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Doc Gwenny > Endo-Perio > Flashcards

Endo-Perio Flashcards

1
Q

Canal orifices in the pulp chamber are localized by:

A. Spoon excavator
B. Perio probe
C. Endodontic pathfinder
D. Electronic apex locator

A

C. Endodontic pathfinder

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2
Q

From which of these paranasal sinuses would inflammation elicit painful sensations on the teeth?

A. Sphenoid Sinus
B. Maxillary Sinus
C. Frontal Sinus
D. Ethmoid Sinus

A

B. Maxillary Sinus

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3
Q

Bleeding on probing is indicative of:

A. Fibrosis of gingival
B. Food impactor
C. Crestal bone loss
D. Ulceration of sulcular epithelium

A

D. Ulceration of sulcular epithelium

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4
Q

Gutta Percha points can be disinfected by:

A. Solution of sodium hypochlorite 5.25% for 1 minute
B. Dry heat sterilization for 1 1/2 hrs
C. Autoclave for 20 mins
D. Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

A

A. Solution of sodium hypochlorite 5.25% for 1 minute

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5
Q

This index introduced by Massler and Schour to assess the extent of gingival inflammation.

A. GI
B. PFI
C. PI
D. PMA

A

D. PMA

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6
Q

Retrograde infection of the pulp from a periodontal pockets thru the:

A. Accessory canal
B. Cemento enamel junction
C. Dentino enamel junction
D. Dentinal Tubules

A

A. Accessory canal

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7
Q

The cheapest and most effective method of personal plaque control is:

A. Proper toothbrushing
B. Listerine mouthwash
C. Chlorhexidine mouthwash
D. Hexitidine mouthwash

A

A. Proper toothbrushing

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8
Q

The inorganic minerals of supragingival calculus are derived from:

A. Food rich in calcium
B. Fluoridated water
C. Saliva
D. Gingival tissue fluid

A

C. Saliva

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9
Q

Which of these teeth are not common sites of periodontal tissue destruction in juvenile periodontitis?

A. Second molars
B. First molar
C. Incisor
D. Canines

A

A. Second molars

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10
Q

Filing with Hedstrom file result in:

A. Effective cutting on withdrawal
B. Effective cutting in insertion
C. Narrower canal preparation
D. A lack of tactile sensation

A

A. Effective cutting on withdrawal

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11
Q

Patients with a valvular heart defect as a result of rheumatic heart disease scheduled for scaling and root planing with deep periodontal pockets associated with juvenile periodontitis should be premedicated with:

A. Penicillin G
B. Naproxen Na
C. Vitamin K
D. Tetracycline

A

D. Tetracycline

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12
Q

Root canal shaping and cleaning is accomplished by:

A. Tapered Fissure bur
B. Files
C. Barbed Broach
D. Reamers

A

B. Files

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13
Q

In the presence of an intense inflammatory process arising from the pulp and the periapex, local anesthesia in the site is rendered less effective because of?

A. Patient is chronic alcoholic
B. Prior use of analgesic
C. pH changes of inflammation
D. Patient is resistant to anesthetics

A

C. pH changes of inflammation

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14
Q

Intra canal medicaments commonly used in endodontics is:

A. Beechwood creosote
B. Camphormonochlorophenol
C. N2 normal
D. Formocresol

A

B. Camphormonochlorophenol

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15
Q

When pain lingers after thermal stimulation is removed is indicative of:

A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Irreversible Pulpitis
C. Normal Pulp
D. Necrotic Pulp

A

B. Irreversible Pulpitis

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16
Q

The smear layer of the dentin can be removed by:

A. H2O2
B. EDTA
C. NaOCl
D. HCl

A

B. EDTA

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17
Q

Which of these is the product of arachidonic acid metabolism that is incremented in bone loss in periodontal disease?

A. Thyroxine
B. Prostaglandin
C. Cyclosporine
D. Leukotriene

A

B. Prostaglandin

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18
Q

The attachment of the gingiva to the tooth after periodontal surgery is the means of:

A. Ankylosis of bone to teeth
B. Healing of wounded gingiva by scar tissue
C. Long junctional epithelial attachment
D. Collagen attachment

A

C. Long junctional epithelial attachment

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19
Q

Which of these is a spreading factor increasing intercellular permeability of connective tissue?

A. Hyaluronides
B. Histamine
C. Serotonin
D. Acetylcholine

A

A. Hyaluronides

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20
Q

The ideal requirement of a root canal filling materials are except:

A. Non irritating to apical tissue
B. Seal the canal apically and laterally
C. Radiolucent
D. Dimensionally stable and easily introduced into canal

A

C. Radiolucent

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21
Q

A young patient age 12 complains of recurrent abscess opposite the lower first bicuspid with a draining sinus. Tooth is a non carious, no periodontal pathology. Radiograph shows an incompletely formed root with a big pulp and wide apex. What would you consider the cause of pulp death.

A. Internal resorption
B. Occlusal trauma
C. Leong’s premolar
D. Radicular cysts

A

A. Internal resorption

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22
Q

The treatment of carious lower central incisor with a radicular cyst with a tooth conservation is:

A. Adult periodontitis
B. Endodontic treatment with enucleation
C. Marsupialization
D. Apical Resection

A

B. Endodontic treatment with enucleation

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23
Q

The cell in the pulp from which new odontoblast can differential to bridge an accidental pulp exposure are the:

A. Fibroblasts
B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
C. Macrophages
D. Schwann cell

A

B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

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24
Q

The function of root canal sealers are except:

A. Promotes secondary dentin formation on dentin walls
B. Binding agent for obturation material
C. Fill in irregularities and discrepancy between filling dentin walls
D. Act as a lubricant

A

A. Promotes secondary dentin formation on dentin walls

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25
Q

Which of the following conditions can be associated with localized juvenile periodontitis?

A. Neutrophil chemotactic defect
B. Purpura hemorrhagic
C. Increased phagocytosis
D. Cyclic eosionophilia

A

A. Neutrophil chemotactic defect

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26
Q

Which of these is not pathologic features of Gingivitis?

A. Degradation of gingival collagen fibers
B. Swelling of gingiva
C. Apical migration of epithelium cuff
D. Ulceration of crevicular epithelium

A

C. Apical migration of epithelium cuff

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27
Q

These periodontal lesions have mobility of teeth as finding except:

A. Adult periodontitis
B. Gingivitis
C. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
D. Juvenile periodontitis

A

B. Gingivitis

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28
Q

Which of these is not requirement of an ideal root canal cement sealer:

A. Radiopaque
B. Have a good adhesion to canal wall
C. Bacteriostatic
D. Contract on setting

A

D. Contract on setting

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29
Q

In a clinically normal gingiva these inflammatory cells are present:

A. Lymphocytes
B. Basophils
C. PMN’s
D. Eosinophil

A

C. PMN’s

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30
Q

An acute painful condition with cellulitis associated with infected pulp is best managed with:

A. Cold compress
B. Antipyretic and NSAID
C. Analgesic and corticosteroids
D. Analgesic and antibiotics

A

D. Analgesic and antibiotics

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31
Q

This index introduced in 1956 is used for assessment of the severity of periodontal disease large population groups.

A. PI
B. PMA
C. OHI-S
D. GI

A

A. PI

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32
Q

Which of the following extracellular polysaccharide in dental plaque serves as the structural stabilizer of the intermicrobial matrix.

A. Fructan
B. Dextran
C. Mutan
D. Glucan

A

D. Glucan

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33
Q

Which of the following extracellular polysaccharide in dental plaque serves as the structural stabilizer of the intermicrobial matrix.

