Endocrine Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

risks of tight glucose control

A

hypoglycemia
hypoglycemic coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mechanism of action of insulin

A

binds insulin receptor, stimulates GLUT4 channel membrane proliferation (via exocytosis). GLUT4 channels allow glucose to enter the cell

end result: higher intracellular glucose, lower extracellular (plasma) glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

do the various insulin formulation differ in their pharmacokinetic or pharmacodynamic principles?

A

pharmacokinetic

all are identical pharmacodynamically to endogenous insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

actions of insulin

A

glycogenesis & cellular uptake of glucose
protein synthesis from amino acids
triglyceride production from fatty acids

(all anabolic actions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can you give insulin PO? IV?

A

Only SubQ or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of insulin is closest to endogenous insulin (pharmacokinetically)?

A

regular insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

list the rapid acting insulins

A

aspart
lispro
glulisine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long after administration is the peak action of rapid acting insulin

A

30-60minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

NPH is a ______-acting insulin.

A

intermediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_______ is an insulin with no peak time of activity

A

glargine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which insulins can be mixed together in the same syringe?

A

NPH & short acting insulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what medication class is metformin

A

biguanide (oral antidiabetic medication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which two classes of oral antidiabetic medications carry a hypoglycemia risk when administered alone?

A

sulfonylureas
meglitinides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

adverse effects of metformin

A

most common: GI upset

decreased B12 & folate absorption
lactic acidosis with toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why do some oral antidiabetics carry a hypoglycemia risk and some don’t?

A

those that do promote insulin release

those that do not work via other mechanisms (decreased insulin resistance, decreased glucose absorption or glucose excretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when should metformin be held?

A

hypoperfusion states

such as sepsis, cardiac failure, renal failure, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the difference between the meglitinides and the sulfonylureas?

A

meglitinides are shorter acting & only taken with meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why do thiazolidinediones not work for type 1 diabetics?

A

insulin must be present since the drug works by increasing insulin sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mechanism of action of alpha glucosidase inhibitors?

A

inhibition of alpha glucosidase enzyme
results in delayed carbohydrate absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mechanism of action of sodium glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors (SGLT2 inhibitors)?

A

inhibition of SGLT2 in renal tubules = increased renal excretion of glucose

SGLT2 is responsible for 90% of glucose reabsorption back into the plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

actions of glucagon

A

glycogenolysis (increased free glucose)
decreases glyconeogenesis
stimulates glucose production from the liver

opposite of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

treatment for growth hormone deficiency?

A

exogenous growth hormone (somatotropin - identical to endogenous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

routes of administration for somatropin?

