Endocrine Flashcards

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1
Q

A nurse is caring for a male Muslim client. The nurse and the provider discuss the importance of having a male provider care for the client. This discussion represents which of the following foundational critical care competencies?

a. The ability to collaborate as a team member
b. The ability to act as a charge nurse
c. The ability to insert an endotracheal tube
d. The ability to precept another nurse

A

a. The ability to collaborate as a team member

The ability to work in a team is an important foundational competency for a critical care nurse.

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2
Q

A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who has manifestations of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS).
Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options.

Diagnostic Results
Today, 1030:
Chest x-ray results indicate pneumonia in right lower lobe.

Nurses’ Notes
Yesterday, 1200:
Client alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Lungs clear to auscultation. S1, S2, no murmur. Abdomen soft, nontender, bowel sounds present in all 4 quadrants. Skin color appropriate for race and ethnicity, moist mucous membranes.
Today, 0945:
Client to transfer from medical surgical unit to critical care unit. Client lethargic and not oriented to person, place, or time. Lung fields demonstrate crackles in right lower lobe. S1, S2, no murmur. Abdomen soft, slightly distended, nontender, bowel sounds present in all 4 quadrants. Skin pale, dry mucous membranes.
1020:
Transferred to critical care unit. Client lethargic and not oriented to person, place, or time. Lung fields demonstrate crackles in right lower lobe. S1, S2, no murmur. Abdomen soft, slightly distended, nontender, bowel sounds present in all 4 quadrants. Skin pale, dry mucous membranes.

Vital Signs
Yesterday, 0900:
Blood pressure 106/78 mm Hg
Heart rate 88/min
Respiratory rate 14/min
Temperature 37° C (98.6° F)
Oxygen saturations 97% on room air
Today, 1030:
Blood pressure 101/72 mm Hg
Heart rate 112/min
Respiratory rate 20/min
Temperature 37.9° C (100.2° F)
Oxygen saturation 95% on room air

Laboratory Results
Yesterday, 0900:
Serum glucose 404 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)
Today, 0900:
Serum glucose 675 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)
Ketones: present in urine (none)

A

The nurse should anticipate prescriptions for __________________ and _______________.

When generating solutions for a client who is experiencing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS), the nurse should anticipate a prescription for a large-bore IV catheter, such as a 16-gauge or 18-gauge for administration of an isotonic solution such as 0.9% sodium chloride IV 15 mL/kg over 1 hr. Clients who are experiencing HHS should receive an initial IV infusion of isotonic fluids such as 0.9% sodium chloride to increase intravascular volume, and many clients who have HHS respond favorably to isotonic fluids alone without administration of IV insulin.

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3
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about exercise with a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a. “I will carry a complex carbohydrate snack with me when I exercise.”
b. “I should exercise first thing in the morning before eating breakfast.”
c. “I should avoid injecting insulin into my thigh if I am going to go running.”
d. “I will increase the intensity of my exercise routine if my urine is positive for ketones.”

A

c. “I should avoid injecting insulin into my thigh if I am going to go running.”

The nurse should reinforce that the client should avoid injecting insulin into an area that will soon be exercised to avoid increasing the absorption rate of the insulin.

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4
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the manifestations of hyperglycemia with a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a. “I might experience blurry vision at times.”
b. “I will be more thirsty than usual.”
c. “My breath may have a fruity odor.”
d. “My appetite will be decreased.”

A

b. “I will be more thirsty than usual.”

This statement indicates the client understands the teaching as increased thirst is a manifestation of hyperglycemia.

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5
Q

A nurse is providing care for an older adult client who has diabetes insipidus (DI). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following neurologic effects?

a. Dilute urine
b. Poor skin turgor
c. Ataxia
d. Hypotension

A

c. Ataxia

Ataxia (uncoordinated gait) is a neurologic effect of DI and includes increased thirst and, if dehydration persists or worsens, irritability and decreased cognition.

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6
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has neutropenia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

a. Eat plenty of fresh fruits and vegetables. b. Avoid crowded places.
c. Participate in gardening for mild exercise.
d. Take temperature weekly.

A

b. Avoid crowded places.

The nurse should inform the client to avoid crowds due to a suppressed immune system.

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7
Q

The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of diabetic management education with a client who had been recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

Plan of Care
3 months ago:
History of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, obesity, metabolic syndrome
Initiate metformin 500 mg po twice daily. Referral to diabetic education nurse for client education on blood glucose monitoring, nutrition, and exercise. Follow-up in 3 months.

Laboratory Results
3 months ago:
Random blood glucose 297 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)
Glycosylated hemoglobin 8.2% (4% to 5.9%)

Nurses’ Notes
3 months ago:
Diabetic education session/nutrition consult
Education provided to client:
Demonstration of insulin administration
Discussion of use of a sliding scale, dosing, and schedule of ordered doses.
Etiology and pathophysiology of the disorder
Food journaling
Foot care and other diabetes preventative care
How to count carbs; long-term effects of uncontrolled diabetes (neuropathy, blindness, peripheral artery disease (PAD), cardiac/renal disease)
Expected labs and necessary follow-up appointments with endocrinologist
Clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia
When to seek emergency medical attention
Today:
Client reports the following:
“I got myself a medical alert bracelet to wear (shows nurse the bracelet on their wrist).”
“I hope that one day I can stop using insulin and maintain this with proper diet and exercise.”
“I can eat as many carbs as I want, I just need to adjust my sliding scale insulin when I do so.”
“If I am feeling sick and cannot eat, I may need to adjust or hold my insulin, so I do not let my sugar go too low.”
“I only need to check my blood sugar when I am symptomatic.”

Assessment
3 months ago:
Neuro: Alert and oriented x3; complains of occasional blurred vision for the last 3 months or so
Cardiac: S1S2 present; regular; capillary refill of 3 seconds
Respiratory: Lung sounds clear x5 lobes
Abdomen: Rounded, soft, non-tender; bowel sounds absent
Extremities: All extremities warm, pulse sites +2 (radial, pedal)
Client still reporting increased thirst, drinking 12 glasses of water and diet soda daily, and frequent urination, especially at night (client reports waking up multiple times throughout the night).
Weight 143.6.kg (315.9 lb)
Today:
Neuro: Alert and oriented x3; complains of occasional blurred vision for the last 3 months or so
Cardiac: S1S2 present; regular; capillary refill of 3 seconds
Respiratory: Lung sounds clear x5 lobes
Abdomen: Rounded, soft, non-tender; bowel sounds absent
Extremities: All extremities warm, pulse sites, regular, +2 (radial, pedal)
Skin: 2-inch laceration noted on sole of left foot near big toe; client was unaware of this wound; sensation diminished in toes in both extremities
Client reports increased thirst, drinking 12 glasses of water and soda daily, and frequent urination, especially at night (client reports continuing to wake up multiple times throughout the night).

Select the “3” education topics requiring further teaching.

a. Medical alert bracelet
b. Foot care
c. Sick day alterations
d. Insulin dosing for increased carbohydrate intake
e. Frequency of blood sugar monitoring

A

b. Foot care
d. Insulin dosing for increased carbohydrate intake
e. Frequency of blood sugar monitoring

When evaluating outcomes of client education, the nurse must identify key aspects of client knowledge and understanding in regard to health care management in order to determine if further teaching is necessary. The client demonstrated adequate understanding of the need for a medical alert bracelet and that times of illness may require an alteration in insulin dosing. The client did not understand that increasing insulin doses just to take in as many carbohydrates as they wanted can increase obesity and other obesity-related diseases. Additionally, the client did not understand that they will need to monitor their blood glucose levels daily (before meals and at bedtime) instead of just when they experience symptoms of hypo- or hyperglycemia, when it may be too late. Furthermore, the client is likely not performing daily foot care since they were unaware of the laceration on their foot due to decreased sensation in their toes.

