemia -> in the cell membrane there are Glucose transporters type 2 (GLUT2), that are insulin independent.

2) Glucose enters the cell and undergoes glycolysis, producing ATP.

3) There are K+ channels on the cell membrane that bind that ATP -> this closes them and K+ ions are accumulated as they cannot leave the cell.

4) These are positively charged ions -> increases the positive membrane potential, stimulating Ca++ channels -> influx of Ca++

6) Influx of Ca++ causes the vesicles and the membrane to fuse and insulin, c-peptide and amylin go into the blood.

184
Q

Which organs will insulin affect?

A

Liver
Adipose tissue
Muscles

185
Q

Effects of insulin on liver

A

1) Insulin binds to a tyrosine kinase receptor
- This way it stimulates phosphorylation of tyrosine residues -> an intracellular messenger is activated (PI3K / AKT).

  • In the liver there are GLUT-2 receptors -> same as the beta cells (insulin independent) -> glucose moves in at a constant rate

2) Insulin takes effect once glucose is in the liver (via GLUT2 transporters)
Glycogenesis (glucose is polymerized to glycogen)
Glycolysis -> convert glucose into pyruvate, blablabla) -> ATP is produced

186
Q

Effects of insulin on the muscle

A

1) Insulin binds to a tyrosine kinase receptor -> stimulates phosphorylation of tyrosine residues -> the intracellular messenger – PI3K/AKT is activated

2) PI3K/AKT activates GLUT- 4 receptors (insulin dependent) and increases glucose intake.

3) Inside the cell

  • Glycolysis -> ATP is produced
  • PI3K/AKT increases amino acid intake -> stimulates the amino acid channels (during the ‘fed’/absorptive state the blood levels of amino acids are high).
  • PI3K/AKT stimulates the protein synthesis from amino acids.
  • PI3K/AKT converts glucose into glycogen in the muscles.
187
Q

Effects of insulin on the adipose tissue

A

1) Insulin binds to a tyrosine kinase receptor - PI3K/AKT is activated -> activates GLUT-4 receptors (insulin dependent) -> increased glucose intake

2) Lipogenesis
Inside the cell, glucose splits into
o Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) (eventually forms pyruvate and acetyl CoA)
o Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)

Insulin stimulates
o Conversion of DHAP into glycerol
o Conversion of acetyl CoA into fatty acids -> glycerol and fatty acids are combined into
triacylglycerol (TAG, aka tryglycerides) – lipogenesis

Insulin also stimulates the intake of fatty acids

188
Q

Glucagon synthesis

A

Inside the DNA of α-cells there is a specific gene -> undergoes transcription and gets converted into a specific protein - proglucagon.

Proglucagon goes to the rough endoplasmic reticulum and undergoes modifications and becomes glucagon.

Then it goes to the Golgi apparatus where it gets released in vesicles with fully packaged glucagon.

189
Q

Hypoglycemia and glucagon release

A

Alpha cells respond to HYPOGLYCEMIA (main stimulus).

In the cell membrane there are specific transporters (GLUT-1 - insulin independent)

Glucose enters the cell and undergoes glycolysis - produces ATP.

There are K+ channels on the cell membrane that bind to ATP -> it closes them

When there is less incoming glucose → ↓ produced ATP -> less ATP binds to the channels -> the channels still close, but not very tight -> some K+ ions are still being blocked from exiting -> the cell is less positive -> less membrane depolarization -> calcium channels open up, leading to influx of calcium.

If there is more incoming glucose → ↑ produced ATP -> large amounts of ATP bind to the channels -> they close very tight -> lots of K+ remain in the cell -> become extremely positive -> membrane depolarization -> the calcium channels close, therefore Ca++ can’t come in.

190
Q

Which organs will glucagon affect?

A

Liver
Adipose tissue
Myocardium

191
Q

Effects of glucagon on the liver

A
  • Glucagon activates a G stimulatory protein (adenylate cyclase 2nd messenger -pkA activation)
  • Glycogenolysis -> the activated pkA stimulates the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase to convert glycogen into glucose.
  • Gluconeogenesis -> activated pkA phosphorylates enzymes that converts glycerol, amino acids and fatty acids into glucose
  • Glucose is released into the blood and elevates the glucose blood levels.
192
Q

Effects of glucagon on adipose tissue

A

Glucagon activates a G stimulatory protein (adenylate cyclase 2nd messenger) -> activates protein kinase A.

The activated pKA phosphorylates different enzymes, like the hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) -> breaks the ester bonds that hold triacylglycerol (TAG) together -> two products glycerol (goes to the liver to undergo gluconeogenesis) and fatty acids -> LIPOLYSIS.

193
Q

Effects of glucagon on the heart

A

Glucagon activates a G stimulatory protein -> adenylate cyclase 2nd messenger -> activates pkA.

  • The activated pKA activates and opens up specific Ca++ channels.
  • The elevated Ca++ levels increase the contractility of the heart -> ↑ stroke volume -> ↑ cardiac output -> ↑ blood pressure

Glucagon is a POSITIVE INOTROPIC agent

194
Q

What are ketone bodies a product of?

A

Acetyl Co-enzyme A, which is a byproduct of mitochondrial fatty acid oxidation

195
Q

Describe the anabolic functions of insulin.

A

Conversion of glucose to glycogen, storage of amino acids as protein and storage of fatty acids in adipose tissue

196
Q

Describe the catabolic effects of glucagon.

A

Glycogenolysis, proteolysis, lipolysis

197
Q

Why does diabetes cause increases in Acetyl CoA?

A

Under normal conditions, the acetyl CoA that is produced during lipolysis enters the citric acid cycle along with pyruvate (from glycolysis). However, in diabetes, there is not much pyruvate, and as such, the citric acid cycle is slowed down. Acetyl CoA is therefore not used for ATP production and accumulates.

198
Q

Which are the 3 forms of ketone bodies and where are they formed?

A

Beta hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate, acetone. Acetoacetate is made from AcetylCoA, and then can be converted into acetone or BHB

Liver

199
Q

Name counterregulatory hormones that may be involved in development of DKA.

A

Glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol, somatotropic hormone

200
Q

What cytokines have been documented to be increased in dogs with DKA?

A

IL 18, resistin, GMCSF (granulocyte-monocyte colony stimulating factor), keratinocyte chemoattractant, IL 8, monocyte chemoattractant protein 1.

201
Q

What is the median age of dogs and cats, respectively, for DKA?

A

Dogs: 8 years
Cats: 9 years

202
Q

How common is concurrent disease with DKA?

A

Dogs: 70%
Cats: 90%

203
Q

What are the most common concurrent diseases in dogs and cats with DKA?