A. Fructan
B. Dextran
C. Mutan
D. Glucan

A

D. Glucan

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34
Q

Which of these antimicrobial has an anti-collagenolytic effect other than as an antibiotics?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Metronidazole
C. Augmentin
D. Tetracycline

A

D. Tetracycline

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35
Q

To condense the gutta-percha and the sealer laterally against the dentin wall, this is used:

A. Lentulo
B. Spreader
C. Plugger
D. Reamer

A

B. Spreader

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36
Q

Which of the following has the greatest chance of success of a periodontal flap procedure?

A. Position of flap after suturing
B. Type of initial incision
C. Design of flap
D. Level of post operative plaque control

A

D. Level of post operative plaque control

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37
Q

Demonstration and localization of dental plaque is by use of:

A. Disclosing solution
B. Laser
C. Toothpick
D. Explorer

A

A. Disclosing solution

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38
Q

A hyperplastic pulpitis on a tooth with an incompletely formed root apex is best managed endodontically:

A. Pulpectomy
B. Pulpotomy
C. Extraction
D. Pulp capping

A

A. Pulpectomy

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39
Q

To what could you account the effectiveness of subgingival scaling and root planing in periodontal therapy?

A. Alteration of subgingival microflora
B. Removal of surface pellicles
C. Removal of diseased cementum
D. Elimination of PMN’s from the pocket

A

C. Removal of diseased cementum

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40
Q

Bone from other part of a patient’s mouth used to fill periodontal bone defect is:

A. Homograft
B. Autograft
C. Isografts
D. Allograft

A

B. Autograft

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41
Q

Corticosteroids are used as a component of root canal medicaments. What possibilities may arise from its use?

A. Antibacterial action is augmented
B. Microorganisms are destroyed faster
C. Exacerbation of infection may occur
D. Leukocyte infiltration is enhanced

A

C. Exacerbation of infection may occur

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42
Q

Food debris and loosely attached leukocytes. Exfoliated cells and microorganisms easily removed by rinsing is:

A. Material Alba
B. Calculus
C. Pellicle
D. Bacteria plaque

A

A. Material Alba

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43
Q

After root canal therapy which of the following sensation can the tooth perceive?

A. Thermal response
B. Pain during crown preparation
C. Sensitivity to electric pulp test
D. Proprioception

A

D. Proprioception

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44
Q

Which of these drugs have no significant influence in periodontal treatment planning with surgical intervention?

A. Dicumarol
B. Naproxen force
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Cortisone

A

B. Naproxen force

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45
Q

The growth factors modulate host response in tissue repair regeneration in the periodontium except:

A. Platelet derived growth factor
B. Basic fibroblasts growth factor
C. Tumor necrosis factor
D. Insulin like growth factor

A

C. Tumor necrosis factor

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46
Q

When a calcified root canal in the max central incisor cannot be located or instrumented this is the treatment of choice :

A. Extraction
B. It is not longer accessible to bacterial infection
C. Retrograde root canal therapy
D. Proceed with conventional root canal procedures for an unfilled root canal is worse that a perforation

A

C. Retrograde root canal therapy

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47
Q

The role of calculus in the etiology of periodontal disease is:

A. Calcified material is toxic to gingiva
B. Rough surface irritates gingival casing gingivitis
C. Calculus is a retention site for bacterial plaque
D. Epidemiologic study shows a very strong correlation between calculus and gingivitis

A

C. Calculus is a retention site for bacterial plaque

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48
Q

Which of these do not belong in the layers of the epithelium free gingiva?

A. Stratum spinosum
B. Stratum granulosum
C. Stratum germinativum
D. Stratum lucidum

A

D. Stratum lucidum

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49
Q

Which of these would be the basis for diagnosis of pulpal pathology of a tooth with complete porcelain crown coverage?

A. Bleeding on probing
B. Electric pulp test
C. Radiograph
D. Clinical signs and symptoms

A

D. Clinical signs and symptoms

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50
Q

Which of the following is used as a bleaching agent?

A. Sodium perborate
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Sodium hypochlorite
D. Sodium chloride

A

A. Sodium perborate

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51
Q

The main objective of occlusal equillibration in natural dentition are except:

A. Prevent TMJ pain syndrome
B. Achieve a more favorable distribution of forces to the periodontal ligament
C. Prevent myofacial pain syndrome
D. Increase shearing action in the mastication

A

C. Prevent myofacial pain syndrome

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52
Q

Which of the following would almost likely result if periodontal pocket has no adequate drainage?

A. Periodontal Abscess
B. Periodontal cysts
C. Apical periodontics
D. Pulpitis

A

A. Periodontal Abscess

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53
Q

Which of the following would almost likely result if periodontal pocket has no adequate drainage?

A. Periodontal Abscess
B. Periodontal cysts
C. Apical periodontics
D. Pulpitis

A

A. Periodontal Abscess

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54
Q

Root canal cement should be:

A. Bacteriostatic
B. Radiolucent
C. Set quickly
D. Bactericidal

A

A. Bacteriostatic

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55
Q

The grayish discoloration of maxillary permanent incisor with history of trauma in early age due to:

A. Bacterial plaque
B. Hematin
C. Intrinsic resorption
D. Tetracycline

A

B. Hematin

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56
Q

A well-fitted root canal:

A. Exhibits radiopacity
B. Need no root canal cement
C. Extend beyond the apical constriction
D. Prevent micro leakage

A

D. Prevent micro leakage

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57
Q

The main diagnostic feature of adult periodontitis is:

A. Gingival recession and fibrosis
B. Gingival enlargement with gingival pockets
C. Periodontal pockets with alveolar bone loss
D. Gingival pockets with no bone loss

A

C. Periodontal pockets with alveolar bone loss

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58
Q

The main diagnostic feature of adult periodontitis is:

A. Gingival recession and fibrosis
B. Gingival enlargement with gingival pockets
C. Periodontal pockets with alveolar bone loss
D. Gingival pockets with no bone loss

A

C. Periodontal pockets with alveolar bone loss

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59
Q

Which of these drugs is used as a gel and placed in periodontal pockets in the active stage of disease :

A. Augmentin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin G

A

C. Metronidazole

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60
Q

Which is the best way to prevent pulp damage during cavity preparation?

A. Use adequate water coolant
B. Use diamond bur with brush stroke
C. Use adequate air coolant
D. Retain the smear layer

A

A. Use adequate water coolant

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61
Q

Vitamin C is essential to the integrity of the periodontal ligament because:

A. It is necessary for collagen degradation
B. It is necessary for fibronectin mitosis
C. It is necessary for hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline
D. It is necessary for fibroblast mitosis

A

C. It is necessary for hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline

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62
Q

When a root has two canals bucco-lingually, the method localizing the apical termination of each is by:

A. Varying the horizontal angulation of the xray
B. Panoramic roentgenogram
C. Varying the vertical angulation of the xray
D. Vitality test

A

A. Varying the horizontal angulation of the xray

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63
Q

The most effective means to reduce canal microorganisms in the endodontic therapy is by:

A. Phenol
B. Polyantibiotic intra-canal medication
C. Complete debridement of canal during cleaning and shaping
D. Systematic antibiotic

A

C. Complete debridement of canal during cleaning and shaping

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64
Q

Increase vascular permeability in gingival inflammation is caused by vasoactive amines from:

A. Lymphocytes
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Plasma cells
D. Mast cells

A

D. Mast cells

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65
Q

Which part of the gingival is characterized by an orange peel appearance:

A. Attached gingiva
B. Free gingiva
C. Marginal gingiva
D. Interdental gingiva

A

A. Attached gingiva

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66
Q

To make pulp extirpation of vital teeth painless which of the following is recommended:

A. Topical anesthetic in the pulp chamber
B. Local anesthesia to block pain pathway
C. Electronic of pulp by pulp tester
D. Arsenic trioxide

A

B. Local anesthesia to block pain pathway

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67
Q

Internal resorption in vital asymptomatic tooth is best managed by:

A. Pulpotomy
B. Wait for resorption to stop
C. Extirpate pulp and do endodontics therapy
D. Extraction of tooth

A

C. Extirpate pulp and do endodontics therapy

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68
Q

Although similar in function, what would differentiate the odontoblast from osteoblast and cementoblasts?

