Endocrine and Metabolic Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Which hypoglycaemic agents are indicated in patients at risk of/with established CVD or CCF?

A

SGT2 inhibitor (e.g. dapagliflozin)

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2
Q

Which hypoglycaemic agents are indicated in patients with low risk of CVD or CCF?

A

DPP-4 inhibitors (e.g. sitagliptin, saxagliptin, linagliptin, and alogliptin)
TZDs (Pioglitazone)
Sulphonylureas (e.g. Gliclazide, glipizide)

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3
Q

Which side effects are associated with sulfonylureas (e.g. gliclazide)?

A

Hypoglycaemia
Weight gain
GI upset
Hypersensitivity

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4
Q

Which side effects are associated with incretin analogues (e.g. exanatide)?

A

Weight loss
Reduced hepatic fat accumulation
Hypoglycaemia
Nausea

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5
Q

Which side effects are associated with pioglitazone?

A

Weight gain
Fluid retention

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6
Q

What are the contraindications of pioglitazone?

A

CCF
Bladder cancer
Liver impairmentW

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7
Q

Which hypoglycaemic drug should be given if Q Risk score > 10%?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

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8
Q

Which disorder is phaeochromocytoma associated with?

A

MEN II

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9
Q

Which investigation is used to diagnose pheochromocytoma?

A

24 hour urinary metanephrines

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10
Q

Which metabolic abnormality is seen in Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis

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11
Q

Which TFT pattern is seen in thyrotoxicosis (e.g. Grave’s disease)?

A

Low TSH
High free T4

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12
Q

Which biochemical pattern is seen in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

High calcium
Low phosphate
High/normal PTH

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13
Q

Which biochemical pattern is seen in secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Chronic disease (e.g. CKD)

Low calcium
High phosphate
Compensatory increased PTH

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14
Q

Which biochemical pattern is seen in tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Parathyroid hyperplasia

High calcium
High PTH

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15
Q

How is primary hyperparathyroidism treated?

A

Total parathyroidectomy

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16
Q

Which investigations are diagnostic in T1DM?

A

Low C peptide
Anti - GAD (80%)
Islet cell antibodies (70-80%)
Insulin autoantibodies (IAA)

17
Q

What are the caused of primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Bilateral idiopathic hyperplasia (60-70% of cases)
Adrenal adenoma
Unilateral hyperplasia
Familial hyperaldosteronism
Adrenal carcinoma

18
Q

How is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia treated?

A

Spironolactone

19
Q

Which fasting glucose level is diagnostic of T2DM?

A

> = 7.0 mmol/l

20
Q

Which random glucose level is diagnostic of T2DM?

A

> = 11.1 mmol/l

21
Q

What is a normal fasting glucose?

A

<=6.0 mmol/l

22
Q

Which HbA1c level is diagnostic of T2DM?

A

> = 48 mol/mol

23
Q

Define impaired fasting glucose

A

> =6.1 mmol/l but < 7.0 mmol/l

24
Q

Define impaired glucose tolerance

A

Plasma glucose <7.0 mmol/l

AND

OGTT at 2 hours >= 7.8 mmol/l but < 11.1 mmol/l

25
Q

How is suspected Addison’s disease diagnosed?

A

Short Synacthen test

26
Q

Which metabolic abnormalities are seen in Addison’s disease?

A

Raised K+
Low Na+
Low glucose
Metabolic acidosis

27
Q

How is myxoedema coma managed?

A

IV thyroid replacement
IV fluids
IV steroids
Electrolyte imbalance correction

28
Q

What can cause hypothyroidism?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Riedels
Iodine deficiency
Lithium
Subacute thyroidits

29
Q

How is thyroid replacement therapy monitored?

A

TSH - aim for 0.5 -2.5 mU/l

30
Q

How is plasma osmolality calculated?

A

2Na+ + Urea + Glucose

31
Q

Which is the commonest thyroid cancer?

A

Papillary carcinoma

32
Q

How is acromegaly investigated?

A

IGF-1

33
Q

What is the commonest cause of hypercalcaemia?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

34
Q

Which drug is used to treat galactorrhea?

A

Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)

35
Q

Which conditions can cause lower-than-expected levels of HbA1c?

A

Sickle-cell anaemia
GP6D deficiency
Hereditary spherocytosis
Haemodialysis

(Due to reduced RBC lifespan)

36
Q
A