A

Dogs: Pancreatitis, UTI, Cushing’s
Cats: Acute pancreatitis, hepatic lipidosis, CKD, infections (bacterial or viral), neoplasia

204
Q

What hematologic change is common in cats with DKA?

A

Heinz body formation

205
Q

What potassium changes can be seen in DKA?

A

Initially: hyperkalemia (decreased renal excretion, hypoinsulinemia, acidosis), but whole body depletion.

With rehydration: Hypokalemia (osmotic diuresis, binding to ketoacids)

206
Q

What changes in phosphorous can be seen?
(DKA)

A

Whole body depletion, similar mechanisms to K; P shifts to extracellular space
Later: hypophosphatemia

207
Q

What can be consequences of hypophosphatemia?

A

Hemolysis, seizures
Weakness, myocardial depression, arrhythmias

208
Q

What other electrolyte changes can be seen?

A

Ionized hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia, ionized hypocalcemia

209
Q

What are consequences of ionized hypomagnesemia in humans?

A

Hypertension, insulin resistance, hyperlipidemia and increased platelet aggregation

210
Q

How does hyponatremia develop in DKA?

A

Pseudohyponatremia
Increased water intake due to diuresis, increased ADH secretion

211
Q

How can we diagnose DKA in dogs and cats?

A

Urine or serum sample

Urine dipstick: Nitroprusside reagent reacts with acetoacetate, but not with BHB, which is the dominant ketone in dogs and cats.

212
Q

What are differentials for ketosis?

A

Acute pancreatitis, chronic starvation, chronic hypoglycemia, low carb diet, pregnancy, persistent fever

213
Q

Treatment for DKA?

A

Fluid therapy first to restore intravascular volume, rehydration.

This alone will lower blood glucose levels. (Theory: by restoring renal perfusion, thexpression of counterregulatory hormones is decreased)

Electrolyte correction

Start insulin (after about 6 hours) -> paper on early insulin: no detrimental effects on starting early vs late.

214
Q

In patients with DKA, how fast should the K be substituted (based on serum K level?)

A
215
Q

How fast should phosphorous be supplemented in DKA?

A

0.03-0.12 mmol/kg/h

216
Q

What insulin protocols are there for DKA treatment?

A

Regular insulin as CRI -> measure glucose q 2 h

Regular insulin IM q1h -> measure glucose q 1 h: Start with a dose of 0.2 U/kg IM, then give 0.1 U/kg IM one hour later. Then give insulin depending on how fast the glucose drops:
If glucose drops less than 50 mg/dl -> give 0.2 U/kg IM
If glucose drops between 50 and 75 mg/dL, give 0.1 IU/kg IM
If glucose drops by more than 75 mg/kg -> give 0.05 IU/kg IM

Glargine protocols: IM and SQ

217
Q

What dose of regular insulin CRI is recommended for dogs and cats in DKA?

A

Dogs: 2.2 IU/kg/d
Cats: Previous recommendation 1.1 U/kg/day, but using the dog dose was not associated with complications in cats in a recent study.

218
Q

In humans, under which circumstances should bicarbonate therapy be considered for DKA?

A

If the pH remains below 7 after 1 hour of fluid therapy.

219
Q

What are potential risks of bicarb therapy in DKA patients?

A

CSF acidosis, brain edema, exacerbation of hypokalemia, increased hepatic ketone production.

220
Q

How many dogs and cats with DKA survive to hospital discharge?

A

70%

221
Q

What are negative prognostic indicators in dogs with DKA?

A

Concurrent hyperadrenocorticism and degree of base deficit

222
Q

Define HHS

A

Complication of diabetes characterized by no or minimal ketones, severe hyperglycemia (> 600 mg/dL) and hyperosmolarity (> 350 mosmol/L).

223
Q

What conditions must be met to establish HHS?

A

Hormonal alterations, decreased GFR, concurrent disease.

224
Q

What hormonal changes are typical of HHS?

A

Complete or partial lack of insulin, combined with increased concentrations of counterregulatory hormones

225
Q

What is the difference between DKA and HHS in terms of hormone levels?

A

HHS is believed to have small amounts of insulin as well as hepatic glucagon resistance, so that there is less lipolysis -> none or almost no ketone production.

226
Q

In humans with HHS, what is correlated with severity of neurologic signs?

A

Hypernatremia, elevated BUN levels, acidemia, osmolality. NOT the level of hyperglycemia

227
Q

What concurrent diseases can lead to HHS?

A

CKD, CHF, infection, neoplasia, other endocrinopathies

228
Q

Formula for serum osmolality:

A

Osmolality = 2x Na + Glucose (mg/dL)/18 + BUN (mg/dL)/2.8

229
Q

Formula for effective osmolality

A

Effective osmolality = 2xNa + Glucose (mg/dL)/18

230
Q

Formula for corrected Na?

A

Corrected Na = Measured Na + 1.6 [(measured glucose – normal glucose)/100]

231
Q

At what serum osmolality can neurologic signs occur?

A

340mOsm/L

232
Q

What is the cause of acidemia in HHS?

A

Uremic acids and lactic acid

233
Q

What are idiogenic osmoles and why are they important in treating HHS?

A

Compounds stored in neurons in states of blood hyperosmolality. This prevents cerebral dehydration.

If the serum glucose is decreased too quickly, there is not enough time for the body to eliminate these, and cerebral edema may occur.

234
Q

Which fluid is the fluid of choice for intravascular resuscitation of the patient with HHS and why?

A

Normal saline, because the Na replaces the glucose -> prevention of rapid shifts in osmolality.

235
Q

What is the role of insulin in treatment of HHS?

A

Not as important as in DKA. Should only be started once normal intravascular status has been achieved, the dehydration has improved and glucose levels are no longer falling adequately (i.e. > 50 mg/dL/h) with fluid therapy alone.

236
Q

What is the goal in terms of lowering the glucose?

A

50-75 mg/dL/h

237
Q

What are possible protocols for insulin treatment of HHS patients?

A

Regular insulin at the lower dose: 1 IU/kg into 250 ml of NaCl instead of 2.2
Regular insulin IM: 0.05-0.1 IU/kg q 2-4h

238
Q

Mortality rate for HHS in dogs and cats (in hospital)

A

Dogs: 38%
Cats: 65%

239
Q

Prognostic markers for HHS?

A

Not well established. In one canine study: low venous pH, abnormal mental status

240
Q

What are the three sources of glucose?