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8
Q

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is undergoing his initial peritoneal dialysis treatment. Which of the following findings is the nurse’s priority?

a. Dialysate inflow causing discomfort
b. Blood-tinged dialysate during outflow
c. Dialysate leakage during inflow
d. Purulent dialysate outflow

A

d. Purulent dialysate outflow

When using the urgent vs. nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse determines that the priority finding for this client is purulent dialysate outflow. Peritonitis is an inflammation of the peritoneum and a major complication of peritoneal dialysis. Manifestations of peritonitis include cloudy dialysate outflow, fever, nausea, and vomiting. If untreated, the client can become severely ill, progressing to bacterial septicemia and hypovolemic shock. Peritonitis can be prevented with meticulous site care. The nurse and client should wear a mask when accessing the catheter. Strict aseptic technique should be used when connecting and disconnecting the catheter.

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9
Q

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client being discharged to home following radioactive iodine (radioiodine) therapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse initiate?

a. Information on reducing risk of exposure to others
b. Instruction on management of the wound
c. Instructions on monitoring for the signs/symptoms of hypocalcemia
d. Education on thyroid storm symptoms

A

a. Information on reducing risk of exposure to others

Radioiodine therapy requires implementation of radiation safety measures. The nurse provides instruction to the client on how to reduce the risk of exposure to others before being discharged home.

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10
Q

A nurse is caring for a female client.

Physical Examination
Client reports an increase in appetite and a 3.6-kg (8-lb) weight loss over a 4-week period. Client has bilateral exophthalmos and reports blurred vision.
Client reports heart palpitations, apical heart rate is rapid and regular.
Client reports two to three bowel movements per day, increased fatigue, difficulty concentrating, and insomnia.

Vital Signs
Temperature 38.1° C (100.6° F)
Blood pressure 168/70 mm Hg
Heart rate 110/min
Respiratory rate 24/min
Oxygen saturation 95% on room air

Diagnostic Results
Fasting blood glucose 150 mg/dL (expected reference range 70 to 110 mg/dL)
Serum T3 220 ng/dL (expected reference range 70 to 205 ng/dL)
Serum T4 (total) 20 mcg/dL (expected reference range 5 to 12 mcg/dL)
Hct 38% (expected reference range 37% to 47%)

Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to collect data about the client’s progress.

A

The nurse should offer the client a diet high in calories and provide a calm environment for the client because the client is most likely experiencing hyperthyroidism. The nurse should monitor the client’s T3 and T4 to identify worsening of the client’s hyperthyroidism and check the client’s temperature and blood pressure frequently to monitor for manifestations of thyroid storm.

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11
Q

A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

a. Provide frequent small snacks.
b. Ambulate the client twice daily.
c. Monitor urine output hourly.
d. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hr.

A

c. Monitor urine output hourly.

The nurse should recognize that the client who has pancreatitis is at increased risk for acute kidney injury resulting from decreased cardiac output. This manifests as a urine output of less than 30 mL/hr, which should be reported to the provider.

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12
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperparathyroidism. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

a. Impaired skin integrity
b. Fluid retention
c. Pathologic fractures
d. Dysphagia

A

c. Pathologic fractures

Hyperparathyroidism results in the release of calcium and phosphate into the blood, which decreases bone density and places the client at risk for pathologic fractures.

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13
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a graduating nurse about fluid volume deficit. Which of the following concepts about water balance should the nurse explain to the graduating nurse?

a. A negative fluid balance occurs when the body takes in more water than the body needs.
b. The intracellular space contains most of the body’s water.
c. A fluid volume deficit inhibits baroreceptors.
d. When the body loses water, the intracellular space experiences the water loss.

A

b. The intracellular space contains most of the body’s water.

The intracellular space contains most of the total body water (TBW) and, as such, is prone to experiencing the greatest water deficit.

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14
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the instructions?

a. “I’ll wear sandals in warm weather.”
b. “I’ll put lotion between my toes.”
c. “I’ll check my feet every day for sores and bruises.”
d. “I’ll soak my feet in warm, soapy water every night before I go to bed.”

A

c. “I’ll check my feet every day for sores and bruises.”

The client should check his feet daily to monitor for any problems and observe any other changes before they become serious. He can use a hand mirror to examine areas that are difficult for him to see.

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15
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a group of clients about common findings that can indicate cancer. The nurse should instruct the clients to monitor for and report which of the following findings? (Select all that apply.)

a. Nagging cough
b. Unilateral calf tenderness
c. A nonhealing sore
d. Change in bowel pattern
e. Unintended weight gain

A

a. Nagging cough
c. A nonhealing sore
d. Change in bowel pattern

A nonhealing sore is correct. A client who has cancer might exhibit a nonhealing sore.
Unintended weight gain is incorrect. The nurse should instruct the clients that unintended weight loss can indicate cancer.
Change in bowel pattern is correct. A client who has cancer might exhibit a change in bowel pattern.
Unilateral calf tenderness is incorrect. A client who has unilateral calf tenderness can have a venous thromboembolism.
Nagging cough is correct. A client who has cancer might exhibit a nagging cough.

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16
Q

A nurse is caring for a chronically ill client who states that they have been under a lot of stress since being diagnosed with cancer. Which of the following laboratory findings would indicate the body’s appropriate response to stress by regulating hormones for glucose and fluid distribution?

a. Decreased testosterone hormone level.
b. Increased progesterone hormone level.
c. Increased corticosteroid hormone level.
d. Decreased luteinizing hormone level.

A

c. Increased corticosteroid hormone level.

Corticosteroid hormones are released during times of stress to regulate glucose use and fluid distribution.

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17
Q

A nurse is planning care for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and is scheduled for joint replacement surgery. Which of the following considerations should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. The client will be less able to handle temperature changes.
b. The client may need more time to feel the effects of pain medication.
c. The client’s blood glucose levels may fluctuate more severely.
d. The client is at higher risk for developing loss of bone density

A

c. The client’s blood glucose levels may fluctuate more severely.

Stressors, such as surgery, can affect the blood glucose balance of a client with type 1 diabetes more severely.

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18
Q

A nurse in a provider’s office is collecting data from a client who has hypothyroidism. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

a. Blurred vision
b. Moist skin
c. Bradycardia
d. Insomnia

A

c. Bradycardia

Reduced thyroid hormone levels (hypothyroidism) reduce the body’s metabolic rate and thus slow down various body functions. Bradycardia reflects slowed cardiovascular function.

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19
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about glucose monitoring with a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

a. “I will check my urine once a day for glucose.”
b. “I will notify my provider if preprandial glucose is more than 120 mg/dL.”
c. “I will check blood glucose every 4 hours when I am sick.”
d. “I will check blood glucose 20 minutes after I treat a hypoglycemic episode.”

A

c. “I will check blood glucose every 4 hours when I am sick.”

The client should follow specific guidelines when sick, including checking the blood glucose every 4 hr, or every 2 hr if illness is severe. Extra insulin can be required to keep the glucose below 200 mg/dL, and the provider can inform the client of adjustments to make.

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20
Q

A nurse is reviewing teaching with a client who has osteoarthritis and is to start taking celecoxib. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for and report to the provider?

a. Tinnitus
b. Dry mouth
c. Polyuria
d. Tarry stools

A

d. Tarry stools

The nurse should inform the client that celecoxib can cause gastrointestinal bleeding. The client should watch for and report black, dark-colored, or bloody stools, abdominal pain, or coffee-ground emesis. The client should also take celecoxib with food to reduce gastric irritation.