A. Is a protein secreting cell
B. Ultrastructure
C. Morphologic characteristic
D. Matrix production

A

C. Morphologic characteristic

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69
Q

The most common cause of pulpitis is:

A. Cavity preparation
B. Periodontitis
C. Occlusal traumatism
D. Caries

A

D. Caries

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70
Q

Direct pulpal capping is recommended for primary teeth with:

A. Caries exposure
B. Calcification resorption
C. Mechanical exposure
D. Internal resorption

A

C. Mechanical exposure

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71
Q

Which of these nerves have to be anesthetized to extirpate a vital pulp of the maxillary first molar?

A. Middle superior alveolar nerve
B. Posterior superior alveolar
C. Posterior superior alveolar and anterior palatine nerve
D. Middle and posterior superior alveolar nerve

A

D. Middle and posterior superior alveolar nerve

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72
Q

The epithelial rest of malassez are derived from:

A. Sheath of hertwig
B. Cementum
C. Odontoblastic layer
D. Bone

A

A. Sheath of hertwig

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73
Q

Titanium implants are attached to bone by:

A. Biointegration
B. Epithelial attachment
C. Fibrillar attachment
D. Osteointegration

A

D. Osteointegration

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74
Q

Titanium implants are attached to bone by:

A. Biointegration
B. Epithelial attachment
C. Fibrillar attachment
D. Osteointegration

A

D. Osteointegration

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75
Q

Which of the following will not possibly cause discoloration tooth with a necrotic pulp:

A. Hemolysis of unremoved blood cells
B. Decomposition of necrotic tissue
C. Use of tetracycline when acute apical periodontitis set in
D. Failure to include the pulp horns in access preparation

A

C. Use of tetracycline when acute apical periodontitis set in

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76
Q

After sublingual curettage the expected result would be:

A. Shallower gingival sulcus
B. Increased edema
C. Increased tooth mobility
D. Deeper gingival sulcus

A

A. Shallower gingival sulcus

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77
Q

A radicular cyst can be differentiated from an apical granuloma by:

A. Radiograph
B. Complete intraoral examination and history
C. Vitality test
D. Histopathology

A

D. Histopathology

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78
Q

Which of these should not be practice in endodontic therapy to prevent accidental aspiration of endodontic instruments:

A. Hold reamers and the files with cotton pliers
B. The strings to handle of endodontics reamers and files
C. Use rubber dam
D. Use rubber gloves

A

A. Hold reamers and the files with cotton pliers

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79
Q

Which of these should not be practice in endodontic therapy to prevent accidental aspiration of endodontic instruments:

A. Hold reamers and the files with cotton pliers
B. The strings to handle of endodontics reamers and files
C. Use rubber dam
D. Use rubber gloves

A

A. Hold reamers and the files with cotton pliers

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80
Q

Which of these lesions would give symptoms of malaise, high temperature and cellulitis?

A. Radicular cysts
B. Acute pulpitis
C. Acute apical abscess
D. Necrotic pulp

A

C. Acute apical abscess

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81
Q

Which of these is not a risk factor in the etiology of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

A. Emotional factor
B. Smoking
C. Psychogenic factor
D. Chronic alcoholism

A

D. Chronic alcoholism

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82
Q

Dentinal tubules should be sealed before placement of restorations to:

A. Reduced the pathogenicity of microorganisms
B. Decrease the permeability of the underlying dentin
C. Decrease the number of dentinal tubules
D. Allow a calcium bridge to form in the pulp

A

B. Decrease the permeability of the underlying dentin

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83
Q

Removal of calculus by scaling is one of the primary therapeutic procedures in periodontal therapy because it _______ EXCEPT:

A. May be located inside the connective tissue causing inflammation
B. Is a retention site for bacterial plaque
C. Abrades the sulcular epithelium
D. Interferes with the attachment of the junctional epithelium

A

A. May be located inside the connective tissue causing inflammation

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84
Q

Removal of calculus by scaling is one of the primary therapeutic procedures in periodontal therapy because it _______ EXCEPT:

A. May be located inside the connective tissue causing inflammation
B. Is a retention site for bacterial plaque
C. Abrades the sulcular epithelium
D. Interferes with the attachment of the junctional epithelium

A

A. May be located inside the connective tissue causing inflammation

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85
Q

Which of these is not a roentgenographic finding in occlusal traumatism?

A. Wedge shape marginal bone loss
B. Widening of periodontal space
C. Root resorption
D. Periapical rarefaction

A

D. Periapical rarefaction

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86
Q

The progression of gingivitis to periodontitis is described as:

A. Slow continuous
B. Episodic and discontinous
C. Static
D. Rapid continuous

A

D. Rapid continuous

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87
Q

Which is the most common post operative complain after removal of periodontal pack of gingivectomized teeth?

A. Tenderness to mastication
B. Mobility
C. Swelling
D. Root sensitivity

A

D. Root sensitivity

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88
Q

Which of these is not an accepted topical antimicrobial mouthwash in the prevention and control of gingivitis?

A. Peridex
B. Periogard
C. Astringosol
D. Listerine

A

C. Astringosol

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89
Q

Which of the following results when both buccal, labial, and lingual cortical plates have been removed during surgery?

A. Scar tissue formation
B. Osteosclerosis
C. Ankylosis
D. Normal bone resorption

A

D. Normal bone resorption

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90
Q

The defensive role of the gingival tissue fluid against microbial invasion is EXCEPT:

A. Carries PMNs to sulcus
B. Carries fibroblast to the sulcus
C. Carries antibodies to the sulcus
D. Flushes our contents of the sulcus

A

B. Carries fibroblast to the sulcus

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91
Q

The probing attachment level is the distance from:

A. The incisal or occlusal edge at the bottom of the pocket
B. The cemento-enamel junction to the crest of gingiva
C. The crest of gingiva to the bottom of the pocket
D. The cemento-enamel junction to the bottom of the pocket

A

D. The cemento-enamel junction to the bottom of the pocket

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92
Q

Which of the following bone defects has the best potential for regenerative procedures?

A. Suprabony pockets
B. Three-wall infrabony pocket
C. Two-wall infrabony pocket
D. One-wall infrabony pocket

A

B. Three-wall infrabony pocket

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93
Q

Lateral or accessory canals are filled by which of the following?

A. Cotton points
B. Bone formation
C. Bone resorption
D. Inhibits bone resorption

A

D. Inhibits bone resorption

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94
Q

The predominant inflammatory cell in the early lesion of periodontal disease:

A. Neutrophil
B. Plasma cell
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophil

A

A. Neutrophil

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95
Q

The predominant inflammatory cell in the early lesion of periodontal disease:

A. Neutrophil
B. Plasma cell
C. Lymphocytes
D. Basophil

A

A. Neutrophil

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96
Q

Which of these materials is used pulpotomy or pulp capping procedure?