A

a. Intestinal absorption from digestion of carbohydrates
b. Breakdown of the storage for of glucose (glycogen) via glycogenolysis
c. Production of glucose from precursors lactate, pyruvate, amino acids, and glycerol via gluconeogenesis

241
Q

Name the glucose-lowering and glucose-elevating hormones

A

Lowering: insulin
Elevating: glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol and growth hormone

242
Q

Where is secreted and what are the effects of insulin?

A

a. Secreted by B-cells of the pancreas in response to rising concentrations of glucose, amino acids and GI hormones presents after a meal (gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory peptide)

b. Effects:
i. Inhibits gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
ii. Promotes glycogen storage
iii. Stimulates glucose uptake and utilization by insulin-sensitive cells
iv. Decreases glucagon secretion
v. Promotes triglyceride formation in adipose tissue
vi. Promotes synthesis of protein and glycogen in muscle
vii. Decreased levels of insulin stimulate gluconeogenesis and reduce glucose used by peripheral tissues.

243
Q

Which counterregulatory hormones rise fast when blood glucose concentration falls?

A

a. Glucagon and epinephrine
b. Rise within minutes of hypoglycemia
c. Transient effect

244
Q

Which hormones ones are released after a few hours of hypoglycemia?

A

a. Cortisol and growth hormone.
b. Longer lasting effects.

245
Q

Where is glucagon secreted and what are its effects?

A

a. Secreted from pancreatic alpha cells

b. Effects
i. Increases hepatic glucose production => acts on the liver to stimulate glycogenolysis and to a lesser extent, gluconeogenesis.
ii. Transient effect
iii. Mobilizes gluconeogenic precursors
iv. Reduces peripheral glucose utilization

246
Q

What are the effects of epinephrine on BG regulation?

A

a. Limits insulin secretion
b. Increases glucagon secretion

247
Q

What are the effects of cortisol on BG regulation?

A

Increases glucose-facilitating lipolysis and release of amino acids from muscle for gluconeogenesis in the liver

248
Q

What are the effects of growth hormone on BG regulation?

A

Antagonizes effects of insulin by decreasing peripheral glucose utilization and promoting lipolysis.

249
Q

What are the general mechanisms of hypoglycemia?

A

a. Inadequate dietary intake
b. Excessive glucose utilization
c. Dysfunctional glycogenolytic or gluconeogenic pathways or inadequate precursors for these pathways
d. Endocrine abnormalities

250
Q

Why is the brain the first affected when hypoglycemia occurs?

A

a. Limited ability to use other substrates as energy source
b. Can store minimal amounts of glycogen
c. Cannot manufacture glucose

251
Q

What is neuroglycopenia?

A

Hypoglycemia of the central nervous system

252
Q

Name some neuroglycopenic signs

A

Altered mentation/dullness, sleepiness, weakness, recumbency, ataxia, blindness, altered vision, seizures.

253
Q

Are the neuroglycopenia signs transient or permanent?

A

Prolonged neuroglycopenia can lead to permanent brain injury and neurological signs, especially blindness, that can persist beyond resolution of the hypoglycemia.

254
Q

What is considered hypoglycemia?

A

<60mg/dL but often signs are not seen until BG <50mg/dL.

255
Q

What is the Whipple’s triad?

A

A collection of 3 criteria that suggest a patient’s symptoms are due to hypoglycemia
i. Clinical signs consistent with hypoglycemia
ii. Low blood glucose levels
iii. Relief of symptoms when glucose levels are raised.

256
Q

Why can BG be falsely low if we do not separate the serum from the RBCs?

A

Because the RBCs will continue to consume glucose for glycolysis.

257
Q

In which type of diabetic patients is more common to see insulin overdoses?

A

a. Cats
b. Obese animals
c. Cats receiving >6IU / injection

258
Q

How can we diagnose an insulinoma?

A

a. Evaluating blood insulin concentrations on a sample taken during an episode of hypoglycemia.
b. High or normal levels of insulin in face of hypoglycemia are indicative of insulinoma.

259
Q

What is the amended insulin/glucose ratio (AIGR) and when is it used?

A

a. Is used when the insulin levels are equivocal.
b. AIGR = (insulin x 100) / (plasma glucose – 30)
c. If plasma glucose is <30 then a denominator of 1 is used.

260
Q

Which treatment combination has resulted in the longest survival times for insulinoma?

A

Surgical excision + medical management.

261
Q

Why is surgery still considered palliative for insulinoma?

A

Because approximately 50% of the patients have metastatic disease evident at surgery and the majority of the others have occult metastases.

262
Q

Explain medical options for treating insulinoma

A

a. Dietary management: small, frequent feedings of a food low in simple sugars
b. Glucocorticoids
c. Diazoxide => directly inhibits pancreatic insulin secretion – can be used in patients with refractory disease
d. Streptozocin – selectively destroys pancreatic B cells
e. Somatostatin analogs such as octreotide – suppresses synthesis and secretion of insulin
f. Alloxan – B cell cytotoxin

263
Q

Which biomarker shows promise for predicting disease-free intervals and survival time in clinical patients?
(insulinoma)

A

Biomarker Ki67 index – last paper on 2010?

264
Q

What are the most common non-B-cell neoplasms associated with hypoglycemia?

A

a. Hepatomas and hepatocellular carcinoma
b. Leiomyomas and leiomyosarcomas
c. Other carcinomas or adenocarcinomas (especially those of pulmonary, mammary and salivary origin)
d. Lymphoma
e. Plasmacytoid tumors
f. Oral melanoma
g. Hemangiosarcoma

265
Q

Through which mechanism a neoplasm can cause hypoglycemia?

A

a. Secretion of insulin or insulin-like peptides
b. Accelerated consumption of glucose by the tumor cells
c. Failure of glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis by the liver

266
Q

Name oral glucose-lowering drugs that can lead to hypoglycemia

A

Sulfonylurea drugs chloropropamide and glipizide

267
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms that xylitol can cause hypoglycemia?

A

a. Stimulates insulin release from pancreatic B cells
b. Can cause hepatic necrosis and failure, leading to hypoglycemia.

268
Q

How can B-blockers like atenolol contribute to hypoglycemia?

A

Interfering with adrenergic counterregulatory mechanisms.

269
Q

What are some reasons why neonatal or pediatric animals can develop hypoglycemia?

A

a. Inadequate substrate for glycolysis or gluconeogenesis
b. Glycogen stores are small and easily depleted in face of inadequate food intake
c. Hepatic enzymes systems may also be immature.

270
Q

What are predisposing factors for hypoglycemia in the nursing animal?