A

IM or SubQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

adverse effect of somatropin

A

hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
treatment for prolactin excess?
dopamine agonists i.e. cabergoline or bromocriptine
26
function of ADH
increase water reabsorption in the collecting ducts (preserves H2O & concentrates the urine) at very high doses = vasoconstriction & GI smooth muscle contraction
27
Two ADH replacements?
vasopressin desmopressin (DDAVP)
28
actions of vasopressin
vasoconstriction smooth muscle contraction
29
actions of desmopressin (DDAVP)
anti-diuresis (H2O reabsorption in collecting ducts) no vasoconstriction
30
route of administration of DDAVP
PO intranasal
31
primary endogenous glucocorticoid?
cortisol
32
primary endogenous mineralocorticoid?
aldosterone
33
s/s cortisol deficiency
hypotension hypoglycemia cachexia depression/lethary
34
s/s cortisol excess
HPA axis suppression hypertension hyperglycemia fat redistribution (buffalo hump, etc.) osteoporosis menstrual irregularities infection risk CNS excitation
35
s/s aldosterone deficiency
hyponatremia hyperkalemia acidosis cellular dehydration late & untreated can lead to renal failure, CV collapse, death
36
s/s aldosterone excess
myocardial & vascular remodeling & fibrosis SNS activation baroreceptor reflex disruption untreated this leads to decreased contractility, dysrhythmias, hypertension to heart failure & MI
37
how does ketoconazole treat glucocorticoid excess?
blocks glucocorticoid synthesis
38
What is the drug used for mineralocorticoid excess? What is the drug class?
spironolactone potassium sparing diuretic
39
What time of day should adrenal hormone replacement therapy be administered?
morning (mimics endogenous secretion)
40
Is the dose of gluco/mineralocorticoid HIGHER for replacement therapy or for anti-inflammation?
Anti-inflammation for replacement therapy, we just give the dose that results in the patient having normal hormone levels (not suppressing inflammation). Only higher doses (i.e. putting the patient in "excess") result in decreased inflammation & infection risk
41
How much higher dose is a stress dose
up to 10x
42
Which glucocorticoid is identical to cortisol?
hydrocortisone
43
what does fludrocortisone do?
exogenous mineralocorticoid (fluid retention, potassium excretion)
44
Does dexamethasone have more glucocorticoid or mineralocorticoid activity?
glucocorticoid. very little mineralocorticoid
45
What two hormones does the thyroid gland release?
T3 & T4
46
Which is more physiologically active, T3 or T4?
T3
47
A high TSH indicates a _____(low/high) T3 and/or T4 level?
low
48
Which thyroid hormone has a longer half life?
T4 (7 days vs. 1 day T3)
49
Which thyroid hormone is more potent?
T3
50
actions of thyroid hormone
increased basal metabolic rate (increased O2 consumption & heat production) increased HR & contractility (increased CO & myocardial O2 demand) promotion of growth & development
51
How many half lives does it take for a drug to reach a plateau level in the body?
4
52
How long does it take levothyroxine to reach steady state
approximately one month
53
Routes of administration of levothyroxine?
primarily PO IV in emergency
54
levothyroxine is taken 30mins before meals because:
absorption is reduced by food
55
treatment for thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?
medications to suppress thyroid hormone synthesis & release (thionamides) supportive care: - beta blockers to attenuate tachycardia - sedation - cooling - fluids
56
mechanism of action of thionamides?
inhibit peroxidase, which results in decreased thyroid hormone synthesis
57
onset of action of thionamides
Only decrease synthesis of NEW thyroid hormone. So already synthesized hormone isn't affected Thus, full effect can take 3-12 weeks
58
methimazole is preferred over PTU because:
1. longer 1/2 life 2. more potent 3. the serious adverse effects are less common
59
adverse effects of methimazole & PTU (thionamides)
pruritic rash with initial therapy arthralgias rare: agranulocytosis, hepatotoxicity, vasculitis overdose = hypothyroid symptoms
60
which thionamide is preferred in 1st trimester pregnancy and why?
PTU less placental crossing
61
adverse effect of radioactive iodine (iodine 131)
bone marrow depression (results in low RBC, WBC, platelet counts)
62
care precautions for the nurse when caring for a patient taking radioactive iodine
less than 30mins per day of patient contact follow facility protocols for disposal of body wastes
63
high doses of lugol solution can result in
hyperthyroid symptoms
64
use for lugol solution
rapid and temporary decrease in thyroid hormone
65
how is estrogen metabolized & excreted?
hepatic metabolism (CYP450), renal excretion
66
how is progesterone metabolized & excreted?
hepatic metabolism (CYP450) & renal excretion
67
non-reproductive effects of estrogen
- maintain bone density & mass - vasodilation, decrease LDL, increase HDL - increase coagulation & fibrin breakdown - CNS protection - glucose homeostasis