A. Composite resins
B. Calcium hydroxide paste
C. Light cured composite filling resins
D. Zinc oxide eugenol cement

A

B. Calcium hydroxide paste

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97
Q

The requirements of the primary gutta-percha cone fit are:

A. Must fill the accessory canal
B. Have a good ‘tug back’ in the apical third of canal
C. Impossible to force beyond the apical foramen
D. Fit in the full length of the canal

A

A. Must fill the accessory canal

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98
Q

Fibrotic gingival enlargement are best treated by:

A. Inverse bevel periodontal flap
B. Scaling and root planing
C. Widman’s flap
D. Gingivectomy

A

D. Gingivectomy

99
Q

A patient complaining of a severe dental pain in porcelain fixed partial denture extending from mandibular right to left cuspid, radiographs did nit show any apical or periodontal bone loss. Clinically, there is no probable pocket or cavity under crowns. Which of these lesions would you consider diagnostic in this condition?

A. Acute pulpitis
B. Acute apical abscess
C. Hypersensitivity to porcelain crown
D. Chronic pulpitis

A

A. Acute pulpitis

100
Q

The col is found in which gingiva?

A. Marginal gingiva
B. Alveolar mucosa
C. Interdental papilla
D. Attached gingiva

A

C. Interdental papilla

101
Q

The predominant microorganisms found in juvenile periodontitis is:

A. Prevotella intermidus
B. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
C. Porphyromonas gingivalis
D. Eikenella corrodens

A

B. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

102
Q

Endodontically treated posterior teeth are more susceptible to fracture than untreated posterior teeth because:

A. Weakened crown due to loss tooth substance
B. Root is non-vital
C. Tooth is dehydrated
D. Enamel is brittle

A

A. Weakened crown due to loss tooth substance

103
Q

Which flap design gives good access to the operative site and least likely to produce an unslightly scar in periapical surgery:

A. Envelope flap
B. Semilunar flap
C. Trapezoid flap
D. L-shaped flap

A

C. Trapezoid flap

104
Q

The treatment of choice for an acute alveolar abscess with severe pain:

A. Administer antibiotics
B. Take tooth out of occlusion
C. Debride the pulp space and establish drainage to the pulp
D. Apply hot compress

A

C. Debride the pulp space and establish drainage to the pulp

105
Q

These microorganisms are implicated in the etiology or acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis EXCEPT:

A. Treponema
B. Bacteroides
C. Actinomycetemcomitans
D. Fusiform bacilli

A

C. Actinomycetemcomitans

106
Q

What nerve/nerves would you anesthetized to extirpate the pulp of the upper left central incisor with an apical pathologic lesion as a sequel to pulpitis?

A. No need to anesthetize
B. Anterior superior alveolar nerve and nasopalatine nerve
C. Anterior and middle superior alveolar nerve
D. Anterior superior alveolar nerve

A

A. No need to anesthetize

107
Q

Herpetic gingivostomatitis is caused by?

A. Herpes zoster virus
B. Herpes simplex B virus
C. Rubella virus
D. Herpes simplex A virus

A

D. Herpes simplex A virus

108
Q

Decalcified freeze dried bone used as an osteogenic induction in regenerative periodontal procedure is a form of?

A. Isograft
B. Alloplast
C. Allograft
D. Autograft

A

C. Allograft

109
Q

Sodium hypochlorite has the following functions in endodontic therapy EXCEPT?

A. A lubricant for root canal instrumentation
B. An antiseptic
C. An organic solvent
D. A chelating agent

A

D. A chelating agent

110
Q

The microflora of a clinically healthy gingival sulcus is predominantly?

A. Gram-positive facultative rods and spirochetes
B. Spirochetes and yeast
C. Gram negative anaerobic rods and spirochetes
D. Gram positive facultative cocci and rods

A

D. Gram positive facultative cocci and rods

111
Q

The part of interdental papilla that extends from the buccal to the lingual peak is?

A. Col
B. Alveolar mucosa
C. Stippled gingiva
D. Crevice

A

A. Col

112
Q

Which of this is used after periodontal surgery to protect the wound?

A. ZOE Pack
B. Collagen pack
C. Gorotex
D. Gelfoam

A

A. ZOE Pack

113
Q

Endotoxins are the lipopolysachharides component of the cell wall of:

A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
D. Neither Gram-positive nor Gram-negative bacteria

A

B. Gram-negative bacteria

114
Q

Which of these indices is recommended by the WHO and FDI for the assessment of periodontal treatment needs:

A. CPITIN
B. OHIS
C. PTNS
D. PSE

A

A. CPITIN

115
Q

Which is the most effective and convenient method of maintaining sterility of endodontic reamers and files during treatment.

A. Alcohol-ethyl
B. Glass bead sterilizer
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Autoclave

A

D. Autoclave

116
Q

The periodontium consists of two mineralized and
two unmineralized tissues. They are as follows:

a. Cementum and alveolar bone; periodontal
ligament and gingiva
b. Dentin and alveolar bone; periodontal
ligament and gingiva
c. Gingiva and enamel; dentin and alveolar
mucosa
d. Gingiva and cementum; junctional
epithelium and periodontal ligament

A

a. Cementum and alveolar bone; periodontal
ligament and gingiva

117
Q

Elaunin fibers are found in the:

a. Cementum
b. Periodontal ligament
c. Alveolar bone
d. Gingiva

A

b. Periodontal ligament

118
Q

Cementum tears occurs in:

a. Trauma
b. Clenching
c. Root planing
d. Deep bite

A

a. Trauma

119
Q

Which of the following can be described as coating of
non-development origin?

a. Reduced enamel epithelium
b. Dental plaque
c. Dental cuticle
d. Coronal cementum

A

b. Dental plaque

120
Q

The following statements about periodontal ligament
fibroblasts are true.

a. They are capable of synthesis and
resorption
b. They have migratory as well as contractile
properties
c. Both are true
d. Both are false

A

c. Both are true

121
Q

Which of the following is not a cell type of gingival
epithelium?

a. Keratinocyte
b. Lymphocyte
c. Merkel cells
d. Langerhan’s cells
e. Melanocytes

A

b. Lymphocyte

122
Q

Which of the following is composed entirely of
densely packed bundles of Sharpey’s fibers and lacks
cells?

a. Acellular afibrillar cementum
b. Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum
c. Cellular mixed stratified cementum
d. Cellular intrinsic fiber cementum
e. Intermediate cementum

A

b. Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum

123
Q

________ are the principal fibers of the periodontal
ligament that are embedded in the cementum.

a. Gingival fibers
b. Oxytalan fibers
c. Muscle fibers
d. Sharpey’s fibers

A

d. Sharpey’s fibers

124
Q

Transseptal fibers extend between adjacent teeth
and are sometimes classified as periodontal fibers. Which of the following is not true about them?

a. They are not attached to alveolar crest
b. They are not found on the facial aspect
c. They are present on the buccal aspect
d. They maintain the integrity of the dental
arches

A

c. They are present on the buccal aspect

125
Q

A number small collagen fibers are associated with
the larger principal collagen fibers of the PDL. These
fibers run in all directions and form a plexus. What is
this plexus termed?

a. Elastin fiber plexus
b. Eluanin fiber plexus
c. Indifferent fiber plexus
d. Oxytalan fiber plexus

A

c. Indifferent fiber plexus

126
Q

Which of the following does not determine the colour
of the gingiva (attached and marginal)?

a. Degree of keratinization of the epithelium
b. Presence of pigment containing cells
c. Thickness of keratinization of the epithelium
d. Thickness of the sulcular epithelium
e. Vascular supply

A

c. Thickness of keratinization of the epithelium

127
Q

The periodontal ligament is thinnest around:

a. Coronal third of roots
b. Middle third of roots
c. Apical third of roots
d. Furcation areas