A

Premature birth, debilitation of the bitch or queen at parturition, being the runt of the litter and diabetes in the bitch

271
Q

Name hepatic diseases that can lead to hypoglycemia

A

a. PSS, glycogen storage disease, severe inflammatory or infectious hepatitis, hepatic lipidosis, cirrhosis, hepatic neoplasia and toxicity.
b. Lead to hypoglycemia via dysfunctional glycogen storage, glycogenolytic and gluconeogenic capabilities.

272
Q

How much liver function has to be lost for hypoglycemia to develop?

A

Approximately 70%

273
Q

How can Addison’s lead to hypoglycemia?

A

Via loss of cortisol-induced counterregulatory mechanisms.

274
Q

What main mechanisms play a role in hypoglycemia secondary to sepsis?

A

a. Decreased intake
b. Decreased hepatic function
c. Most significantly: non-insulin-mediated increased consumption => due to inflammatory mediators (TNF, especially in macrophage-rich tissues such as the spleen liver and lungs)
d. Hypotension/hypoxemia may also induce excess glucose consumption (increases in anaerobic glycolysis).

275
Q

Name an infection specifically associated with hypoglycemia, and that hypoglycemia at admission is a poor prognostic indicator

A

Canine babesiosis

276
Q

How is also known “exercise-induced” hypoglycemia?

A

Hunting dog hypoglycemia

277
Q

Why does the hunting dog hypoglycemia happen?

A

It is believed to occur secondary to glycogen depletion in the face of increased glucose utilization

278
Q

Why polycythemia and leukocytosis can cause hypoglycemia? Is it clinically relevant?

A

a. Secondary to increased metabolism of glucose by the large RBCs mass (same with leukocytes)
b. No.

279
Q

What are treatment options for hypoglycemia?

A

a. Dextrose 50% bolus – 0.5-1mL/kg IV slow diluted 1:2-1:4 over 5 minutes
b. If no IV: karo Syrup or honey on gums
c. If mentally normal: small meals
d. Dextrose CRI: 2.5% or 5% - if higher then needs to be given through central line.

280
Q

Why using D5W can be dangerous and should not be used to correct hypoglycemia?

A

It will cause hyponatremia that can be severe

281
Q

Why do we need to be careful using IV dextrose in animals with suspected insulinoma? What can we use to treat hypoglycemia in these cases?

A

a. A bolus of IV dextrose can stimulate release of even more insulin from the tumor leading to a vicious cycle and rebound hypoglycemia.
b. Hyperinsulinemia has been shown to depress glucagon secretion in humans – we are removing one of the counterregulatory mechanisms.
c. Small meals if mentation is appropriate
d. Glucagon CRI in animals with insulin or insulin like peptide-secreting tumors that are in a refractory hypoglycemic crisis.
e. Glucocorticoids (prednisone / dexamethasone).

282
Q

What are the causes of DI?

A

a. By a lack of vasopressin
b. Lack of renal receptors to vasopressin
c. Or inability of those receptors to respond to vasopressin

283
Q

What are other names for vasopressin?

A

a. ADH, antidiuretic hormone
b. Arginine vasopressin – is a peptide with 9 amino acids, and the 8th is arginine

284
Q

What will happen to the urine with lack of ADH?

A

It will remain hyposthenuric or can be isosthenuric (or mild hypersthenuric with partial disease) after Na (and subsequently Cl) have been actively extracted from the solute area that is impermeable to water in the ascending loop of Henle.

285
Q

Where is ADH secreted and stored?

A

Secreted in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus

Stored in the posterior lobe of the hypophysis (pituitary gland)

286
Q

What are the main mechanisms regulating the release of ADH?

A

a. Plasma osmolality – increases in ECF Osm are detected by osmorreceptors on the hypothalamus and lead to a rapid increase in ADH
b. Effective circulating volume – will cause CV reflexes. Low-pressure baroreceptors of the cardiac atria and high-pressure baroreceptors of the aortic arch and carotid sinus stimulate vasopressin release in response to a decrease in BP or blood volume.
c. Angiotensin II will act on angiotensin II receptors on the hypothalamus and cause ADH release
d. Release of ADH is more sensitive to changes in osmolality than in ECV. Only 1% change in POsm will stimulate ADH release, whereas a drop of 10% of blood volume is necessary to stimulate ADH release.

287
Q

How does arginine vasopressin cause its antidiuretic effects?

A

a. Vasopressin binds to its receptors on the cells of the distal tubule and collecting duct (V2, cyclic AMP dependent receptors)
b. When these receptors are activated => increases water permeability of the luminal membrane by the insertion of aquaporin-2 water channels in the apical membrane of the renal epithelial cells.
c. This allows a more rapid passive flow of water from the lumen through the epithelial cells and into the solute-rich, concentrated interstitium => causing a rapid and marked increase in osmolality within the tubular lumen.

288
Q

What is central DI?

A

Complete or partial lack of secretion of vasopressin from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

289
Q

What are causes of CDI in humans?

A

Brain surgery, trauma, immune-mediated diseases, neoplasia, infectious and hereditary disorders.

290
Q

What is posttraumatic hypopituitarism?

A

a. A syndrome that occurs in about 25% of long-term survivors from brain trauma and includes suppression of hormone release from the anterior pituitary gland but it can also include decreased vasopressin secretion from the posterior pituitary gland.
b. Posttraumatic CDI is thought to resolve within a few days in most cases.

291
Q

What are causes of CDI in SA?

A

Trauma, neoplasia, idiopathic conditions and secondary to iatrogenic steroid administration or hyperadrenocorticism.

292
Q

What is the cause of primary NDI? Which breeds are predisposed to it? Is it common?

A

a. Often congenital. Few reports in young dogs, never in cats
b. Miniature Poodle, GSD and Huskies
c. No

293
Q

What are the most common causes of acquired NDI in SA?

A

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Pyometra and gram-negative sepsis
e. PSS
f. Liver insufficiency
g. Hypoadrenocorticism (dogs)
h. Hyperthyroidism (cats)

294
Q

What is the main mechanism of all these diseases to cause NDI?

A

Interference with vasopressin binding and subsequent activation of the V2 receptors.

295
Q

What is another common mechanism of secondary NDI and how does it happen?

A

a. Due to abolition of the medullary hypertonicity gradient – medullary washout
b. Medullary washout occurs in SA for 2 common reasons:
i. Results from large amounts of urine passing through tubules – in severe PU/PD animals (Cushing’s or high IV fluid therapy)
ii. The solutes necessary to produce the medullary hypertonicity gradient are lacking (insufficient urea in dogs and cats with hepatic insufficiency), low Na in Addison’s patients.
iii. They will have secondary NDI and severely PU/PD despite normal renal function and normal vasopressin concentrations.