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21
Q

A nurse is assisting with the care of an older adult client who is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for with of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a. A decrease in the skin elasticity
b. A decrease in medication efficacy
c. An increase in metabolism
d. A decrease in kidney function
e. An increase in cardiac output

A

a. A decrease in the skin elasticity
d. A decrease in kidney function

A decrease in kidney function is correct. This is a surgical risk the nurse should be aware of. Older adults have a risk for complications that is three times higher than that of younger adult.
A decrease in the skin elasticity is correct. Older adults have a decrease in skin elasticity. This is a surgical risk the nurse should be aware of.
A decrease in medication efficacy is incorrect. Older adults have an increase in medication efficacy. A decline in cardiac, renal, or liver function can delay the metabolism or excretion of medications.
An increase in metabolism is incorrect. Older adults have a decrease in metabolism. A decline in cardiac, renal, or liver function can delay the metabolism or excretion of medications.
An increase in cardiac output is incorrect. Older adults have a decreased cardiac output. A decline in cardiac output can delay the metabolism or excretion of medications.

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22
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and reports blurred vision, numbness in feet, and has had a wound on the right leg for the last 2 months. The clinic nurse notes that the client’s Hemoglobin A1C is 8.1%. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?

a. “The symptoms you are experiencing, along with the elevated Hemoglobin A1C, mean that you’ll have to start taking insulin.”
b. “The symptoms you are experiencing, along with the elevated Hemoglobin A1C, mean that your blood sugar level has had too many highs and lows.”
c. “The symptoms you are experiencing, along with the elevated Hemoglobin A1C, mean that you have been exercising too much.”
d. “The symptoms you are experiencing, along with the elevated Hemoglobin A1C, mean that your blood sugar level has been too high.”

A

d. “The symptoms you are experiencing, along with the elevated Hemoglobin A1C, mean that your blood sugar level has been too high.”

Blurred vision, numbness in feet, a non-healing wound, and an elevated Hemoglobin A1C indicate that the average blood glucose level has been too high.

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23
Q

A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has hypertension and chronic kidney disease. The client is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take while caring for this client? (Select all that apply.)

a. Administer a sedative to the client.
b. Check the graft site for a palpable thrill.
c. Verify the glomerular filtration rate.
d. Document vital signs.
e. Obtain the client’s weight.

A

b. Check the graft site for a palpable thrill.
d. Document vital signs.
e. Obtain the client’s weight.

Document vital signs is correct. The client’s vital signs should be taken and documented prior to dialysis for baseline data. The client’s blood pressure, in particular, should be monitored prior to, during, and after dialysis due to the potential for hypotension during and after the treatment. If the blood pressure drops too low, an infusion of intravenous normal saline may be required to replace fluid volume and restore the blood pressure.
Obtain the client’s weight is correct. Hemodialysis shunts the client’s blood from the body through a dialyzer and back into the client’s circulation. During hemodialysis, the blood is passed through the dialysis machine to remove waste products and excess fluid. The amount of fluid to be removed is determined by the client’s weight immediately prior to dialysis. The client’s dry weight, which is determined by the provider, is subtracted from the weight immediately prior to the start of dialysis. For example, if the dry weight is 70 kg (154.32 lb) and the current weight is 72 kg (158.73 lb), the dialysis machine is programmed to remove 2 kg (4.4 lb), or 2 L (0.5 gal) of fluid.
Verify the glomerular filtration rate is incorrect. End-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is a progressive, irreversible kidney disease. End-stage kidney disease, also known as end-stage renal failure (ESRD), exists when 90% of the functioning nephrons have been destroyed and are no longer able to maintain fluid, electrolyte, or acid-base homeostasis. This means the kidneys are no longer able to sustain life, and the client will die if dialysis is not initiated. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is used to determine the severity of kidney damage. The GFR is expected to be greater than 90 mL/min. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is comprised of five stages: Stage 1, minimal kidney damage with normal GFR; Stage 2, mild kidney damage with mildly decreased GFR; Stage 3, moderate kidney damage with a moderate decrease in GFR; Stage 4, severe kidney damage with a severe decrease in GFR; and Stage 5, kidney failure and end-stage kidney disease with little or no glomerular filtration and renal replacement therapy required. Glomerular filtration rate is an indicator of renal function and is checked to evaluate how well the kidneys are working. Because ESKD is irreversible, it is not necessary to check the GFR prior to dialysis because the GFR level in these clients is elevated and will remain that way unless a renal transplantation is performed.
Administer a sedative is incorrect. The client is awake during hemodialysis and is a painless procedure for the client. Therefore, a sedative is not needed.
Check the graft site for a palpable thrill is correct. Hemodialysis requires access to the client’s blood by way of a graft, arteriovenous (AV) fistula, or central venous access device. The nurse should check patency of the access site (presence of bruit, palpable thrill, distal pulses, and circulation). This ensures vascular flow and proper functioning of the graft prior to the dialysis procedure. If a thrill is not found, this can indicate the graft has clotted and hemodialysis will not be possible. This would need to be reported to the provider. Measures to protect the graft include avoiding taking blood pressure, administering injections, performing venipuncture, or inserting IV lines on an extremity with an access site.

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24
Q

A nurse is discussing the care of a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following situations should the nurse instruct the AP to report immediately?

a. The client reports dizziness when standing.
b. The client refuses breakfast and requests to sleep.
c. The client asks the AP to trim his broken toenail.
d. The client reports urine that is dark yellow in color.

A

b. The client refuses breakfast and requests to sleep.

The greatest risk to this client is hypoglycemia which could be caused by the client’s refusal to eat and request to sleep. Therefore, the AP should report this situation to the nurse immediately.

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25
Q

A nurse is reinforcing education about insulin management with a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the nurse about injection site selection is accurate?

a. “Injections will work most quickly when given in the abdomen.”
b. “Injections will work most quickly when given in the thigh.”
c. “Injections will work most quickly when given in the upper arm.”
d. “Injections will work most quickly when given in the buttocks.”

A

a. “Injections will work most quickly when given in the abdomen.”

Abdomen, upper arms, thighs, and buttocks are all acceptable injection sites. Injections will work most quickly when given in the abdomen.

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26
Q

A nurse is caring for a client in the clinic.

History and Physical
49-year-old client
Height 161.5 cm (63 in)
Weight 76 kg (167.6 lb)

Laboratory Results
12 months ago:
T4 12 mcg/mL (4 to 12 mcg/mL)
TSH 0.9 mcg/mL (0.3 to 5 mcg/mL)
Today:
T4 3.2 mcg/mL (4 to 12 mcg/mL)
TSH 6 mcg/mL (0.3 to 5 mcg/mL)

Assessment
12 months ago:
Client reports no concerns at annual physical exam.
Review of systems within normal limits.
Today:
Attempted to diet but has gained 11.3 kg (24.9 lb) in the last 6 months.
Reports sleeping 14 to 16 hr per day and constantly feeling cold.
Slight enlargement noted in the neck area; coarse textured hair and dry skin

For each client finding, click to specify if the client finding is associated with hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism. Each finding may fall under more than 1 column.