A

b. Middle third of roots

128
Q

Higher innervation of periodontal ligament is noted
in:

a. Coronal third
b. Middle third
c. Apical third
d. Furcation area

A

c. Apical third

129
Q

Which of the following is not true about the gingival
connective tissue?

a. Eosinophils are in abundance
b. It consists of collagen fibers (60%) and
matrix (35%)
c. It consists of collagen, reticular and elastic
fibers
d. It is also known as lamina propria, consists
of a papillary layer with reticular layer
e. Its main cellular type is fibroblast

A

a. Eosinophils are in abundance

130
Q

Trauma from occlusion can produced radiographically
detectable changes in all of the following EXCEPT?

a. Lamina dura
b. Periodontal pockets
c. Width of the PDL space
d. Morphology of the alveolar crest
e. Density of the surrounding cancellous bone

A

b. Periodontal pockets

131
Q

The sulcular epithelium is a:

a. Thick, keratinized stratified squamous
epithelium without rete pegs
b. Thick, nonkeratinized stratified squamous
epithelium with rete pegs
c. Thin, keratinized nonstratified squamous
epithelium with rete pegs
d. Thin, nonkeratinized stratified squamous
epithelium without rete pegs

A

d. Thin, nonkeratinized stratified squamous
epithelium without rete pegs

132
Q

Specific bacteria are implicated in periodontal disease
and are commonly found at the site of infection. The
Orange complex of bacteria consists of all of the
following EXCEPT:

a. Fusobacterium
b. Prevotella
c. Porphyromonas gingivalis
d. Campylobacter species

A

c. Porphyromonas gingivalis

133
Q

At least two-thirds of the inorganic component of
calculus is crystalline in structure. Of the four main
crystal forms, which one is more common in the
posterior area?

a. Magnesium whitlockite
b. Brushite
c. Octocalcium phosphate
d. Hydroxyapatite

A

a. Magnesium whitlockite

134
Q

The perforating canals seen in alveolar bone proper
are called:

a. Haversian canals
b. Volkmann’s canals
c. Lamellar canals
d. Howship’s canals

A

b. Volkmann’s canals

135
Q

Total absence of cementum is noted in:

a. Hypoparathyroidism
b. Rickets
c. Hypophosphatasia
d. Scurvy

A

c. Hypophosphatasia

136
Q

The most numerous group of fibers in PDL are:

a. Alveolar crest group
b. Interradicular group
c. Oblique group
d. Horizontal group

A

c. Oblique group

137
Q

In which of the embrasure types, the interdental
papilla is missing and the embrasure space is not filled
by the papilla?

a. Type I embrasure
b. Type II embrasure
c. Type III embrasure
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

c. Type III embrasure

138
Q

The width of the attached gingiva is defined as the
distance between the ________ and the projection
on the external surface of the bottom of the
________.

a. Mucogingival junction; gingival
sulcus/periodontal pocket
b. Free gingival groove; gingival sulcus
c. Junctional epithelium; sulcular epithelium
d. Gingival crest; periodontal pocket

A

a. Mucogingival junction; gingival
sulcus/periodontal pocket

139
Q

Which of the following is generally associated with
marginal gingival recession?

a. Abfraction
b. Abrasion
c. Attrition
d. Erosion

A

b. Abrasion

140
Q

Which of the following is an important constituent of
gram-negative microorganisms that contributes to
initiation of the host inflammatory response?

a. Exotoxin
b. Lipoteichoic acid
c. Endotoxin
d. Peptidoglycan

A

c. Endotoxin

141
Q

Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells?

a. Neutrophils
b. T lymphocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Plasma cells

A

c. Macrophages

142
Q

Which of the following are the MOST important
proteinases involved in destruction of the periodontal
tissues?

a. Hyaluronidase
b. Matrix metalloproteinases
c. Glucuronidase
d. Serine proteinases

A

b. Matrix metalloproteinases

143
Q

In suprabony pockets:

a. The bone loss is vertical in nature
b. The bone loss is horizontal in nature
c. Transseptal fibers are oblique rather than
horizontal
d. Supracrestal fibers follow angular pattern of
adjacent bone

A

b. The bone loss is horizontal in nature

144
Q

How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an
interproximal area?

a. It should be parallel to the long axis of the
tooth at the point angle
b. It should be parallel to the long axis of the
tooth at the contact area
c. It should touch the contact area and the tip
should angle slightly beneath and beyond
the contact area
d. It should be perpendicular to the long axis
of the tooth in front of the contact area

A

c. It should touch the contact area and the tip
should angle slightly beneath and beyond
the contact area

145
Q

The most accepted theory as to the cause of root
sensitivity is the:

a. Bayer’s theory
b. Chemiosmotic theory
c. Hydrodynamic theory
d. Quantum theory

A

c. Hydrodynamic theory

146
Q

The most important factor in the control of
hypersensitive roots among patients with periodontal
disease after gingival recession has exposed the
cervical portions of teeth is:

a. Prescription of home fluoride rinses
b. Minimal removal of tooth structure during
root planing
c. The application of desensitizing agents that
contain fluoride
d. Thorough daily plaque control

A

d. Thorough daily plaque control

147
Q

The cause of scorbutic gingivitis is ________.

a. Protein deficiency
b. Microorganism
c. Vitamin C deficiency
d. Hormonal imbalance

A

c. Vitamin C deficiency

148
Q

Isolated, denuded areas devoid of marginal bone is
called:

a. Fenestration
b. Dehiscence
c. Boneless window
d. Lacunar resorption

A

b. Dehiscence

149
Q

Which of the following is a temperature receptor in
gingiva?

a. Encapsulated spindles
b. Krause-type end bulbs
c. Merkel’s cells
d. Meissner-type corpuscles

A

b. Krause-type end bulbs

150
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of increase in
GCF?

a. Gingival inflammation
b. Healing phase of periodontal surgery
c. Pregnancy
d. Smoking
e. Trauma from occlusion

A

e. Trauma from occlusion

151
Q

Which of the following are the predominant immune
cell type seen in Initial Lesion of gingivitis?

a. Lymphocytes
b. Merkel’s cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

152
Q

Which of the following are the predominant immune
cell type seen in Early Lesion of gingivitis?

a. Lymphocytes
b. Merkel’s cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

a. Lymphocytes

153
Q

What is a plasma cell?

a. A mature B cell
b. A mature T cell
c. A naïve B cell
d. A naïve T cell

A

a. A mature B cell

154
Q

The calcified bodies sometimes found in the
periodontal ligament are best described as which of
the following?

a. Bone
b. Enamel pearl
c. Denticles
d. Cementicles

A

d. Cementicles

155
Q

What is the predominantly seen cell in the
inflammatory exudates of an acute periodontal
abscess?

a. Lymphocytes
b. Mast cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Neutrophils

A

d. Neutrophils

156
Q

Which one of the following statements best describes the value of stippling as a diagnostic aid in gingival
inflammation?

a. The presence of stippling always indicates a
total lack of gingival inflammation
b. The absence of stippling is always indicative
of gingival inflammation
c. The absence of stippling is never a
diagnostic sign of inflammation
d. The lack of stippling may not be considered
a sign of inflammation unless stippling is
known to have been present previously
e. In order for gingiva to be truly healthy,
stippling must always be present

A

d. The lack of stippling may not be considered
a sign of inflammation unless stippling is
known to have been present previously

157
Q

The predominant microorganisms in the first 24 hours
of plaque formation are:

a. Vibrios
b. Filaments
c. Spirochetes and vibrios
d. Rods and cocci
e. Filaments and cocci

