Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABIM - Endocrinology > Endocrine Board Review 5th Edition > Flashcards

Endocrine Board Review 5th Edition Flashcards

1
Q

Is LCAT deficiency associated with high LDL?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is hypertriglyceridemia usually associated with increased or decreased HDL?

A

Decreased HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the difference in clinical features of LCAT deficiency and Tangier’s disease?

A

LCAT deficiency has renal involvement.

Tangier disease has tonsillar involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does acute illness do to the lipid panel?

A

Causes marked reduction in circulating cholesterol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does an abnormal double tetracycline labelling bone scan indicate?

A

Adynamic bone disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should you do with the cinacalcet in adynamic bone disease?

A

Reduce the dose or stop it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do you need before treating osteoporosis with denosumab in an ESRD patient who may have adynamic bone disease?

A

A bone biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does PTHrP cause increased 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D levels in hyperparathyroidism?

A

They are increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do you need to check if a Looser zone is seen on a radiograph?

A

25-hydroxyvitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should the bottom of the total hip box be placed when measuring bone density?

A

About 10 pixels (1 cm) below the lesser trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is BMI or waist circumference more important when calculating risk stratification?

A

Waist circumference definitely modifies the risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does the waist circumference override the BMI when assessing health risks of obesity?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Orlistat could reduce the level of cyclosporine, resulting in a flare in her psoriasis.

True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Does orlistat affect the absorption of warfarin?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does orlistat alter the anticoagulation in patients taking warfarin?

A

Alters absorption of vitamin K levels resulting in change in anticoagulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does weight loss in men do to estrogen levels?

A

Decreases estrogen levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common reason for patients on low calorie diets gaining weight?

A

Under-reporting calorie intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most sensitive diagnostic test for recurrent Cushing’s disease?

A

Late night salivary cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which adrenal lesions have Hounsfield units that are - 10 (very low)?

A

Adrenal myelipomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What adrenal disorder are adrenal myelipomas associated with?

A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inhaled steroids are more likely to cause iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome in patients that are on antiretroviral drugs that are inhibitors of ______.

A

CYP3A4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which ratios are being compared in adrenal vein sampling to figure out lateralisation?

A

The aldosterone/cortisol ratios on each side are compared. Generally more than 4 times is considered lateralisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which ratios are being compared in adrenal vein sampling to figure out proper positioning?

A

The adrenal cortisol to peripheral cortisol level should be more than 5 times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which normal adrenal gland is more likely to accumulate 123 I-MIBG during imaging?

A

Left adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Because of the catabolic nature of severe hypercortisolism and metastatic disease, patients with ectopic ACTH syndrome often present with a cachectic, malnourished state.

True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a patient has legs that look like elephant legs then do they have hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism secondary to Graves’ disease?

A

Graves’ disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does a thyroid hormone receptor beta mutation cause?

A

Thyroid hormone resistance (with high T4 and T3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does a thyrotropin receptor inactivating mutation cause?

A

Elevated TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Patient has:

  • Severe mental retardation
  • Congenital hypotonia progressing to spasticity
  • Family history of similar problems in the males
  • TFTs showing: normal TSH, lowish free T4 and high free T3 and total T3

Diagnosis?

A

Thyroid hormone transporter defect (X-linked)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What changes in TFTs do heparin and enoxaparin cause?

A

Increased free T4 but normal total T4

TSH is on the low side but normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What changes in TFTs does furosemide cause?

A

Very high doses can cause displacement of thyroid hormone from the binding proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What changes in TFTs does carbamazepine cause?

A

Low free T4 and total T4

TSH is normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What changes in TFTs does lithium cause?

A

Usually associated with hypothyroidism; and only occasionally hyperthyroidism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What changes in TFTs does estrogen cause?

A

Increase in total T3 and T4

Normal free T3 and T4 levels

36
Q

How do you distinguish Graves’ disease from beta-hCG induced hyperthyroidism during pregnancy?

A

TSH-receptor antibody testing

37
Q

In euthyroid sick syndrome is the TSH higher in the acute phase or when the patient is recovering?

A

When the patient is recovering.

38
Q

How is resistance to thyroid hormone inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant pattern

39
Q

If a mother has thyroid hormone resistance then does an affected fetus or a non-affected fetus have a better chance of survival?

A

Fetus with inherited thyroid hormone resistance has a better chance of survival.

40
Q

What is central compartment lymph node dissection in thyroid cancer resection associated with?

A

Higher rate of post-operative hyperparathyroidism

41
Q

Does central compartment lymph node dissection involve removing only abnormal-appearing lymph nodes?

A

No

42
Q

Do parathyroid cysts exist?

A

Yes

43
Q

What does the aspirate from a parathyroid cyst contain?

A

High levels of PTH

44
Q

What happens to the thyroglobulin level in Graves’ disease?

A

Normal levels

45
Q

What happens to the thyroglobulin level in thyroiditis?