Assessment Finding
TSH level
T4 level
Client’s weight
Skin assessment
Energy Level
Client’s temperature tolerance
Neck assessment

A

When analyzing cues for a client experiencing hypothyroidism, the nurse will need to inquire about dry skin, voice changes, hair loss, constipation, fatigue, muscle cramps, cold intolerance, sleep disturbances, menstrual cycle abnormalities, weight gain, and galactorrhea. Serum TSH level is used to screen for primary hypothyroidism in most clients. In overt hypothyroidism, TSH levels are elevated and free T4 levels are low. In subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels are elevated and free T4 levels are normal.
The client’s lab work shows a decrease in their T4 level from 12 mcg/mL to 3.2 mcg/mL, and TSH level from 0.9 mcg/mL to 6 mcg/mL from their visit 12 months ago. The client is also experiencing a weight gain of 11.3 kg (24.9 lb), reports sleeping 14 to 16 hr per day, has dry skin, and is always cold. These all indicate hypothyroidism.

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27
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has a history of Addison’s disease. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor?

a. Hypernatremia
b. Hypotension
c. Bradycardia
d. Hypokalemia

A

b. Hypotension

The client who has Addison’s disease is at risk for developing Addisonian crisis following a major physiological stressor such as surgery. Manifestations such as hypotension and tachycardia, extreme weakness and a decrease in mental status are noted. Untreated, Addisonian crisis may result in death.

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28
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements from the client indicates to the nurse the teaching is effective?

a. “I will shake the insulin vial vigorously to mix.”
b. “I will freeze unopened insulin vials.”
c. “I should increase my insulin when I exercise.”
d. “I should inject the insulin into my abdominal area.”

A

d. “I should inject the insulin into my abdominal area.”

The client should give insulin injections in one anatomic area for consistent day-to-day absorption. The abdomen is the area for fastest absorption.

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29
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome. Which of the following statements by the nurse regarding treatment options is appropriate to include in the teaching?

a. “Inhalers are often used to treat metabolic syndrome.”
b. “Treatment will focus on lowering your blood pressure, cholesterol, and blood sugar.”
c. “There are no surgical treatments for metabolic syndrome.”
d. “Metabolic syndrome is easily treated with medications.”

A

b. “Treatment will focus on lowering your blood pressure, cholesterol, and blood sugar.”

Treatment of metabolic syndrome focuses on treating and preventing obesity. Lifestyle changes focused on weight loss, physical activity, smoking cessation, and a nourishing diet are often prescribed. Medications are used to treat elevated lipid levels, diabetes, and hypertension.

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30
Q

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Graves’ disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a. Polydipsia
b. Polyuria
c. Hirsutism
d. Goiter

A

d. Goiter

The nurse should expect to see a goiter in a client who has Graves’ disease.

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31
Q

An adult client newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus asks a nurse to explain how he developed the condition. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

a. Your body’s immune system has destroyed cells in your pancreas.
b. Your body doesn’t process glucose well.
c. Your body will continue producing too much insulin without medicine to counteract it.
d. Your body’s hemoglobin is not binding to the sugar you consume.

A

b. Your body doesn’t process glucose well.

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance, where insulin does not interact with glucose appropriately. As a result, the body makes more insulin, until it eventually loses the ability for insulin production.

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32
Q

A nurse is providing care for a client who has hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of HHS?

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Hypervolemia
c. Ketosis
d. Insulin resistance

A

d. Insulin resistance

Insulin resistance is a manifestation of HHS.

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33
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about preventing long-term complications of retinopathy and neuropathy with an older adult client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions is the most important for the nurse to include in the teaching?

a. “Plan to have an eye examination once per year.”
b. “Examine your feet carefully every day.”
c. “Wear closed-toed shoes daily.”
d. “Maintain stable blood glucose levels.”

A

d. “Maintain stable blood glucose levels.”

The greatest risk for the client is injury from hyperglycemia that contributes to neuropathic disease, microvascular complications, and risk factors for macrovascular complications. Therefore, the most important action is for the client to maintain stable blood glucose levels.

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34
Q

The nurse is discussing the epidemiology of type 2 diabetes mellitus with a group of nursing students. Which of the following statements is appropriate for the nurse to make?

a. More males are diagnosed than females with type 2 diabetes.
b. The incidence of new cases of type 2 diabetes is highest among adults over 68 years of age.
c. Prevalence of type 2 diabetes has steadily been decreasing over the last decade.
d. Most people diagnosed with diabetes mellitus have type 2 diabetes.

A

d. Most people diagnosed with diabetes mellitus have type 2 diabetes.

According to the CDC, 90 to 95% percent of people with diabetes mellitus in the United States have type 2 diabetes, and only about 5% have type 1 diabetes.

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35
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has hypoglycemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include about the regulation of blood glucose levels?

a. “Glycogenesis occurs in the pancreas when blood glucose levels fall.”
b. “The liver releases glucagon to regulate blood glucose levels.”
c. “The brain uses protein for energy if glucose levels fall too low.”
d. “The adrenal glands release epinephrine and norepinephrine to respond to low blood glucose.”

A

d. “The adrenal glands release epinephrine and norepinephrine to respond to low blood glucose.”

Hypoglycemia triggers the sympathetic nervous system to take action and causes the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones from the adrenal glands to raise blood glucose levels.

36
Q

A nurse is reinforcing preoperative teaching to a client who is undergoing total hip replacement surgery. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

a. “You will use a special soap to shower with the evening before your surgery.”
b. “Expect to remain in bed for at least the first 24 hours.”
c. “You will use a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine several times a day.”
d. “A heating pad will be used on the operative site to help reduce pain.”

A

a. “You will use a special soap to shower with the evening before your surgery.”

The nurse should instruct the client that the evening before the surgery, he will shower with a bacteriostatic soap to decrease the risk of infection in the new joint.

37
Q

A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a. Protruding eyeballs
b. Palpitations
c. Weight gain
d. Diaphoresis

A

c. Weight gain

The nurse should expect the client to experience weight gain caused by a decreased metabolic rate. The client may report anorexia and decreased dietary intake.

38
Q

A nurse is providing care for a 71-year-old client who has diabetes insipidus (DI) and is receiving treatment with desmopressin. Which of the following lab values is most important for the nurse to monitor?

a. Serum sodium levels
b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Serum calcium levels
d. Serum phosphate levels

A

a. Serum sodium levels

Clients older than 65 years of age who receive desmopressin for treatment of DI require monitoring of sodium levels more frequently than clients in younger age groups.

39
Q

A nurse is collecting data from the medical record of an older adult client and sees that the client is taking Amiodarone. The client ,has reported feeling frequently tired and unable to tolerate the heat. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?

a. Low blood glucose levels
b. Low thyroid hormone levels
c. Elevated thyroid hormone levels
d. Elevated blood glucose levels

A

c. Elevated thyroid hormone levels

Thyrotoxicosis or thyroid storm is caused by the effects of hyperthyroidism and can be caused by Amiodarone. If untreated it can lead to thyroid storm, which can be a serious condition for an older adult.

40
Q

A nurse is caring for several clients at a community clinic. Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

a. A 26-year-old female client who has never given birth
b. A client who does not get much sleep
c. A 40-year-old client with hypoglycemia
d. A client who has an autoimmune disorder

A

b. A client who does not get much sleep

Poor sleeping habits raise insulin levels and put a person at risk for developing type 2 diabetes.

41
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

a. Tolvaptan 30 mg PO twice daily
b. Sodium chloride tablets 1 g PO three times daily
c. Conivaptan hydrochloride 20 mg IV over 30 minutes STAT
d. Vasopressin 10 mcg PO daily

A

d. Vasopressin 10 mcg PO daily

Medications such as vasopressin increase the activity of ADH receptors, thus worsening SIADH.