296
Q

What is the first step in the diagnosis of primary DI?

A

a. Rule out other common causes of PU/PD
b. History, PE, hematology, biochemistry, UA and urine analysis

297
Q

If there is PU/PD and hyposthenuric urine, is CKD a likely cause of it?

A

No

298
Q

When should CKD be considered regarding urea, creatinine and USG values?

A

With normal or high normal urea and creatinine and a consistently isosthenuric urine.

299
Q

What is psychogenic diabetes?

A

When a dog drinks excessively for no apparent physiologic reason

300
Q

What happens if we do not rule out Cushing’s and we do a water deprivation test or desmopressin acetate trial to diagnose CDI?

A

We can have a misdiagnosis. Dogs with Cushing’s may appear to have CDI per results of these tests and therefore will be treated with desmopressin acetate instead of being correctly diagnosed as Cushing’s

301
Q

What are the differences on hydration, Na and osmolality in dogs with psychogenic polydipsia or CDI?

A

Dogs with psychogenic polydipsia: will be slightly overhydrated, low osmolality and low serum sodium concentrations.

Dogs with other causes of PU/PD including CDI: slightly dehydrated with relatively high serum sodium concentration and serum osmolality.

302
Q

Which osmolality level on a random measurement is consistent with psychogenic polydipsia?

A

<280mOsm/L

303
Q

What are the main tests we can use to confirm DI and differentiate CDI from NDI?

A

a. Modified Water Deprivation Test
b. Desmopressin Acetate Trial

304
Q

What is the modified water deprivation test based on?

A

On the premise that a dog that truly suffers from DI will not be able to concentrate its urine even under conditions of moderate dehydration due to a lack of ADH (CDI) or inappropriate renal response to ADH (NDI).

305
Q

How can we differentiate between CDI and NDI based on USG on the MWDT?

A

Once dehydration has been achieved w/o an appropriate rise in USG, desmopressin is given IM. A marked increase in USG would be diagnostic for CDI. A complete lack of response to desmopressin would be suggestive of NDI.

306
Q

Why could the Modified Water Deprivation Test lead to misdiagnoses?

A

a. Medullary washout can occur – urine concentration will not happen despite endogenous ADH, desmopressin and intact renal V2 receptors
b. Partial CDI or relative lack of vasopressin can be very hard to diagnose
c. Dogs with Cushing’s may appear to have CDI – important to rule it out before doing any further testing

307
Q

What is the main complication of the MWDT?

A

Acute, severe hypernatremia

308
Q

What is the desmopressin acetate trial?

A

a. Safer option than the MWDT
b. Performed at home
c. Collect urine first thing in the am for a few days and slightly limit access to water if possible.
d. Begin therapy with desmopressin => on days 5, 6 and 7 collect first morning urine again.
e. Bring all samples to the vet to measure USG.
f. USG should improve dramatically after desmopressin (CDI). Complete lack of response (NDI or psychogenic polydipsia).

309
Q

What is sometimes a common cause of CDI in SA?

A

Intracranial mass lesions – recommended further imaging.

310
Q

What is the main treatment for CDI?

A

a. Desmopressin
b. Thiazide diuretics, salt restricted diets.
c. No treatment.

311
Q

How is also known SIADH?

A

Schwartz-Bartter’s syndrome

312
Q

What are the main causes of SIADH?

A

a. CNS disorders
b. Pulmonary lesions
c. Malignancies
d. Drugs
e. Others (pain, nausea, psychologic stress)

313
Q

Which cerebral causes has been reported to cause SIADH in dogs?

A

a. Hypothalamic tumors
b. Granulomatous ME
c. Congenital hydrocephalus
d. Distemper encephalitis

314
Q

Which pulmonary diseases have been reported to cause SIADH? How do they cause SIADH?

A

a. Bacterial pneumonia, aspergillosis, lung tumors, PPV, dirofilariasis
b. Tumors that ectopically produce ADH or diseases that interrupt the inhibitory impulses in vagal afferents from stretch receptors in the atria and great veins.
c. PPV – may inhibit low-pressure baroreceptors and stimulate release of ADH.

315
Q

Name drugs that are known to cause SIADH

A

Antidepressants, neuroleptics (ACE, chlorpromazine), antineoplastics (cyclophosphamide), NSAIDs, opioids

316
Q

What are the main clinical signs of SIADH?

A

Ones belonging to the underlying diseases + signs of hyponatremia (CNS)

317
Q

What are the main laboratory abnormalities found on patients with SIADH?

A

a. Hyponatremia secondary to renal retention of free water and ongoing natriuresis
b. Serum osmolality <280mOsm/L
c. Urine osmolality >150mOsm/L
d. Urine sodium usually >20mEq/L

318
Q

Why does patients with SIADH do NOT develop edema if there is marked water retention?

A

Because of a continued natriuresis

319
Q

What parameter in the biochemistry will rule out SIADH if it is increased?

A

BUN

320
Q

How is SIADH diagnosed?

A

Ruling out other causes of hyponatremia

321
Q

What is the treatment for SIADH?

A

a. Treat underlying disease
b. DC fluids and restricted access to water
c. Emergency treatment for hyponatremia

322
Q

What is the emergency treatment for hyponatremia and possible complications?

A

a. Hypertonic saline (3%) over 2-4h
b. Not to increase Na levels more than 12mEq/L/day
c. Initial goal of Na = 125-130mEq/L
d. Furosemide may also be beneficial to inhibit resorption of water in the renal tubules and reduce the risk of volume overload.
e. Possible complication: if hyponatremia is corrected too fast, central pontine myelinolysis

323
Q

Which drugs can inhibit the action of ADH on renal tubules?

A

Demeclocycline – tetracycline antibiotic, potentially nephrotoxic. May take 1-2 weeks to work.

Lithium – not used due to higher toxicity than demeclocycline

324
Q

What is a thyroid storm?

A

A multisystem disorder resulting from organ exposure to excessive amounts of thyroid hormone

325
Q

What is thyrotoxicosis? And hyperthyroidism? Can thyrotoxicosis happen w/o hyperthyroidism?

A

a. Thyrotoxicosis: any condition in which there is an excessive amount of circulating thyroid hormone, whether from excess production and secretion from an overactive thyroid gland, because of leakage from a damaged thyroid gland or from an exogenous source.
b. Hyperthyroidism: thyroid gland hyperfunction
c. Yes, but is very rare

326
Q

Which patients are the poster child for hyperthyroidism? In which other patients can happen?

A

a. Older feline patients
b. Rarely in dogs with thyroid carcinoma or extreme oversupplementation of thyroid replacement hormone to hypothyroid dogs.