A

d. Rods and cocci

158
Q

Smokers demonstrate more orange and red microbial
complexes. Smokers have an increase in T. forsythia
levels.

a. Both are true
b. Both are false
c. First is true, second is false
d. First is false, second is true

A

a. Both are true

159
Q

Diseases that present clinically as desquamative
gingivitis included all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Lichen planus
b. Pemphigoid
c. Leukemia
d. Chronic ulcerative stomatitis
e. Lupus erythematosus

A

c. Leukemia

160
Q

Which of the following is most significant in regard to
the prognosis of a periodontally involved tooth?

a. Pocket depth
b. Attachment loss
c. Anatomical crown length
d. Bleeding on probing

A

b. Attachment loss

161
Q

Which of the following is true in relation to Materia
Alba?

a. Yellow or grayish white
b. Soft accumulations of bacteria and tissue
cells
c. Lack organized structure of plaque
d. Easily displaced by water spray
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

A

e. All of the above

162
Q

Which mechanism of biofilm makes possible the
movement of nutrients to the bacteria?

a. Endotoxin
b. Extracellular matrix
c. Fluid channels
d. Quorum

A

c. Fluid channels

163
Q

The “ red complex” bacteria are:

a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans,
Ekinella corrodens, Porphyromonas
gingivalis
b. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans,
Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema
denticola
c. Bacteriodes forsythus, ekinella corrodens,
porphyromonas denticola
d. Tannerella forsythia, Treponema denticola,
Porphyromonas gingivalis

A

d. Tannerella forsythia, Treponema denticola,
Porphyromonas gingivalis

164
Q

In dental plaque, gram-positive bacteria excrete
Vitamin K analogues and succinic acid. Which bacteria
utilizes and metabolizes them?

a. Fusobacterium sp
b. Neisseria sp
c. P. gingivalis
d. Veillonella sp

A

c. P. gingivalis

165
Q

Which of the following bacteria can substitute
progesterone or estradiol for Vitamin K as an
essential growth factor?

a. P. gingivalis
b. Fusobacterium sp
c. P. intermedia
d. Eikenella corrodens

A

c. P. intermedia

166
Q

Which of the following oral microorganisms use
Hemin iron derived from the breakdown of host
haemoglobin?

a. P. intermedia
b. P. gingivalis
c. P. melanogenicus
d. Wollinella recta

A

b. P. gingivalis

167
Q

Which of the following microorganism reportedly is
seen in increased numbers in the mouths of children
with Down syndrome?

a. Prevotella intermedia
b. Porphyromonas gingivalis
c. Fusobacterium nucleatum
d. Tanerella forsythia

A

a. Prevotella intermedia

168
Q

Which of the following diagnostic aid is considered
as gold standard for microbial assessment?

a. DNA probe
b. Latex agglutination
c. Bacterial culture
d. Perioscan

A

c. Bacterial culture

169
Q

BANA test measures activity of:

a. Elastase
b. Cathepsin
c. Amylase
d. Trypsin like enzyme

A

d. Trypsin like enzyme

170
Q

Periodontitis is classified based on extent as localized
and generalized. What is the percentage of sites to be
involved for the disease to be considered as localized?

a. ≤30%
b. ≥30%
c. <30%
d. 30%

A

a. ≤30%

171
Q

Periodontitis can be classified on the basis of severity
of clinical attachment loss. Severity of periodontitis is
characterized depending on the amount of clinical
attachment loss. What amount of clinical attachment
loss in severe/advanced attachment loss?

a. 1 or 2 mm
b. 3 or 4 mm
c. ≥ 5mm
d. ≤ 5mm

A

c. ≥ 5mm

172
Q

A 44-year-old patient presents a third of the dentition
with 5 mm of clinical attachment loss, bleeding upon
probing, none of the teeth being mobile, and probing
depths ranging between 4 and 6 mm. What is the
most probable diagnosis?

a. Localized chronic moderate periodontitis
b. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis
c. Localized chronic severe periodontitis
d. Generalized chronic moderate periodontitis
e. None of the above

A

b. Generalized chronic severe periodontitis

173
Q

Which of the features are commonly shared by
generalized and localized forms aggressive
periodontitis?

a. Otherwise clinically healthy patients
b. Rapid attachment loss
c. Rapid bone destruction
d. Familial aggregation
e. All of the above
f. None of the above

A

e. All of the above

174
Q

Which of the following is not among the tissueinvading microorganisms seen in LAP?

a. A. actinomycetemcomitans
b. Capnocytophaga sputigena
c. Mycoplasma species
d. Spirochetes
e. Staphylococcus aureus

A

e. Staphylococcus aureus

175
Q

Which of the following is not a secondary feature
seen in both forms of aggressive periodontitis?

a. Dental plaque inconsistent with severity of
destruction
b. Hyperresponsive macrophage phenotype
c. Phagocyte abnormalities
d. Rapid periodontal attachment loss

A

d. Rapid periodontal attachment loss

176
Q

Which of the following is the best storage medium for
a tooth that has been traumatically avulsed and will
be out of its socket for more than an hour?

A. Milk
B. Tap water
C. Distilled water
D. Hydrogen peroxide

A

A. Milk - maximum storage for 6hrs. 6.5-6.8pH

Hank solution - best storage media for avulsed teeth

177
Q

Which of the following increase with age in the dental
pulp?

A. Number of cells (decrease)
B. Blood circulation
C. Collagen fibers
D. Size of chamber (decrease)

A

C. Collagen fibers

178
Q

The MOST effective means to eliminate canal
infection is

A. Systemic antibiotic coverage
B. Chemomechanical debridement
C. Irrigation with 2% Chlorhexidine
D. Canal medication with Calcium Hydroxide

A

B. Chemomechanical debridement - most crucial aspect of RCT

179
Q

The earliest and most common symptom of an acute
pulpitis is:

A. Dull throbbing sensation
B. Pain upon chewing - symptomatic apical periodontitis
C. Thermal sensitivity
D. Discomfort on palpation

A

C. Thermal sensitivity

180
Q

All of the following are characteristics of pulpal A (large)
delta fibers, EXCEPT:

A. High threshold
B. Fast transmission - C Fibers, small, unmyelinated, if dominates = irreversible local tissue dmg
C. Peripheral location
D. Thick myelination

A

A. High threshold

181
Q

All of the following are characteristics of pulpal A (large)
delta fibers, EXCEPT:

A. High threshold
B. Fast transmission - C Fibers, small, unmyelinated, if dominates = irreversible local tissue dmg
C. Peripheral location
D. Thick myelination

A

A. High threshold

182
Q

The ideal extent of the root canal filling is

A. Beyond the apical foramen to allow
shrinkage of the material
B. Flush with the radiographic apex
C. To the dentinocemental junction
D. 2-3 mm short of the apex

A

C. To the dentinocemental junction - apical constriction

183
Q

Lingering pain even after the removal of thermal
stimulation indicates

A. Normal pulp
B. Reversible pulpitis - strong, momentary pain
C. Irreversible pulpitis - symptomatic
D. Necrotic pulp - unstimulated night pain

A

C. Irreversible pulpitis - symptomatic

184
Q

In root fractures of the apical one-third of permanent
anterior teeth, the teeth usually

A. Discolor rapidly
B. Remain in function and are vital
C. Undergo resorption or become ankylosed
A. Are indicated for extraction

A

B. Remain in function and are vital

185
Q

30 mins ago, Vance sustained an injury to the anterior
maxillary region after getting into a fight. His main
concern at the moment is slight mobility of tooth #21.
Upon examination, bleeding was observed around
the gumline but the tooth is intact. It weakly responds
to EPT and elicits pain on percussion. Immediate
treatment is?