42
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is scheduled for a blood test to measure her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Which of the following statements should the nurse give?

a. “This test measures the amount of thyroid hormone that attaches to a protein in your blood.”
b. “This test detects antithyroid antibodies in your blood.”
c. “This test measures the absorption of iodine and how it relates to the thyroid gland.”
d. “The test determines whether your thyroid gland is overactive, appropriately active, or underactive.”

A

d. “The test determines whether your thyroid gland is overactive, appropriately active, or underactive.”

This statement describes this test, which helps determine thyroid status and helps monitor the effectiveness and dosage of thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

43
Q

A nurse is collecting data from a client who has hypoparathyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a. Flaccid muscles
b. Numbness of the hands
c. Negative Chvostek’s sign
d. Hypercalcemia

A

b. Numbness of the hands

Numbness and tingling of the mouth or hands and feet results from associated hypocalcemia and are manifestations of hypoparathyroidism.

44
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has diabetes mellitus about the manifestations of hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

a. “I will feel shaky.”
b. “I will be more thirsty than usual.”
c. “My skin will be warm and moist.”
d. “My appetite will be decreased.”

A

a. “I will feel shaky.”

This statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching as feeling shaky is a manifestation of hypoglycemia.

45
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypomagnesemia following a myocardial infarction. The nurse should understand the client is at risk for which of the following findings?

a. Decreased urine output
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Ventricular fibrillation
d. Polydipsia

A

c. Ventricular fibrillation

Hypomagnesemia in a client who had a myocardial infarction places the client at increased risk for cardiac dysrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation.

46
Q

A client tells a nurse that she tested positive for a mutant BRCA-1 gene. The nurse should recognize that this finding increases the client’s risk for which of the following conditions?

a. Kidney disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Breast cancer
d. Ovarian cancer

A

c. Breast cancer

The presence of the BCRA-1 or BRCA-2 gene can be used to determine breast cancer risk. These genes are present in clients who have an inherited form of breast cancer; however, not all clients who develop breast cancer have this gene.

47
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 2 years ago. The client reports following the recommended diet and exercising four times per week. Which of the following findings indicates that the client’s beta cells are restoring normal function?

a. Fasting blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
b. Client reports smoking cessation
c. HbA1c = 5.6 %
d. Weight gain of 5 lb

A

c. HbA1c = 5.6 %

This is a normal HbA1c and indicates that the client’s blood glucose levels have been well-controlled over the last 3 months.

48
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed 15 units of NPH insulin to be administered at 0700. At which of the following times of day is most appropriate for the nurse plan to offer a snack?

a. 0730
b. 0900
c. 1230
d. 1500

A

d. 1500

Taking NPH insulin indicates that this client is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia about 8 hr after administration, in the middle of the peak action time. The nurse should plan to offer the client a snack during the middle of the afternoon between lunch and dinner to maintain the client’s blood glucose level.

49
Q

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has hyperparathyroidism. The nurse should expect which of the following findings?

a. Decreased calcium level
b. Increased magnesium level
c. Decreased parathyroid hormone level
d. Increased phosphate level

A

b. Increased magnesium level

The nurse should expect an increased magnesium level with a diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism.

50
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has recurrent kidney stones and a history of diabetes mellitus. The client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). The nurse should collect additional data about which of the following statements made by the client?

a. “I took a laxative yesterday.”
b. “I took my metformin before breakfast.”
c. “I haven’t had anything to eat or drink since last night.”
d. “The last time I voided it was painful.”

A

b. “I took my metformin before breakfast.”

The nurse should identify clients taking metformin are at risk for lactic acidosis when receiving contrast media. Additional data should be collected about this statement.

51
Q

A nurse is evaluating client laboratory findings. The nurse should identify that an increase in a client’s prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level can indicate which of the following conditions?

a. Increased testosterone production
b. Testicular torsion
c. Orchitis
d. Prostatitis

A

d. Prostatitis

The nurse should identify that an increased PSA indicates possible inflammation of the prostate, benign prostatic hyperplasia, or prostate cancer.

52
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who reports increased anxiety and nervousness, heat intolerance, and unintentional weight loss. Blood testing reveals decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), elevated thyroxine (T4), and elevated triiodothyronine (T3) levels. Which of the following vital sign abnormalities does the nurse anticipate?

a. Decreased body temperature
b. Slow respiratory rate
c. Hypotension
d. Tachycardia

A

d. Tachycardia

Laboratory results indicate hyperthyroidism. Increased heart rate and palpitations are common manifestations of hyperthyroidism.

53
Q

A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for a client who has hypothyroidism with myxedema. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. Check the client for weight loss.
b. Apply warm blankets.
c. Limit high-fiber foods.
d. Place the client on bedrest.

A

b. Apply warm blankets.

The nurse should apply warm blankets to the client because he may have cold intolerance related to hypothyroidism.

54
Q

A nurse on a medical surgical unit is assisting with the admission of a client from a provider’s office.

Vital Signs
Admission 1400:
Temperature 38.6° C (101.4° F)
Heart rate 118/min
Respiratory rate 26/min
Blood pressure 108/68 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 95% on room air

Nurses’ Notes
1400:
Client received to room; vital signs obtained.
Oriented to person, place, and time appears lethargic.
Skin is warm and dry. Decreased turgor. Dry mucous membranes.
Pulse is rapid, S1 S2 heard on auscultation. Pulses palpable.
Respirations unlabored. Rhonchi to right lung heard on auscultation, frequent nonproductive cough noted.
Bowel sounds present x 4 quadrants, denies diarrhea, vomiting, or abdominal pain.
Reports frequent urination with no difficulty.

Diagnostic Results
1600:
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
WBC count 11,500/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)
RBC count 5.8 (4.2 to 6.1)
Hemoglobin 17 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL)
Hematocrit 46% (37% to 52%)
Platelet count 160,000/mm3 (150,000 to 400,000/mm3)
Basic Metabolic Profile (BMP)
Sodium 147 mEq/L (136 to 145 mEq/L)
Potassium 4.2 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
Glucose 780 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)
BUN 22 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL)
Creatinine 1 mg/dL (0.5 to 1.3 mg/dL)
Serum osmolality 325 mOsm/kg (285 to 295 mOsm/kg)
Urine ketones None (None)
Arterial Blood Gas
pH 7.40 (7.35 to 7.45)
PCO2 38 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg)
HCO3- 24 mEq/L (21 to 28 mEq/L)
PO2 90 mm Hg (80 to 100 mm Hg)
Oxygen saturation 96% (95% to 100%)

History and Physical
1300:
Client presented to clinic with respiratory manifestations.
Client reports sore throat, cough, nasal congestion, and a low-grade temperature that began 3 days ago, reported feeling worse this morning. Reports increased urination and thirst over the past 2 days, decreased appetite.
Blood glucose monitoring at home this a.m. reported at 450 mg/dL; current level is 600 mg/dL.
Past Medical History:
Hypertension, controlled with diuretic and beta blocker therapy
Type 2 diabetes mellitus, controlled with metformin, diet, exercise regimen
Plan: Direct admission to hospital for glucose and fluid management

Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.

The client is at highest risk for developing ________________ as evidenced by the client’s ___________________.

A

The client is at highest risk for developing hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as evidenced by the client’s glucose level.

Septic shock as evidenced by the client’s WBC count is incorrect. While the client’s WBC is elevated and the client reports manifestations of respiratory illness, the client is not experiencing impaired oxygenation and perfusion at this time. The client has manifestations that may indicate dehydration, but the current blood pressure level is adequate for perfusion and the client reports frequent urination. The client is also neurologically intact with no signs of impaired cognition.
DKA as evidenced by the client’s urine ketones level is incorrect. The client’s current laboratory findings indicate there are no ketones present in the urine. Clients who have DKA will have positive urine ketones, fruity breath odor, Kussmaul respirations, metabolic acidosis, and gastrointestinal manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The client’s current data shows none of these manifestations. DKA is more common in type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) as evidenced by the client’s glucose level is correct. The client is at greatest risk for developing HHS, as clients who have HHS will exhibit glucose levels greater than 600 mg/dL and increased serum osmolality. HHS is more common in clients who have type 2 diabetes mellitus, ketones are not present in the urine, and metabolic acidosis does not occur.