68
adverse effects of exogenous estrogen administration
endometrial CA (d/t hyperplasia) breast CA CV thromboembolic events gall bladder disease
69
non-reproductive effects of progesterone
constipation maternal immune suppression growth/proliferation of breast ducts
70
adverse effects of exogenous progesterone administration
breast tenderness headache abdominal discomfort
71
naturally, which hormone is increasing during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle
estrogen thus, it should make sense that exogenous estrogen can result in strong endometrial proliferation & thus endometrial CA
72
effects of menopause - i.e. why do women seek treatment?
vasomotor symptoms sleep disturbances urogenital atrophy altered lipid metabolism changes in cognition & sexual response
73
why is hormone therapy for menopause controversial?
risk of increased thromboembolic events (CV events like blood clots, MI, CVA, etc.)
74
Why is progesterone added to HT and oral birth control?
to prevent endometrial CA (estrogen only = unopposed proliferation of the endometrium!) **no uterus, no need to add progesterone!
75
absolute contraindications to HT or hormonal birth control
pregnancy breast or endometrial CA acute liver disease uncontrolled hypertension thrombosis (DVT, MI, CVA) undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
76
Is a 40 year old heavy smoker a good candidate for hormonal birth control?
no (increased risk for thromboembolic events) but it is not absolutely contraindicated
77
what does SERM stand for and what does it mean?
selective estrogen receptor modulator agonize some estrogen receptors, antagonize others - attempts to provide benefits w/out risks
78
what is the main difference between tamoxifen & raloxifene?
raloxifene doesn't result in endometrial proliferation (i.e. no endometrial CA risk)
79
risks of SERM therapy?
endometrial CA risk (only tamoxifen) increased hot flashes increased thromboembolism risk
80
benefits of SERM therapy?
breast CA prevention osteoporosis prevention improved lipid profile
81
why do some women get HT for osteoporosis prevention and others don't?
those that are very high risk for osteo require lifelong therapy. it is not standard for all women because of the high risk for thromboembolic events as one ages
82
Which hormones are in oral contraceptives?
estrogen AND progesterone or just progesterone
83
mechanism of action of combination oral contraceptives?
suppression of ovulation: high estrogen provides negative feedback to suppress FSH (follicle cannot mature, no ovulation occurs) also alters cervical mucus & endometrium
84
mechanism of action of minipills?
cervical secretion changes
85
what are minipills?
progestin-only OCs
86
how many days in a cycle for minipill administration?
n/a - this medication is taken continuously throughout the cycle (no placebo)
87
list several other formulations of contraceptives
transdermal patch vaginal ring subdermal implants IM/subQ injections IUDs
88
which two drugs are used for medical abortion?
mifepristone (antiprogestin) misoprostol (prostaglandin)
89
mechanism of action of mifepristone w/ misoprostol
mifepristone blocks progesterone receptors, which results in detachment of conceptus as well as cervical softening/dilation misoprostol is a prostaglandin that directly stimulates uterine contractions
90
what percent of infertility is due to the female?
50%
91
mechanism of action of clomiphene
blocks estrogen receptors in hypothalamus & pituitary normally estrogen binds these receptors & provides negative feedback, leading to decreased LH & FSH when receptors are blocked, LH & FSH continue to be secreted = ovulation
92
what is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
exogenous hormone administration for infertility leads to exaggerated response --> ovaries swell, leak fluid, & are painful. Can be dangerous - fluid can collect in abdomen/chest, electrolyte disturbances can occur, blood clots, renal failure, etc.
93
how do menotropins work?
they are a 50/50 mixture of LH/FSH. So just work like endogenous LH/FSH --> result in follicular maturation & ovulation
94
adverse effect of menotropins
OHSS
95
when should exogenous hCG be administered during fertility treatmnets?
after clomiphene or menotropin (those drugs are for follicular growth, hCG is for ovulation - commonly called "trigger shot")
96
list four classes of tocolytics
beta 2 agonists calcium channel blockers COX inhibitors oxytocin receptor blockers
97
what are tocolytics?
drugs that suppress uterine contractions
98
what is terbutaline & how does it work?
B2 agonist agonizes B2 on uterine smooth muscle, resulting in decreased contractions
99
adverse effects of terbutaline?
pulmonary edema hypotension hyperglycemia tachycardia
100
what is indomethacin & how does it suppress uterine contractions?
COX inhibitor inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, which results in decreased contractions via cAMP-mediated pathway