327
Q

What are the main factors involved in the pathogenesis of the thyroid storm?

A

a. High levels of circulating thyroid hormone – no difference between thyroid storm patients and stable hyperthyroid – difference is clinical signs
b. Rapid, acute increases in circulating thyroid hormone – magnitude of change in serum thyroid hormone levels more important than the actual levels itself.
c. Hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system – many clinical signs and physiologic signs are similar to those seen during catecholamine excess. Thyroid hormones can alter tissue sensitivity to catecholamines at the cell surface receptor as well as the intracellular signaling levels.
d. Increased cellular response to thyroid hormones – is the case when thyroid storm results from infection, sepsis, hypoxemia, hypovolemia and lactic acidosis or ketoacidosis.

328
Q

Name some potential precipitating events for feline thyroid storm

A

a. Radioactive iodine therapy
b. Thyroidal or parathyroidal surgery
c. Abrupt withdrawal of antithyroid medications
d. Stress
e. Non thyroidal illness
f. Administration of iodinated contrast dyes
g. Administration of stable iodine compounds
h. Vigorous palpation of the thyroid

329
Q

What are the main 4 clinical sings seen in humans of thyroid storm?

A

a. Fever
b. CNS effects, from mild agitation to seizures or even coma
c. GI and hepatic dysfunction ranging from vomiting, diarrhea and abdominal pain to unexplained jaundice
d. Cardiovascular effects – sinus tachycardia, heart block, atrial fibrillation, Vtach, CHF

330
Q

Is fever common in cats with thyroid storm? And obtundation/seizures?

A

No
Yes

331
Q

Which kind of retinopathies can be seen?

A

Hemorrhage, edema, degeneration or even retinal detachment, especially in hypertensive thyrotoxic cats.

332
Q

Why would a cat with thyroid storm have absent limb motor function?

A

As a result of thromboembolic disease secondary to the acute thyrotoxicosis

333
Q

How can thyroid storm be diagnosed?

A

a. Identification of thyrotoxicosis – elevated total T4, or total T4 in the high-normal range combined with an elevated free T4 level.
b. Clinical sings
c. Evidence of a precipitating event

334
Q

What are possible bloodwork changes that we could see on a feline suffering from thyroid storm?

A

a. Mild erythrocytosis, macrocytosis and Heinz body formation
b. Mature neutrophilia, lymphopenia and eosinopenia (stress response)
c. Elevated liver enzyme levels
d. Mild hyperglycemia
e. Severe hypokalemia
f. Unexplained mild hyperbilirubinemia
g. Decreased Na/K ratio in cats that experience HF and pleural effusion

335
Q

What are the main goals of the treatment of thyroid storm?

A

a. Reduce production and/or secretion of thyroid hormones
b. Counteract the peripheral effects of thyroid hormones
c. Systemic support
d. Identify and remove precipitating factor

336
Q

What are the effects of methimazole?

A

a. Prevents the synthesis of active thyroid hormone. First line of defense.
b. It does not prevent the secretion of already formed thyroid hormones.
c. If suspected renal insufficiency – reduce dosage.

337
Q

Which drugs can be used to prevent further secretion of already formed hormone?

A

a. Iodine compounds such as potassium iodide
b. Lipid-soluble radiographic contrast agents – iopanoic acid – has the additional advantages of blocking peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, blocking T3 from binding to its receptors, and inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis.
c. Dexamethasone can be used to inhibit the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland and to block the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 (works synergistically with organic iodine compounds.

338
Q

Which medications can we use to accomplish a rapid relief of signs from thyroid stomr?

A

B-adrenergic receptor blockers like propranolol and atenolol.

339
Q

Why could propranolol be advantageous in severely thyrotoxic cats?

A

Because it inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

340
Q

Do you know another B-blocker that could be used in emergent situations?

A

Esmolol, as CRI due to short half-life.

341
Q

Mention alternative methods to counteract the peripheral actions of excess thyroid hormones

A

a. Peritoneal dialysis
b. Plasmapheresis
c. Hemodialysis
d. Cholestyramine – binds thyroid hormone in the GI tract and inhibits enterohepatic circulation

342
Q

What are some treatments that we might need to give systemic support?

A

a. Fluid therapy
b. Dextrose supplementation and B vitamin supplementation
c. Treat CHF – B blockers, furosemide, ACE inhibitors, nitroglycerin…
d. Treat arrhythmias
e. If thromboembolic disease – aspirin, UFH, LMWH
f. If hypertension – amlodipine, B-blockers

343
Q

Why dogs in hypothyroid crisis come with altered mental status (not all)?

A

Multifactorial
i. Decreased blood flow and oxygen delivery to the brain
ii. Hyponatremia
iii. Lack of a direct effect of thyroid hormone on the brain
iv. Disruption of the integrity of the blood-brain barrier

344
Q

Why is the pathophysiology of the thermoregulation altered in hypothyroid patients?

A

Multifactorial
i. Inadequate thyroid hormone function in the hypothalamus – may result in inability to regulate body temperature
ii. Decrease in the calorigenic effect of thyroid hormones contributes to hypothermia
iii. Body temperature in some individuals with myxedema coma may be normal because of a concurrent infection and fever

345
Q

What is the effect of the thyroid hormones on the heart?

A

Increase the number of B-adrenergic receptors and their affinity to catecholamines, thereby increasing the inotropic and chronotropic effects of catecholamines.

346
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of cardiovascular dysfunction due to hypothyroid cardiomyopathy?

A

a. Bradycardia
b. Decreased cardiac contractility
c. Cardiac enlargement
d. Hypotension – although diastolic hypertension has also been documented

347
Q

What is myxedema? Why does it occur?

A

a. It is a complication of hypothyroidism
b. Develop secondary to accumulation of the glycosaminoglycan - hyaluronic acid in the dermis
c. Impaired renal perfusion secondary to decreased cardiovascular function results in inability to excrete water and contributes to development of edema.
d. Excessive secretion of ADH may also contribute to hyponatremia, fluid retention and edema in some patients.

348
Q

Name risk factors to develop myxedema coma

A

a. Rottweiler – most dogs are middle age, no gender preference
b. Dogs with untreated hypothyroidism
c. Concurrent disorder, most commonly an infection (aspiration pneumonia, FB, keratoconjunctivitis, pyometra, pyoderma, severe bilateral otitis, UTI, sepsis).
d. Glucocorticoids – lower the concentration of thyroid hormones in dogs
e. NSAIDs – may cause suppression of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion
f. Surgery
g. Other: burns, CO2 retention, GI hemorrhage, hypoglycemia, infection, hypothermia, stroke, trauma, various medications (anesthetics, barbiturates, B-blockers, diuretics, narcotics, phenothiazines and tranquilizers)

349
Q

What are some clinical signs related to hypothyroid crisis?