55
Q

A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with the care of a client who is comatose. The provider suspects ketoacidosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

a. Malignant hypertension
b. Acetone odor to breath
c. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
d. Blood glucose level below 40 mg/dL

A

b. Acetone odor to breath

Acetone odor to breath is an expected finding for ketoacidosis.

56
Q

A charge nurse is providing an in-service to a group of nurses about hypomagnesemia. Which of the following should the charge nurse include as risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply.)

a. Clients who have renal failure
b. Clients who are in the intensive care unit
c. Clients undergoing hemodialysis
d. Clients receiving opioid pain medications
e. Clients who have had gastric bypass surgery

A

Rationale A:
Clients who are in the hospital may experience hypomagnesemia, with the incidence being 10% to 20%. Fifty to 60% of clients who are in an intensive care unit exhibit the disturbance.
Rationale B:
Hypermagnesemia, not hypomagnesemia, can be caused by decreased excretion via the kidneys. Serum magnesium may be increased due to calcium-induced absorption of magnesium in the renal tubules.
Rationale C:
An individual may have hypomagnesemia because of decreased intake (starvation, chronic alcohol use), ingestion of certain medications (diuretics, digitalis, proton pump inhibitors), and renal/gastrointestinal losses (diarrhea, gastric bypass surgery).
Rationale D:
Hemolysis can lead to hypermagnesemia in clients who are undergoing hemodialysis, because red blood cells are high in magnesium.
Rationale E:
Hypermagnesemia can be the result of increased absorption that occurs in instances of decreased gastric motility, such as opiate administration.

57
Q

A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

a. Monitor peripheral pulses every 8 hr.
b. Measure urine output every 4 hr.
c. Ambulate the client three times daily.
d. Maintain NPO status.

A

d. Maintain NPO status.

​To rest the pancreas and reduce secretion of pancreatic enzymes, oral fluids and food are withheld during the acute phase of pancreatitis.

58
Q

A nurse is reinforcing education with a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and has been experiencing hypoglycemic episodes. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?

a. “Clients will usually have obvious manifestations of hypoglycemia.”
b. “Increasing exercise can help with hypoglycemia.”
c. “Keeping supplies on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes is important.”
d. “Clients with hypoglycemia cannot participate in religious/cultural fasting.”

A

c. “Keeping supplies on hand to treat hypoglycemic episodes is important.”

Clients with hypoglycemia need to keep rapid sources of glucose on hand such as glucose tablets, hard candies, and sometimes injectable glucagon.

59
Q

A nurse is discussing circulation with a diabetic client. Which of the following is an important teaching point for the nurse to include? (Select all that apply.)

a. “Try to keep your blood glucose in a normal range.”
b. “Massage your calves daily to promote circulation.”
c. “Blood flow to the limbs should be fine as long as you keep your feet elevated.”
d. “Development of foot ulcers are a sign of compromised circulation.”
“You are at no greater risk of peripheral vascular disease then a non-diabetic.”

A

a. “Try to keep your blood glucose in a normal range.”
d. “Development of foot ulcers are a sign of compromised circulation.”

“Try to keep your blood glucose in a normal range.”:
A client who has diabetes is at risk for nephropathy due to microvascular cellular damage caused by high glucose levels. Maintaining the blood glucose in normal range reduces the risk of complications.
“Massage your calves daily to promote circulation.”:
Massaging the calves does not promote adequate circulation to the lower limbs and may pose other risks to the client if there is a deep vein thrombosis.
“Blood flow to the limbs should be fine as long as you keep your feet elevated.”:
The purpose of feet elevation is to promote venous return to the heart. It does not promote blood flow to the lower limbs.
“Development of foot ulcers are a sign of compromised circulation.”:
A client who has diabetes is at risk for nephropathy due to microvascular cellular damage caused by high glucose levels. The client will need to inspect their feet daily as the first sign of poor circulation are ulcers on the feet. Maintaining the blood glucose in normal range reduces the risk of complications.
“You are at no greater risk of peripheral vascular disease then a non-diabetic.”:
A diabetic client is at risk for impaired circulation, especially distal to the heart.

60
Q

The nurse is providing care for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is critically ill. Which of the following lab findings requires immediate intervention?

a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 24 mg/dL
b. Serum calcium 8.0 mg/dL
c. Serum potassium 5.0 mEq/L
d. Serum sodium 125 mEq/L

A

d. Serum sodium 125 mEq/L

This lab finding is less than the expected reference range for sodium of 136 to 145 mEq/L. Hyponatremia, which is a serum sodium of less than 136 mEq/L, is associated with significant morbidity and mortality for clients who have cancer, and the risk of death increases for clients who are critically ill and develop hyponatremia.

61
Q

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking a loop diuretic and notes the client’s potassium level is 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect related to the client’s hypokalemia?

a. Cardiac dysrhythmias
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperreflexia
d. Increased appetite

A

a. Cardiac dysrhythmias

Low potassium levels affect cardiovascular function, causing ventricular dysrhythmias, ECG changes, and a weak, irregular pulse.

62
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who has hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). Which of the following topics should be prioritized for teaching?

a. Decreasing smoking
b. Increasing daily exercise
c. Decreasing intake of red meat
d. Increasing fluid intake

A

d. Increasing fluid intake

Clients who have experienced one episode of HHS are at greater risk of further episodes. Educating the client on how to avoid dehydration is an important step for prevention of future episodes of HHS.

63
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about insulin injections with a client who is newly diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus. Which of the following information should the nurse include about site selection?

a. Rotate the injection site to keep insulin levels consistent.
b. Use cold insulin for injection to minimize site pain.
c. Insulin is absorbed most rapidly when injected in the thigh.
d. Massage the site after injection to promote absorption.

A

a. Rotate the injection site to keep insulin levels consistent.

The nurse should educate the client to rotate injection sites in the same anatomic area to decrease lipoatrophy, which is a loss of fat under the skin in the area of the injections.

64
Q

A nurse at a health fair is collecting data from a group of clients. Which of the following clients is at risk for developing an obesity-related disease?

a. A female client who has a BMI of 24 and a waist circumference of 76 cm (30 in)
b. A male client who has a BMI of 32 and a waist circumference of 97 cm (38 in)
c. A female client who has a BMI of 32 and a waist circumference of 102 cm (40 in)
d. A male client who has a BMI of 29 and a waist circumference of 97 cm (38 in)

A

c. A female client who has a BMI of 32 and a waist circumference of 102 cm (40 in)

This client is obese and at risk for developing an obesity-related disease.

65
Q

A nursing is reviewing nutrition therapy with a client who has Cushing’s disease. Which of the following dietary modifications should the nurse include in this discussion?

a. Limit potassium rich foods in the diet.
b. Decrease sodium intake.
c. Increase calorie intake.
d. Consume more calories from carbohydrates than protein.

A

b. Decrease sodium intake.

Clients who have Cushing’s disease experience the impaired breakdown of nutrients resulting in hypernatremia, hyperglycemia, and hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to decrease sodium intake.