A. Root canal treatment
B. Extraction
C. Splint
D. Observe

A

C. Splint

186
Q

The continued physiologic development and
formation of the root apex as a result of pulp vitality
preservation is called

A. Regeneration
B. Revascularization
C. Apexification - induces further root development in a pulpless tooth
D. Apexogenesis

A

D. Apexogenesis

187
Q

Which of the following is the procedure of choice
when a broken endodontic instrument protrudes past
the apex of a tooth?

A. Obturate and observe - apical 3rd
B. Obturate and retrieve surgically
C. Extract the tooth
D. None of the above

A

B. Obturate and retrieve surgically

188
Q

The principal component of gutta percha endodontic
filling points

A. Gutta percha matrix
B. Zinc oxide filler
C. Metal sulfate opacifier - for radio opacity
D. Resin plasticizer

A

B. Zinc oxide filler

189
Q

Pain that is intensified by a hot stimulus but is relieved by cold suggests?

A. Reversible pulp inflammation
B. Periodontal involvement
C. Developing pulp necrosis
D. External root resorption

A

C. Developing pulp necrosis

190
Q

Radiographs of a 28-year-old female revealed
radiolucent areas around several mandibular anterior
teeth, all of which tested vital on the electric pulp
tester. These areas represent

A. Multiple granulomas
B. Cemental dysplasia
C. Periapical cysts
D. Periapical abscess

A

B. Cemental dysplasia

191
Q

The presence of a sinus tract is indicative of?

A. Chronic irreversible pulpitis
B. Chronic apical periodontitis
C. Chronic apical abscess
D. Acute apical absces

A

C. Chronic apical abscess

192
Q

In replanting an avulsed tooth, the MOST critical
factor in preventing root resorption is?

A. Cleanliness of the root structure
B. Time elapsed prior to replanting the tooth
C. Presence or absence of an open apical
foramen
D. Splinting the tooth with a wire immediately

A

B. Time elapsed prior to replanting the tooth

193
Q

In most cases where an endodontic-periodontal
therapy is indicated on a tooth, which is performed
first?

A. Endodontic therapy
B. Periodontal therapy
C. Either, order does not matter
D. Both must be performed on the same
appointment

A

A. Endodontic therapy

194
Q

The minimally acceptable restoration for an
endodontically-treated maxillary first premolar is
a(n)

A. Onlay
B. Full crown
C. MOD Class II amalgam
D. Inlay

A

A. Onlay

195
Q

A radicular cyst (pre-existing granuloma) is always associated with

A. Deep caries
B. History of trauma
C. Vital teeth
D. Non-vital teeth

A

D. Non-vital teeth

196
Q

More than one main canal occurs a significant percent
of the time in the

A. Maxillary first molar palatal root
B. Mandibular second molar distal root
C. Maxillary central incisor
D. Mandibular lateral incisor

A

D. Mandibular lateral incisor - 30%

197
Q

The recommended intracanal medicament in
endodontics is:

A. Phenol
B. Camphor monochlorophenol
C. Formocresol - pulpotomy
D. N2 normal

A

B. Camphor monochlorophenol

198
Q

The recommended intracanal medicament in
endodontics is:

A. Phenol
B. Camphor monochlorophenol
C. Formocresol - pulpotomy
D. N2 normal

A

B. Camphor monochlorophenol

199
Q

Which tooth-access cavity outline form is
mismatched?

A. #13 - Ovoid
B. #22 - Triangular
C. #36 - Rhomboid
D. #47 - Trapezoidal

A

C. #36 - Rhomboid (it should be OVOID)

200
Q

If a mandibular first molar has an extra root, it would
be called a

A. Mesiobuccal root
B. Mesiolingual root
C. Distobuccal root
D. Distolingual root

A

D. Distolingual root

201
Q

When root canal instruments (files and reamers) are
placed in a glass bead sterilizer at 450oF, they should
be soaked in the sterilizer for

A. 5 secs
B. 15 secs
C. 30 secs
D. 60 secs

A

B. 15 secs (average is 10 seconds)

202
Q

When root canal instruments (files and reamers) are
placed in a glass bead sterilizer at 450oF, they should
be soaked in the sterilizer for

A. 5 secs
B. 15 secs
C. 30 secs
D. 60 secs

A

B. 15 secs (average is 10 seconds)

203
Q

Most useful in differentiating between an acute apical
abscess and an acute periodontal abscess is

A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Radiograph
D. Pulp vitality test

A

D. Pulp vitality test

204
Q

Internal resorption should be treated by?

A. Extraction
B. Periodic recall
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy

A

D. Pulpectomy

205
Q

Internal resorption should be treated by?

A. Extraction
B. Periodic recall
C. Pulpotomy
D. Pulpectomy

A

D. Pulpectomy

206
Q

The primary purpose of the endodontic access
opening is to:

A. Remove the coronal pulp tissue
B. Enable location of the canal orifices
C. Allow for removal of the canal contents
D. Establish a straight path to the apical
segment

A

D. Establish a straight path to the apical segment - straight line access

207
Q

A patient of record calls late Friday night because of
severe throbbing pain aggravated by “heat, biting,
and touching” in a mandibular premolar. Immediate
action is to?

A. Instruct her to apply ice intermittently, take
an analgesic, and call Monday for an
appointment
B. See her at the office and initiate endodontic
treatment
C. See her at the office, remove the carious
dentin, and place a sedative Zinc Oxide
Eugenol cement
D. Refer her to the hospital oral surgery
department for extraction

A

B. See her at the office and initiate endodontic
treatment

208
Q

The bacterial flora of an infected previously treated
endodontic tooth is best characterized as:

A. Gram negative strict anaerobes
B. Gram positive facultative anaerobes
C. Gram negative facultative anaerobes
D. Gram positive strict anaerobes

A

B. Gram positive facultative anaerobes (Enterococcus Faecalis)

209
Q

Which of the ff. canals in a maxillary first molar is
usually the most difficult to locate?

A. Palatal
B. Distobuccal
C. Mesiobuccal
D. All are easy to find

A

C. Mesiobuccal

210
Q

Which of the ff has the POOREST prognosis for a
traumatized tooth?

A. Vertical fracture of the root
B. Horizontal fracture of the apical third
C. Oblique fracture involving the pulp
D. Coronal fracture level with the gingiva

A

A. Vertical fracture of the root

211
Q

The orifice to the fourth canal in a maxillary molar is
usually found?

A. Under the distobuccal cusp
B. Palatal to the orifice of the mesiobuccal
canal
C. Mesial to the orifice of the mesiobuccal
canal
D. As a second palatal orifice designated as P2

A

B. Palatal to the orifice of the mesiobuccal
canal

212
Q

What surgical procedure is indicated following
endodontic therapy on a mandibular molar having
both periodontal furcation involvement and
extensive furcation caries?

A. Bicuspidization
B. Root amputation
C. Trephination
D. Apical curettage

A

A. Bicuspidization

213
Q

Smooth broach is used in 2022 of Jan.

A. Debridement
B. Enlargement
C. Obturation
D. Exploration

A

D. Exploration

214
Q

A 9-y.o. boy has a mid-crown fracture in a permanent
maxillary central incisor. The fracture was sustained
in an accident that occurred several months ago. The
pulp is now necrotic. Radiographic examination
reveals an incompletely formed root with an open
apex. Treatment of choice is?