A

a. Overweight/obese
b. Nonpitting facial, jaw or other edema
c. Tachypnea, alopecia
d. Dehydration
e. Dermatitis
f. Otitis
g. Elevated or decreased body temperature
h. Heart murmur
i. Bradycardia/Tachycardia
j. Neurological signs – mental dullness, stupor

350
Q

What are some bloodwork abnormalities that we can find?

A

a. Mild nonregenerative anemia – thyroid hormones bind thyroid hormone receptors on erythroid progenitors and act directly to increase erythroid proliferation and also they increase expression of the erythropoieting gene, contributing to RBC formation
b. Hyperlipidemia – alteration in both synthesis and transport of lipids
c. Hypercholesterolemia
d. Hyponatremia – increased renal reabsorption of Na, impaired water clearance, increased ASH concentration, low plasma renin activity and a low aldosterone concentration
e. Hypoglycemia – in humans secondary to reduced insulin clearance. In dogs – decreased insulin sensitivity which may lead to hyperglycemia
f. Hypoxia and hypercarbia

351
Q

How can we diagnose hypothyroidism?

A

Based on low thyroxine and high TSH concentrations – some dogs will have normal TSH

352
Q

Which drugs can cause low thyroxine with or w/o high TSH?

A

Glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, TMS, anticonvulsants (phenobarbital, KBr), antituberculosis drugs, propranolol and lithium

353
Q

What are some ddx for edema (when having a mixedema coma)?

A

a. Increased hydrostatic pressure
b. Decreased oncotic pressure
c. Lymphatic obstruction
d. Na+ retention
e. Vascular endothelial leak syndromes

354
Q

What are the 3 approaches to treat hypothyroid crisis?

A

a. Supportive care
b. Thyroid hormone supplementation
c. Treatment of concurrent diseases

355
Q

What is the best way to administer thyroid supplementation during a myxedema coma?

A

IV levothyroxine – 5mcg/kg q12h – higher bioavailability than oral – more rapid clinical response.

356
Q

How long can it take to see an improvement on mentation or ambulation once we start trading the myxedema coma?

A

24 to 30h after administering the IV levothyroxine

357
Q

What is the relationship between altered hypothalamus/pituitary/adrenal axis (HPA) function and mortality in septic patients?

A

Severely septic patients with altered HPA axis function may have a form of adrenal insufficiency.

358
Q

What does the term “relative adrenal insufficiency” (RAI) describes?

A

Septic patients with either unexpectedly low basal plasma cortisol concentrations or those whose response to exogenous ACTH (termed “delta cortisol”: serum cortisol concentration 1 hour after exogenous ACTH administration minus base- line serum cortisol concentration) was deemed inadequate regardless of basal cortisol concentration.

359
Q

What was the CORTICUS investigation?

A

It was a multicenter, international, randomized, double-blinded, placebo-controlled trial that set out to investigate the usefulness of the standard ACTH stimulation test and hydrocortisone treatment in 800 people with septic shock.

The investigation ultimately included only 499 people because of slow recruitment and subsequent expiration of study medications.

360
Q

What were the primary findings of the CORTICUS study?

A

1) That low-dose hydrocortisone treatment led to more rapid pressor weaning regardless of ACTH stimulation test results.

2) That hydrocortisone had no survival benefit despite more rapid pressor weaning in the treatment group.

3) That hydrocortisone treatment was associated with more incidents of superinfection than placebo.

361
Q

How does cortisol circulates in blood?

A

In health, at least 90% of plasma cortisol circulates bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin (CBG).

Unbound or “free” plasma cortisol is the biologically active fraction.

362
Q

What does the 11B-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (11B-HSD) enzyme system do?

A

It has the capability to convert inactive cortisone to active cortisol, and under some conditions, to convert active cortisol to inactive cortisone.

363
Q

Suspected factors that pay a role in the development of CIRCI

A

1) The hypothalamus, pituitary, or adrenal glands may be inhibited or damaged by cytokines, reactive oxygen species, hemorrhage, or other deleterious events during septic shock -> inadequate cortisol production or inadequate response to administered ACTH.

2) Plasma CBG is damaged by neutrophil elastase -> during systemic inflammatory states, an increased fraction of total plasma cortisol is in its active form.

3) Standard tests for cortisol concentration measure only total plasma cortisol -> true cortisol activity potential may be underestimated in patients with sepsis.

4) The 11B-HSD1 enzyme system is stimulated by proinflammatory cytokines and by high concentrations of glucocorticoids -> increases in active intracellular cortisol that are not reflected by measurement of plasma cortisol concentration.

4) Systemic inflammation inhibits GR-cortisol binding, impairs translocation of the complex to the nucleus, and alters cortisol-dependent gene transcription.

The variety of ways in which systemic inflammation can potentially affect the secretion and biological activity of cortisol makes the precise mechanisms of CIRCI difficult to know.

364
Q

How is the current diagnosis of CIRCI made in people?

A

Is currently made by evaluating response to treatment with low-dose hydrocortisone, because current guidelines recommend treating pressor-resistant septic shock patients with hydrocortisone without or with no regard to HPA axis assessment.

365
Q

What do the studies in dogs suggest regarding delta cortisol?

A

1) One investigation found that septic dogs with a delta cortisol <3ug/dL following a standard 250ug/dog ACTH stimulation test were more likely to be hypotensive and had decreased survival compared to dogs with a cortisol increase >3ug/dL. This difference would suggest that dogs with cortisol increase <3ug/dL may have CIRCI.

2) A study in septic and nonseptic critically ill dogs found that patients with a delta cortisol <3ug/dL 1 hour after 5ug/kg cosyntropin administration were more likely to be pressor-dependent than dogs with delta cortisol >3ug/dL.

Findings from these 2 studies suggest that ACTH responsiveness may be a marker of illness severity in critically ill dogs and raises the question of whether they may benefit from glucocorticoid replacement.

366
Q

What did Prittie et al. found regarding cortisol and critically ill cats?

A

They that critically ill cats had higher baseline cortisol concentrations than normal cats, as would be expected in response to physiologic stress.

However, there was no significant difference between baseline cortisol, post-ACTH stimulation cortisol, or delta cortisol concentrations in cats that died and those that survived.

Cats with neoplastic disease were found to have lower delta cortisols compared to other critically ill cats in the study.

367
Q

What did Costello et al. found regarding cortisol in septic cats?

A

Costello et al studied 19 septic cats and reported significantly lower delta cortisols in septic cats compared to normals.