66
Q

A nurse is providing care for a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory findings indicates the client most likely to be diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

a. Arterial blood pH 7.46
b. Serum sodium 140 mg/dL
c. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 18 mg/dL
d. Serum bicarbonate less than 15

A

d. Serum bicarbonate less than 15

The nurse should identify that a serum bicarbonate level of less than15, blood glucose of 600 to 1220 mg/dL, arterial pH 6.8 to 7.3, and serum sodium 125 to 135 mg/dL are associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

67
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse misread the client’s morning fasting blood glucose level as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered the insulin dose appropriate for a reading over 200 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?

a. Give the client 15 to 20 g of carbohydrate.
b. Check the client’s blood glucose level.
c. Complete an incident report.
d. Notify the nurse manager.

A

b. Check the client’s blood glucose level.

The first action the nurse should take using the nursing process is to assess or collect data from the client. The nurse should immediately check the client’s blood glucose level, expecting it to be low because of the unnecessary dose of insulin. If it is within the expected reference range, the nurse should continue to monitor the client for hypoglycemia.

68
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has hypernatremia and is receiving intravenous (IV) hypotonic fluid replacement. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse understand is an indication of an adverse effect from the administration of hypotonic fluids?

a. The client has a positive Chvostek’s sign.
b. The client has developed confusion.
c. The client’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 18 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL).
d. The client’s serum sodium is 140 mEq/L (135 to 145 mEq/L).

A

b. The client has developed confusion.

Confusion in a client who is receiving hypotonic fluids should be considered an adverse reaction. This can indicate a cerebral fluid shift.

69
Q

A nurse is providing care for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following findings are manifestations of hyponatremia? (Select all that apply.)

a. Urine specific gravity of 1.010 (1.005 – 1.03)
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Diarrhea
d. Confusion
e. Diminished reflexes

A

c. Diarrhea
d. Confusion
e. Diminished reflexes

A) Urine specific gravity of 1.010 (1.005 – 1.03)
Clients who have hyponatremia manifest decreased output of concentrated urine with a high specific gravity (greater than the expected reference range of 1.005 to 1.03); gastrointestinal effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and lack of appetite; and neurologic effects such as headaches, confusion, tremors, muscle cramps, and diminished reflexes. Respiratory failure can occur if serum sodium falls below 115 mEq/L.
B) Respiratory alkalosis
Clients who have hyponatremia manifest decreased output of concentrated urine with a high specific gravity (greater than the expected reference range of 1.005 to 1.03); gastrointestinal effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and lack of appetite; and neurologic effects such as headaches, confusion, tremors, muscle cramps, and diminished reflexes. Respiratory failure can occur if serum sodium falls below 115 mEq/L.
C) Diarrhea
Clients who have hyponatremia manifest decreased output of concentrated urine with a high specific gravity (greater than the expected reference range of 1.005 to 1.03); gastrointestinal effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and lack of appetite; and neurologic effects such as headaches, confusion, tremors, muscle cramps, and diminished reflexes. Respiratory failure can occur if serum sodium falls below 115 mEq/L.
D) Confusion
Clients who have hyponatremia manifest decreased output of concentrated urine with a high specific gravity (greater than the expected reference range of 1.005 to 1.03); gastrointestinal effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and lack of appetite; and neurologic effects such as headaches, confusion, tremors, muscle cramps, and diminished reflexes. Respiratory failure can occur if serum sodium falls below 115 mEq/L.
E) Diminished reflexes
Clients who have hyponatremia manifest decreased output of concentrated urine with a high specific gravity (greater than the expected reference range of 1.005 to 1.03); gastrointestinal effects such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and lack of appetite; and neurologic effects such as headaches, confusion, tremors, muscle cramps, and diminished reflexes. Respiratory failure can occur if serum sodium falls below 115 mEq/L.

70
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and observes mild hand tremors. Which of the following snacks should the nurse offer the client after obtaining a glucometer reading of 60 mg/dL?

a. 4 oz of regular soda
b. One to two oral glucose tablets
c. Three to four pieces of hard candy
d. 6 oz of milk

A

a. 4 oz of regular soda

The nurse should plant to administer 15 to 20 g of fast-acting carbohydrates to treat the client’s blood glucose. A half-cup of fruit juice or soda is appropriate treatment.

71
Q

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client admitted with multiple myeloma. The nurse should expect to see an increase in which of the following laboratory tests?

a. Absolute neutrophil count
​b. Calcium
​c. Platelets
d. WBCs

A

​b. Calcium

The nurse should note an increase in calcium. The client who has multiple myeloma experiences bone destruction following tumor formation in the bone marrow.

71
Q

A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.

History and Physical
21-year-old client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at age 12 years old.
2 days ago:
Started experiencing nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Reports frequent urge to urinate.
Today:
Reports increased thirst and blurry vision. Continues to be nauseated without any emesis. No complaints of pain.

Laboratory Results
Sodium 135 mEq/L (135 to 145 mEq/L)
Potassium 3.7 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
Glucose 300 mg/dL (74 to 106 mg/dL)
Calcium 9.8 mg/dL (9.0 to 10.5 mg/dL)
Chloride 100 g/dL (98 to 106 g/dL)
BUN 22 mg/dL (10 to 20 mg/dL)
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (female: 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL; male: 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL)
C-peptide 5.6 ng/mL (fasting 0.78 to 1.89 ng/mL)
Urinalysis:
Ketones: positive (none)
Leukocytes: esterase positive (none)
Red blood cells: 5 per high power field (less than 2 per high power field)
Indicative of UTI
ABG:
pH 7.20 (7.35 to 7.45)
PaCO2 35 mm Hg (35 to 45 mm Hg)
PaO2 85 (70 to 100 mm Hg)
HCO3- 12 mEq/L (22 to 26 mEq/L)

Vital Signs
Temp 36.7° C (98.1° F)
Blood pressure 128/86 mm Hg
Heart rate 98/min
Respiratory rate 26/min
SaO2 96%

Which of the following assessment findings would indicate to the nurse that the client is at risk for developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? (Select all that apply.)

a. Ketones present in urine
b. Elevated C-peptide blood level
c. Serum blood glucose 300 mg/dL
d. HbA1c 12.6%
e. Hypertension
f. ABG results

A

a. Ketones present in urine
c. Serum blood glucose 300 mg/dL
d. HbA1c 12.6%
f. ABG results

When analyzing the expected and unexpected findings for a client who has type 1 diabetes, the nurse should recognize the abnormal findings associated with potential development of DKA. Clients who have type 1 diabetes typically present with rapid-onset manifestations. Polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, fatigue, and unintentional weight loss can occur. (The client may experience polyphagia and visual changes such as blurry vision. Dry skin may be present, as well as numbness or tingling in feet and hands. DKA can lead to more advanced complications of hyperglycemia and hypovolemic hypotension.
While DKA can occur in clients who have type 2 diabetes, it is more common in clients who have type 1 diabetes. Blood glucose level is typically above 250 mg/dL. Blood β-hydroxybutyrate level is elevated and serum ketones are often present. Metabolic panel abnormalities will include HCO3 of 15 mEq/L or less and an anion gap greater than 10. Blood gases typically show a pH under 7.3. A urinalysis will likely be positive for both glucose and ketones. C-peptide levels will be decreased in clients who have type 1 diabetes. HbA1c is 7% or higher.

72
Q

A nurse is providing care for several clients who have type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)?

a. A client admitted for hip fracture surgery
b. A client who is receiving IV antibiotics for a urinary tract infection
c. A client who is awaiting cataract surgery
d. A client who is being evaluated for a breast lump

A

b. A client who is receiving IV antibiotics for a urinary tract infection

Infectious diseases and disorders of the respiratory, genitourinary, and circulatory systems can lead to HHS in young adults and children with type 1 or type 2 diabetes.