101
adverse effects of indomethacin
nausea gastric irritation increased postpartum bleeding
102
why is magnesium sulfate given for premature labor?
fetal neuroprotective effects
103
adverse effects of magnesium sulfate administration?
hypotension flushing headache & dizziness SEVERE: hypothermia, paralytic ileus, pulmonary edema
104
fetal effects of magnesium sulfate administration? (i.e. when baby is born, what do you expect?)
hypotonia sleepiness associated w/ increased infant mortality
105
what drug is indicated to PREVENT preterm labor before it starts?
hydroxyprogesterase caproate
106
contraindications of induction of labor
umbilical cord prolapse transverse fetal position active genital herpes h/x c-section or myomectomy placenta previa
107
what are prostaglandins used for in an induction of labor?
ripen cervix primarily, but can also contribute to uterine contractions
108
how to administer dinoprostone?
transvaginally
109
nursing consideration when administering prostaglandin for induction of labor?
monitor fetal heart rate & contractions fetal distress can occur, tachysystole (rapid contractions) can occur
110
what is oxytocin?
endogenous hormone exogenous version is identical to endogenous
111
effects of oxytocin?
uterine stimulation milk ejection water retention
112
besides induction of labor, when else is oxytocin given?
augmentation of spontaneous labor postpartum bleeding abortion
113
most common cause for postpartum hemorrhage?
uterine atony (80%)
114
drug of choice for postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony?
oxytocin
115
besides oxytocin, what else can be given for postpartum hemorrhage?
misoprostol (Cytotec) caboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) methylergonovine (Methergine)
116
mechanism of action of caboprost tromethamine (Hemabate)
prostaglandin that results in uterine contractions and INTENSE vasoconstriction
117
contraindications of caboprost tromethamine (Hemabate)
pelvic inflammatory disease cardiac disease pulmonary disease renal disease liver disease caution in asthma, hypertension, diabetes
118
adverse effects of caboprost tromethamine (Hemabate)
abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting due to smooth m stimulation hypertension bronchoconstriction
119
adverse effects of methylergonovine (Methergine)
HTN (severe!) nausea, vomiting headache dangerous --> only give in emergencies!
120
how does tranexamic acid work?
inhibits plasmin thus the fibrin mesh doesn't dissolve (hemostasis is preserved)
121
serious adverse effect of tranexamic acid (TXA)?
thrombosis (can lead to PE, MI, CVA)
122
adverse effect of 17-alpha-alkylated compounds?
hepatotoxicity
123
medical uses for exogenous testosterone?
- male hypogonadism - testosterone replacement therapy (TRT) - delayed puberty - menopause symptoms (for women) - cachexia - anemias - transgender men
124
why is PO testosterone not preferred?
because both formulations are 17-alpha-alkylated compounds and risk hepatotoxicity
125
caution with transdermal testosterone therapy?
drug transfer with skin-to-skin contact (especially think with women or children)
126
adverse effects of testosterone therapy?
hepatotoxicity virilization (male characteristics) premature epiphyseal closure atherosclerosis edema abuse in high doses = sterility psychologic effects
127
what drug class does sildenafil belong to?
PDE5 inhibitor
128
how do phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors work?
inhibit PDE5 = increase cGMP. Thus with stimulation, erection can occur
129
adverse effects of PDE5 inhibitors
hypotension priapism increase OSA HA flushing
130
contraindications of PDE5 inhibitors
MI, unstable angina hypotension heart failure NITROGLYCERIN! (require 24hrs between doses)
131
what can occur with concurrent administration of sublingual nitroglycerin and sildenafil?
severe hypotension
132
how do the injectable ED (erectile dysfunction) drugs work?
vasodilation that allows rapid inflow of arterial blood
133
list two main pharmacologic interventions for premature ejaculation
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) local anesthetics
134
what medication class is finasteride?
5-alpha-reductase-inhibitor
135
how do 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors work?
inhibit 5-alpha-reductase, which is the enzyme that converts testosterone to DHT (the active form in the prostate) thus, regression of prostate epithelial tissue & decreased mechanical obstruction occurs
136
adverse effects of 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors
decreased libido gynecomastia
137
how do alpha1 adrenergic antagonists work in treating BPH?
relax smooth muscle & decrease dynamic obstruction some are selective for the receptors on the prostate = less adverse effects
138
adverse effects of nonselective a1 adrenergic antagonists?
hypotension dizziness nasal congestion **hypotension can be severe with other drugs that can decrease BP