A. Immediate root canal therapy
B. Formocresol pulpotomy
C. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
D. Apexification with CaOH

A

D. Apexification with CaOH

215
Q

Replacement resorption is characterized by

A. Pain
B. Pinkish coronal appearance
C. Apical radiolucency
D. Ankylosis of the tooth

A

D. Ankylosis of the tooth

216
Q

Cells of the pulp from which new odontoblasts can
differentiate to bridge an accidental pulp exposure

A. Macrophages
B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
C. Schwann cells
D. Fibroblasts

A

B. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

217
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of mineral
trioxide aggregate (MTA), a retrofilling material?

A. Non-resorbable
B. Short setting time
C. Biocompatible
D. Radiopaque

A

B. Short setting time

218
Q

The safest and most commonly used nonvital
bleaching technique for endodontically-treated teeth

A. Thermocatalytic technique
B. Walking bleach technique
C. LED light power bleaching
D. Custom tray technique

A

B. Walking bleach technique

219
Q

Pain accompanying the inflammatory reaction of pulp
tissue may result from

A. High pH environment produced
B. Pressure due to tissue exudate
C. Direct blood vessel damage
D. Loss of tissue function

A

B. Pressure due to tissue exudate

220
Q

Pain accompanying the inflammatory reaction of pulp
tissue may result from

A. High pH environment produced
B. Pressure due to tissue exudate
C. Direct blood vessel damage
D. Loss of tissue function

A

B. Pressure due to tissue exudate

221
Q

For a standard apicoectomy procedure to be successful,
all of the following must be fulfilled EXCEPT?

A. Bur must be perpendicular to the tooth axis
during resection
B. Apical 3 mm of the root apex must be
resected
C. Zinc-free amalgam is a good retrofill
material
D. Root end filling must be plugged 1 mm from
the new apex

A

D. Root end filling must be plugged 1 mm from
the new apex

222
Q

The primary function of a root canal medicament,
such as CMCP, is to

A. Sterilize the root canal
B. Selectively destroy certain types of bacteria
in the root canal
C. Maintain an environment not conducive to
bacterial growth
D. Act as a palliative to periapical tissues
irritated by instrumentation

A

C. Maintain an environment not conducive to
bacterial growth

223
Q

Lateral compaction of gutta percha points during
obturation is done with a

A. Long-handled plugger
B. Finger spreader
C. Lentulo spiral
D. Heated instrument

A

B. Finger spreader

224
Q

In Endodontics, sodium hypochlorite may be used
effectively as _____________________.

A. A tissue builder
B. A chelating agent
C. An antimicrobial agent
D. An anodyne dressing

A

C. An antimicrobial agent

225
Q

The most probable reason for high failure rate of root
canal therapy of a mandibular incisor is the

A. High incidence of two canals
B. High incidence of accessory canals
C. Common distal curvature of the root
D. Narrow mesiodistal dimension of the canal

A

A. High incidence of two canals

226
Q

Gutta percha is similar to:

A. Silk
B. Rubber
C. Nylon
D. Glass

A

B. Rubber

227
Q

True of rotary instrumentation, except:

A. Less apical extrusion of debris
B. Reduced procedural errors
C. Improved tactile sensation
D. Ideal tapering of canal

A

C. Improved tactile sensation

228
Q

Which of the following should NOT be a practice in endodontic therapy to prevent accidental aspiration of
endodontic instruments?

A. Tie strings to the handles of files and
reamers
B. Use of rubber dam
C. Hold reamers and files with cotton plier
D. Use of rubber glove

A

C. Hold reamers and files with cotton plier

229
Q

True regarding treatment of tooth presenting with a
sinus tract?

A. Treat with conventional root canal therapy
B. Antibiotics are not needed
C. The sinus tract should heal in 2-4 weeks
after conventional root canal therapy
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

230
Q

A barbed broach is most useful for _______________.

A. Removal of vital tissue from fine canals
B. Coronal orifice enlargement before
establishing the correct working length
C. Initial planing of the canal walls
D. Removal of cotton, paper points, and other objects from the canal

A

D. Removal of cotton, paper points, and other objects from the canal

231
Q

Appropriate time for obturation is
____________.

A. Before post cementation
B. When the tooth is symptomatic
C. When the canal has eased to exude tissue fluid
D. When the canal is free from hemorrhage

A

C. When the canal has eased to exude tissue fluid

232
Q

The most important route of bacteria into the dental
pulp is from _____________________.

A. The gingival sulcus
B. Caries
C. Anachoresis
D. The blood stream

A

B. Caries

233
Q

The 02 taper on standardized hand K
-files denotes

A. 0.2 mm increase in diameter per 1 mm
increase in length
B. 0.02 mm increase in diameter per 1 mm
increase in length
C. 0.2 mm increase in diameter per 2 mm
increase in length
D. 0.02 mm increase in diameter per 2 mm
increase in length

A

B. 0.02 mm increase in diameter per 1 mm
increase in length

234
Q

The 02 taper on standardized hand K
-files denotes

A. 0.2 mm increase in diameter per 1 mm
increase in length
B. 0.02 mm increase in diameter per 1 mm
increase in length
C. 0.2 mm increase in diameter per 2 mm
increase in length
D. 0.02 mm increase in diameter per 2 mm
increase in length

A

B. 0.02 mm increase in diameter per 1 mm
increase in length

235
Q

What is the treatment of choice for an 8-y.o. patient
who has 1 mm intrusion injury of tooth #8?

A. Extract the tooth
B. Perform pulpotomy immediately
C. Splint the tooth for 10-14 days immediately
D. Allow the tooth to re-erupt

A

D. Allow the tooth to re-erupt

236
Q

Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers to
make the sealers __________.

A. Antibacterial
B. Set hard
C. Set faster
D. Radiopaque

A

D. Radiopaque

237
Q

The purpose of electric pulp testing is to differentiate

A. Between pulpitis and periodontitis
B. Between vital and non-vital pulps
C. The stages of acute pulpitis
D. Between acute and chronic pulpitis

A

B. Between vital and non-vital pulps

238
Q

The following are indications for surgical endodontic
intervention EXCEPT ____________?

A. A non-negotiable canal with periapical
pathosis
B. Completely sealed root canal
C. Periapical lesion in a tooth with post and
core retained crown
D. A sinus tract that persists after repeated
treatment

A

B. Completely sealed root canal

239
Q

Which perforation location has the best prognosis?

A. Apical third of the root
B. Middle third of the root
C. Coronal third of the root
D. Floor of the pulp chamber

A

A. Apical third of the root

240
Q

Which of the following is ALWAYS associated with a
necrotic pulp?

A. Acute apical periodontitis
B. Chronic apical abscess
C. Both A and B
D. None of the choices

A

B. Chronic apical abscess

241
Q

Which of the following is ALWAYS associated with a
necrotic pulp?

A. Acute apical periodontitis
B. Chronic apical abscess
C. Both A and B
D. None of the choices

A

B. Chronic apical abscess

242
Q

Which of the following is ALWAYS associated with a
necrotic pulp?

A. Acute apical periodontitis
B. Chronic apical abscess
C. Both A and B
D. None of the choices

A

B. Chronic apical abscess

243
Q

The functions of a root canal sealer are the following
EXCEPT

A. Fill irregularities between filling material
and canal walls
B. Promotes secondary dentin formation
C. Binding agent for obturation material
D. Acts as a lubricant

A

B. Promotes secondary dentin formation

244
Q

The functions of a root canal sealer are the following
EXCEPT

A. Fill irregularities between filling material
and canal walls
B. Promotes secondary dentin formation
C. Binding agent for obturation material
D. Acts as a lubricant

A

B. Promotes secondary dentin formation

Doc Gwenny (9 decks)

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