Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preferred method of thyroid replacement therapy?

A

Levothyroxine (T4) Don’t forget, T4 is a prohormone. T3 is the active hormone.

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2
Q

Liothyronine is what?

A

T3 replacement

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3
Q

Liotrix is what?

A

Combination treatment of thyroid replacement.

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4
Q

Primary hypothyroidism is a result of what?

A

Problem with the thyroid gland itself

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5
Q

In primary hypothyroidism, what are the levels of TSH and T3, T4 like?

A

High TSH levels, low T3 and T4

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6
Q

Secondary hypothyroidism is a result of what?

A

Problem with the pituitary gland – decreased levels of TSH as a result.

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7
Q

What is the third way one can have hypothyroidism?

A

Hypothalamus doesn’t secrete enough TRH.

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8
Q

When do pts treated with T4 usually improve?

A

2 weeks (complete recovery can take months for severe cases)

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9
Q

When are steady state TSH concentrations achieved in thyroid replacement therapy?

A

at least 6 weeks

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10
Q

Thyroid preparations increase the metabolism of _______.

A

VItamin K-dependent clotting factors.

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11
Q

True or false: mineral supplements can bind with thyroid replacement therapy agents and hinder absorption.

A

True.

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12
Q

True or False: Thyroid preparations require an alkaline gastirc pH for optimal absorption.

A

False. They require normal gastric acid secretion, so PPIs affect absorption.

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13
Q

True or false: oral hypoglycemic agents may need adjustment when taking thyroid preparations.

A

True

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14
Q

What is the most common presentation of hyperthyroidism? What are the levels of TSH, T3, and T4 like?

A

Grave’s disease. Low TSH, high T3, T4

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15
Q

Diarrhea, flushing, increased appetite, muscle weakness, fatigue, irritability, heart palpitations… clinical manifestations of what??

A

Hyperthyroidism

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16
Q

Popythiouracil (PTU) and Methimazole are agents for the treatment of what?

A

They are anti-thyroid drugs for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. They work by inhibiting the incorporation of iodine into the thyroid hormones.

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17
Q

PTU has the added ability to do what?

A

Inhibit the conversion of T4 into T3 in peripheral circulation.

18
Q

Warfarin, beta blockers, digoxin, and theophylline are the drug-drug interactions for what?

A

Anti-thyroid drugs

19
Q

Parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of what two things?

A

Calcium and phosphorus

20
Q

Elevated levels of PTH cause changes in the function of renal cells, bone cells, and GI tract mucosa. This leads to what electrolyte abnormality and results in what disease?

A

Hypercalcemia. Also, bone breakdown is increased. This is from HYPERPARATHYROIDISM.

21
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism is associated with what?

A

Low calcium; calcium or vitamin D deficiency, chronic kidney disease.

22
Q

True or false: Vitamin D is a prohormone.

A

True (1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D is the active form)

23
Q

What is an analog of fat-soluble vitamin D?

A

1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D (the active form, also known as calcitrol)

24
Q

What is the preferred vitamin D analog for daily supplementation?

A

Cholecalciferol (vitamin D3). Considered 2-3x more potent than ergocalciferol (vitamin D2).

25
Q

What other drug may be used to supplement vitamin D therapies?

A

Thiazide diuretics (work on DCT to decrease calcium excretion in urine)

26
Q

What hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary?

A

Vasopressin and Oxytocin.

27
Q

Insufficient secretion of vasopressin leads to _______, while oversecretion leads to ________.

A

diabetes insipidus, SIADH.

28
Q

What hormone can only be given in parenteral formulations?

A

Vasopressin

29
Q

What drug increases plasma levels of von Willebrand factor, factor VIII, and tPA, contributing to a shortened bleeding time and aPTT? (good news for hemophiliacs!)

A

Desmopressin

30
Q

Primary nocturnal enuresis and diabetes insipidus (as well as hemophilia) are treated with what?

A

Desmopressin

31
Q

What does the adrenal cortex secrete?

A

Aldosterone and cortisol

32
Q

What does the adrenal medulla secrete?

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

33
Q

Glucose metabolism (stimulating gluconeogensis), lipolysis, and fetal development, as well as potent inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties, are a result of what?

A

Glucocorticoids.

34
Q

Increased appetite, insomnia, mood alterations, stress ulcers, acne, hypertension, and hyperglycemia

A

Short term adverse effects from systemic corticosteroid use

35
Q

Cushing’s syndrome, immunosuppression, adrenal suppression, delayed wound healing, growth suppression, osteoporosis

A

Long Term adverse effects from systemic corticosteroid use

36
Q

True or false: Corticosteroids should be taken in the morning without food.

A

False: morning WITH food.

37
Q

Pts at high risk for infection, hypertension, heart failure, and renal failure should avoid what drug?

A

Corticosteroids.

38
Q

When is adrenal suppression (suppression of HPA axis) with corticosteroids a threat?

A

When they are administered longer than 2 weeks.

39
Q

What drug has an adverse effect of hypokalemia and is used to replace aldosterone?

A

Fludrocortisone

40
Q

What drug competitively inhibits aldosterone leading to less potassium loss in the urine?

A

Aldosterone antagonists

41
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Acts in collecting ducts and induces expression of Na/K exchangers. Na enters tubular cells, K is lost in the urine.