However, there was no difference in delta cortisol between survivors and nonsurvivors in this investigation.

368
Q

Hydrocortisone potency compared to prednisone

A

Hydrocortisone has approximately 1/4 the potency of prednisone

369
Q

What is the recommendations on CIRCI treatment for humans?

A

Hydrocortisone dose should not exceed 300 mg per adult person (#70 kg) per day for treatment of CIRCI.

The dose is referred to as low or physiologic, and calculates to no more than 4.3 mg/kg/day of hydrocortisone.

As hydrocortisone has approximately 1/4 the potency of prednisone, the daily dose should not exceed 1 mg/kg of prednisone equivalent.

370
Q

What are the current recommendations on the Sepsis Guidelines 2021 for the use of corticosteroids?

A
371
Q

Why does the American College of Critical Care Medicine recommends against dexamethasone?

A

Because its profound HPA axis suppression may complicate accurate ACTH stimulation testing.

Since it is currently not recommended to use the ACTH stimulation test to guide CIRCI treatment decisions, dexamethasone may be a reasonable treatment choice;

However, dexamethasone is highly structurally altered from the parent cortisol molecule and may therefore carry excessive immunosuppressive effects without the benefit of hydrocortisone’s modest mineralocorticoid effect.

372
Q

What are some suggestions/recommendations on the use of steroids in critically ill small animals?

A
  • 1–4.3 mg/kg hydrocortisone daily, either divided into 4 equal IV doses administered every 6 hours or delivered as a constant rate infusion
  • 0.5 mg/kg hydrocortisone IV every 6 hours or 0.08 mg/kg/hr as a constant rate infusion.
373
Q

Functions of the extracellular ionized calcium

A

Regulates cell function by binding to cell membrane calcium-sensing receptors

374
Q

Functions of the intracellular ionized calcium

A

Messenger to transport cell surface signals to interior

375
Q

Normal adult calcium distribution

A
376
Q

How can we convert calcium mg/dL into mmol/L?

A

mg/dL x 0.2495 = mmol/L

377
Q

How much calcium is in the bones?

A

99% of the total body calcium

378
Q

What is the main function of calcitriol?

A

Enhance calcium absorption in the GI tract. Will also increase phosphorus uptake.

379
Q

What is another name for calcitriol

A

1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol

380
Q

How will calcium levels and calcitriol affect PTH production?

A

When they decrease they will stimulate the production of PTH.

When they increase they will decrease the production of PTH.

381
Q

Which receptor in the enterocytes takes in calcium?

A

Transient receptor potential vanilloid type 6 (TRPV6)

382
Q

Once calcium enters the enterocytes, what keeps it from interacting with the intracellular functions?

A

The calbinding

383
Q

Once the calcium is in the enterocyte, how will be transported outside?

A

Through 2 receptors:

  • Na exchanger (NCX1)
  • Mg exchanger (PMCA16) -> if hypomagnesemia, that will lead to difficulties raising calcium if it is also low -> check Mg and supplement PRN when having refractory hypocalcemia.
384
Q

What is the limiting step in the rate of production of active vitamin D (1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol)

A

The renal hydroxylation of vitamin D, catalized by 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the proximal renal tubule.

385
Q

What is the CKD-mineral bone disorder?

A

AKA - renal osteodystrophy

CKD associated with hyperphosphatemia, decreased vitamin D metabolite concentrations, and hyperparathyroidism

386
Q

What is fibroblast growth factor-23

A

Is a phosphatonin released from osteocytes in response to increased phosphorus, calcitriol, and PTH concentrations.

Increased FGF-23 is an independent risk factor for progression and survival of CKD in humans, dogs, and cats.

387
Q

What does FGF-23 do?

A

FGF-23 binds to coreceptor α-klotho -> decreases phosphorus and calcitriol concentrations

  • Downregulating sodium-phosphorus cotransporters (NaPi-IIa and IIc) in renal proximal tubules -> phosphaturia
  • Inhibiting renal 1α-hydroxylase activity -> no vit D

Fibroblast growth factor-23 decreases PTH secretion in the early stages of CKD

In advanced stages, FGF-23 leads to decreased calcitriol, indirectly promoting development of hyperparathyroidism (calcitriol is needed for PTH gene transcription).

388
Q

What happens when the kidneys age/CKD and the calcium/phosphorus handling?

A

There will be increases in postprandial phosphorus that will bind to calcium, forming the CPP (calciprotein particles), actively participating in inflammation and damage to the kidneys.

389
Q

What is renal 2ary hyperparathyroidism

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs when the parathyroid glands become enlarged and release too much PTH, causing a high blood level of PTH, normally secondary to kidney disease.

Phosphorus retention
Kidneys cannot make active vitamin D -> needed to absorb calcium -> lower blood calcium levels -> increased PTH production.

390
Q

Plasma half-life of PTH

A

10 minutes

391
Q

What is the acute Ca2+ complexing?

A

When due to different conditions (for example ethylene glycol intoxication), calcium binds to other than proteins (citrate, lactate, bicarbonate, phosphate), and can decrease the ionized calcium. Normally the fraction of ca2+ complexed is low.

392
Q

List signs of hypocalcemia in the cat

A

Muscle tremors / fasciculations
Seizures
Tetany
Status epilepticus
Facial rubbing
Paw chewing
Behavior changes

393
Q

Common causes of hypocalcemia

A

Hypoalbuminemia (ionized usually normal)
CKD (ionized usually normal)
Puerperal tetany (“eclampsia”)
Acute renal failure
Acute pancreatitis
Idiopathic (usually mild, not clinical)

394
Q

Why does low calcium causes neurological signs

A

Because when extracellular fluid calcium decreases, the nervous system becomes more excitable due to increased neuronal membrane permeability, and nerve fibers discharge spontaneously.

395
Q

Uncommon / rare causes of hypocalcemia

A
396
Q

Severity of ionized hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia is associated with etiology in dogs and cats - Frontiers, 2019 - summary of findings

A
397
Q

When should you treat hypocalcemia when occurring with renal failure? (ionized hypocalcemia)

A

iCa < 0.8mmol/L or clinical signs.
Treat to control clinical signs, not to normalize values

Most likely Ph is increased -> if we increase the Ca, we can make the renal disease worse.

398
Q

What is the mechanism behind GI disease (like lymphangiectasia) causing hypocalcemia?

A

When you have severe malabsorption disease patients become vitamin D deficient

399
Q

10% calcium gluconate contains how many mg/ml of elemental calcium?

A

About 25mg/mL

400
Q

How can we manage persistent hypocalcemia?

A