73
Q

A nurse is reviewing the client’s medical record and notices a family history of malignant hyperthermia. In which of the following sections of the SBAR communication tool should the nurse include this information when completing handoff to the surgical team?

a. Recommendation
b. Assessment
c. Background
d. Situation

A

b. Assessment

The assessment section of the SBAR communication tool addresses specific information that contributes to or changes the plan of care. This might include client history that is relevant to the procedure. Malignant hyperthermia can be life-threatening, so this client’s family history requires a change in the plan of care in order to ensure client safety.

74
Q

A nurse is collecting data on a client who has hyperthyroidism. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect the client to report?

a. Frequent mood changes
b. Constipation
c. Sensitivity to cold
d. Weight gain

A

a. Frequent mood changes

Hyperthyroidism develops when the thyroid gland produces an excess of the thyroid hormones that regulate the metabolic rate. Nervousness and frequent mood changes; hand tremors; a rapid, pounding, irregular heartbeat are common manifestations of hyperthyroidism.

75
Q

A nurse is caring for a client following a motor vehicle accident. The client develops a fever of 40.6° C (105° F), has a heart rate of 155/min, and a blood pressure of 70/30 mm Hg. Which of the following alterations does the nurse suspect?

a. Diabetic retinopathy
b. Metabolic syndrome
c. Thyroid storm
d. Hyperglycemia

A

c. Thyroid storm

Thyroid storm is a medical emergency that can be triggered by multiple events, including increased stress or trauma. The client’s symptoms are consistent with a thyroid storm.

76
Q

A nurse is assisting in providing care for clients on a medical unit. Which of the following client assessment changes should the nurse prioritize collecting data on first?

a. A client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL (74 – 106 mg/dL)
b. A client who has Graves’ disease has a heart rate of 100/min and reports tremors.
c. A client who has left-sided stroke reports severe headache and is manifesting confusion.
d. A client who has diabetes insipidus has an intake of 1,500 mL and an output of 1,600 mL in 24 hr.

A

c. A client who has left-sided stroke reports severe headache and is manifesting confusion.

When using the greatest risk priority framework, the nurse should identify that a client who has headache and confusion is exhibiting manifestations of hyponatremia related to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and requires immediate action. Hyponatremia can be serious and lead to respiratory failure.

77
Q

A nurse is providing care for a client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following characteristics are associated with DKA? (Select all that apply.)

a. Alkalosis
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Low blood sugar
d. Ketosis
e. Fluid overload
f. Acidosis

A

b. Hyperglycemia
d. Ketosis
f. Acidosis

A) Ketosis
There are three main characteristics associated with DKA. One of the characteristics is ketone production, or ketosis. Ketosis results from a deficiency of insulin. Without insulin, cells are not able to utilize glucose and revert to utilizing fats for energy. Fat breakdown, or lipolysis, leads to ketone production.
B) Hyperglycemia
There are three main characteristics associated with DKA. One of the characteristics is hyperglycemia. Hyperglycemia results from the deficiency of insulin. Without insulin, cells are not able to utilize glucose, which results in increased glucose in the blood.
C) Fluid overload
DKA results in dehydration, not fluid overload. Ketosis, hyperglycemia, and acidosis are the three main characteristics of DKA.
D) Acidosis
There are three main characteristics associated with DKA. One of the characteristics is acidosis due to dehydration and decreased tissue perfusion. Decreased tissue perfusion causes an increase in lactic acid, leading to acidosis.
E) Alkalosis
DKA results in acidosis, not alkalosis. Ketosis, hyperglycemia, and acidosis are the three main characteristics of DKA.
F) Low blood sugar
DKA results in hyperglycemia, not low blood sugar. Ketosis, hyperglycemia, and acidosis are the three main characteristics of DKA.

78
Q

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the client identifies which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia? (Select all that apply.)

a. Polydipsia
b. Blurry vision
c. Sweating
d. Tachycardia
e. Polyuria

A

b. Blurry vision
c. Sweating
d. Tachycardia

Polyuria is incorrect. Hyperglycemia causes polyuria.
Blurry vision is correct. Manifestations of hypoglycemia include blurry vision, tremors, anxiety, irritability, headache, and hypotension.
Tachycardia is correct. Manifestations of hypoglycemia include tachycardia, tremors, anxiety, irritability, headache, and hypotension.
Polydipsia is incorrect. Hyperglycemia causes polydipsia.
Sweating is correct. Manifestations of hypoglycemia include sweating, tremors, anxiety, irritability, headache, and hypotension.

79
Q

A nurse is assisting in planning a training session for newly licensed nurses to discuss commonly missed or misdiagnosed cancers that result in higher mortality rates. Which of the following types of cancer should the nurse include in the discussion?

a. Pancreatic cancer
b. Prostate cancer
c. Skin cancer
d. Breast cancer

A

a. Pancreatic cancer

The nurse should include this cancer type because pancreatic cancer is not routinely screened for and can be difficult to see with imaging and can be misdiagnosed as an ulcer or pancreatitis. Survival rates for the most common types of pancreatic cancer are very low.

80
Q

A nurse is monitoring a client who received desmopressin (DDAVP) to treat diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings indicates effectiveness of the medication?

a. Serum sodium 150 mEq/L
b. Decreased blood pressure
c. Urine specific gravity 1.015
d. Increased heart rate

A

c. Urine specific gravity 1.015

Diabetes insipidus occurs when the posterior pituitary gland does not secrete enough antidiuretic hormone causing excessive, diluted urine. Desmopressin provides replacement posterior pituitary hormone; therefore, the nurse should identify a urine specific gravity level within the expected reference range indicates effectiveness of the medication.

81
Q

A nurse is planning care for a client who has hyponatremia. Which of the following actions is the priority to include in the plan of care?

a. Monitor neurologic status
b. Monitor urine output
c. Monitor serum osmolality
d. Monitor serial serum sodium levels every 4-6 hr

A

a. Monitor neurologic status

The greatest risk to the client is experiencing a seizure due to hyponatremia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client’s neurological status for the safety of the client.

82
Q

A nurse is planning care for a client who has hyperthyroidism and is receiving radioactive iodine (radioiodine). Which of the following statements by the nurse regarding special precautions is appropriate?

a. “You will need to remain at the hospital for the entire time the radioiodine is radioactive.”
b. “You will need to use a bathroom separate from other household members.”
c. “Additional immunizations will be needed for full protection.”
d. “A low fiber diet will be necessary.”

A

b. “You will need to use a bathroom separate from other household members.”

Whenever possible, the client should use a bathroom separate from other household members.

83
Q

A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of client teaching on managing hypoglycemic episodes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that teaching has been effective?

a. “I will call 911 if I have a seizure.”
b. “I should eat something high in sugar and avoid foods with fat and protein.”
c. “If I develop hypoglycemia, I will pick up the glucagon kit from the pharmacy.”
d. “I can take either regular or diet juice.”

A

b. “I should eat something high in sugar and avoid foods with fat and protein.”

During acute hypoglycemic episodes, clients should avoid foods with fat and protein because they can delay the body’s ability to absorb sugar.

84
Q

A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client has an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect?

a. Shakiness, sweating, nausea
b. Fatigue, constipation, weight gain
c. Anxiety, unintended weight loss, palpitations
d. Increased thirst, increased urine output, and weight loss

A

b. Fatigue, constipation, weight gain

Common manifestations of hypothyroidism include fatigue, constipation, weight gain, feeling cold, swelling, reduced sweating, and skin changes.