A

Increased

46
Q

What should you consider when patient feels worse after getting levothyroxine for auto-immune hypothyroidism?

A

Adrenal insufficiency

47
Q

What do you have to worry about most with pancreatic diabetes?

A

Hypoglycemia

48
Q

Do you absolutely have to stop metformin if the creatinine is 1.4?

A

No

49
Q

Treatment with pioglitazone is associated with bone loss and increased fracture risk in women.

True or false?

A

True

50
Q

Screening for silent CAD frequently detects disease but does not improve clinical outcomes.

True or false?

A

True

51
Q

What is the difference between familial renal glucosuria and renal fanconi syndrome?

A

Famlial renal glucosuria just causes glucosuria, whereas renal fanconi syndrome has wasting of amino acids, glucose, phosphate, in addition to causing RTA and osteomalacia.

52
Q

GnRH deficiency syndrome is also called…

A

Normosmic idiopathic hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism (nIHH)

53
Q

Is the FSH level high or low in hypothalamic amenorrhea?

A

Low

54
Q

Is the LH level high or low in hypothalamic amenorrhea?

A

Low

55
Q

Is the estradiol level high or low in hypothalamic amenorrhea?

A

Low

56
Q

Is the prolactin level high or low in hypothalamic amenorrhea?

A

Prolactin level is normal

57
Q

What happens to gonadotrophin levels if testosterone is raised by exogenous testosterone?

A

They are suppressed

58
Q

What is an important extra-gonadal manifestation of Kallman’s syndrome caused by KAL1 mutation?

A

Renal agenesis (do an abdominal ultrasound)

59
Q

What kind of hypogonadism does Klinefelter’s syndrome cause - primary or secondary?

A

Primary

60
Q

Is GnRH therapy better or gonadotrophin therapy better for fertility induction in men with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (pituitary disease)?

A

Gonadotropin (FSH and LH) therapy

61
Q

Does exogenous testosterone cause testicular enlargement in pre-pubertal boys?

A

No

62
Q

What does diabetes mellitus do to SHBG levels?

A

Decreases them

63
Q

What do systemic corticosteroids do to SHBG levels?

A

Decreases them

64
Q

What is Reifenstein syndrome?

A

Partial androgen insensitivity

65
Q

Patient has:

  • Hypospadias
  • Gynecomastia
  • Elevated testosterone levels

Diagnosis?

A

Partial androgen insensitivity

66
Q

Do patients with Klinefelter syndrome have hypospadias?

A

No

67
Q

5 alpha-reductase deficiency (type 2) is diagnosed by an increased ratio of serum testosterone to dihydrotestosterone that is significantly greater than the _____ ratio seen in normal men.

A

10:1

68
Q

Do 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors significantly raise testosterone levels?

A

No

69
Q

Can hepatitis C cause high SHBG and total testosterone levels?

A

Yes

70
Q

Should the hypothalmic-pituitary-gonadal axis be checked during an acute flare of chronic illness?

A

No

71
Q

What happens to the PSA level in patients with 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors?

A

Decreases PSA

72
Q

Should pre-pubertal boys who are hypogonadal with consitutional delay be treated with adult doses of testosterone?

A

No.
They need to be treated with lower doses of testosterone to avoid pre-mature closure of epiphyses and decreased adult height.

73
Q

Exercise blunts counter-regulatory response to hypoglycemia.

True or false?

A

True

74
Q

Exercise induced hypoglycemia can be delayed up to _____ hour after exercise.

A

8 - 12

75
Q

Do pancreas only transplants have a higher survival rate than pancreas and kidney transplants, or pancreas after kidney transplant?

A

No

76
Q

Does decline in renal function after pancreas transplant affect the decision to go ahead with the transplant?

A

No

77
Q

Why would a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus have orthostatic hypotension?

A

Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy

78
Q

Can acute anemic anemia worsen diabetic retinopathy?

A

Yes - it can cause retinal hypoxia.

79
Q

What is dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Chronic skin condition with fluid-filled blisters associated with Celiac disease.

80
Q

If a patient with a prolactinoma wants to get pregnant then how long is the cabergoline continued for if her prolactin level is normal?

A

Until she gets pregnant.

81
Q

What should you do if there is a discrepancy between the adenoma size and prolactin level?

A

Repeat the MRI scan

82
Q

Can bromocriptine therapy treat acromegaly?

A

In less than 10% of cases so it is not usually used.

83
Q

Is cabergoline effective for TSH-omas?

A

No

84
Q

Is temozolomide effective for TSH-omas?

A

No

85
Q

Patient has hypercalcemia and pituitary adenoma - what is the diagnosis?

A

MEN1

86
Q

What shows up as pituitary stalk thickening on MRI?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

87
Q

How does a craniopharyngioma show up on a pituitary MRI?

A

As a mass lesion

ABIM - Endocrinology (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions