DLE NOV-DEC 2024 Flashcards

Question

Baby measles A. Rubella B. Rubeola C. HSV 6 D. Pox virus

Answer 1

B. Rubeola Explanation: "Baby measles" is sometimes used to refer to Rubeola, which is the measles virus. However, it's worth noting that this term can be confusing, as Rubella is also sometimes referred to as "German measles". To clarify: Rubeola: Measles virus, sometimes referred to as "baby measles" Rubella: German measles, a different viral illness

Answer 2

D. Strep pneumoniae

Answer 3

A. Carbolfuchsin Explanation: Carbolfuchsin is the primary stain used in acid-fast staining, a technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The acid-fast staining procedure typically involves: *Primary staining with carbolfuchsin *Decolorization with acid-alcohol *Counterstaining with methylene blue or safranin The other options are not the primary stain: *Methylene blue (B) is often used as a counterstain *Crystal violet (C) is used in Gram staining, not acid-fast staining *Safranin (D) can be used as a counterstain, but not as the primary stain

Answer 4

C. Miliary tuberculosis Explanation: Miliary tuberculosis is characterized by numerous small, millet-seed-like lesions (typically 1-2 mm in diameter) scattered throughout the lungs, often seen on chest X-rays or CT scans. The term "miliary" comes from the resemblance of these lesions to millet seeds. The other options do not typically present with millet-seed-like lesions: *Klebsiella pneumoniae (A) causes lung abscesses and consolidation *Helicobacter pylori (B) is associated with gastric ulcers and gastritis *Nocardia asteroides (D) causes nocardiosis, which can present with lung nodules or abscesses, but not typically millet-seed-like lesions.

Answer 5

C. Eyepiece Explanation: In a microscope, the eyepiece (also known as the ocular lens) forms the secondary image that is seen by the observer. Here's how it works: 1. The objective lens collects light from the specimen and forms a primary image. 2. The primary image is then magnified by the eyepiece, forming a secondary image that is seen by the observer. The other options are not correct: *Condenser (A) focuses light onto the specimen. *Objectives (B) collect light from the specimen and form the primary image. *Coarse adjustment (D) is a knob used to focus the microscope, but it doesn't form an image.

Answer 6

A. Anterior crossbite Explanation: Anterior crossbite is indeed a common malocclusion seen in mixed dentition. An anterior crossbite occurs when one or more upper front teeth are trapped behind the lower front teeth, rather than in front of them.

Answer 7

A. Sialolithiasis Explanation: *Sialolithiasis, or salivary gland stones, is the most common cause of sialadenitis, which is inflammation of the salivary glands. Sialolithiasis can block the flow of saliva, leading to inflammation and infection of the gland. The other options are related to salivary gland disorders, but are not the most common cause of sialadenitis: *Sialodochitis is inflammation of the salivary gland ducts. *Sialadenitis is the inflammation itself, not the cause. *Sialosis is a non-inflammatory enlargement of the salivary glands.

Answer 8

A. Sialolithiasis Explanation: Sialolithiasis refers to the formation of a stone or calculus within the salivary gland or its ducts. The submandibular gland is a common location for sialolithiasis, and stones in this gland can cause pain, swelling, and difficulty swallowing. The other options are not directly related to stones in the submandibular gland: *Sialodochitis is inflammation of the salivary gland ducts. *Sialadenitis is inflammation of the salivary gland itself. *Sialosis is a non-inflammatory enlargement of the salivary glands.

Answer 9

C. Sialadenitis Explanation: Sialadenitis is inflammation of the salivary gland, which can be caused by bacterial or viral infections, blockage of the salivary gland ducts, or other factors. The other options are related to salivary gland disorders, but are not the correct term for inflammation: *Sialolithiasis refers to the formation of stones within the salivary gland or its ducts. *Sialodochitis is inflammation of the salivary gland ducts. *Sialosis is a non-inflammatory enlargement of the salivary glands.

Answer 10

B. Long buccal N Explanation: The long buccal nerve is a sensory nerve that arises from the anterior trunk of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3). It provides sensory innervation to the buccal mucosa and skin. The other options are not correct: *Lingual N (A) is a mixed nerve (sensory and motor) that arises from the mandibular division, but it is not solely sensory. *Auriculotemporal N (C) is a mixed nerve that arises from the mandibular division, but it is not solely sensory. *Inferior Alveolar N (D) is a mixed nerve that arises from the mandibular division, but it is not solely sensory.

Answer 11

D. Lateral nasal Explanation: The lateral nasal nerve, also known as the nasal branches of the ethmoidal nerve, is responsible for innervating the nasal mucosa, including the sinuses. Stimulation of the lateral nasal nerve can trigger sinusitis attacks, as well as other nasal symptoms. The other options are not directly responsible for triggering sinusitis attacks: *Infratrochlear nerve (A) provides sensory innervation to the bridge of the nose and the upper eyelid. *Nasopalatine nerve (B) provides sensory innervation to the anterior palate and nasal septum. *Ethmoidal nerve (C) provides sensory innervation to the ethmoidal sinuses, but it's not the primary nerve responsible for triggering sinusitis attacks.

Answer 12

C. Bochdalek ganglion Explanation: The Bochdalek ganglion is a small parasympathetic ganglion located in the pterygopalatine fossa, between the anterior superior alveolar nerve (ASAN) and the middle superior alveolar nerve (MSAN).

Answer 13

B. 0.97 Explanation: The junctional epithelium is a specialized epithelial structure that forms the dento-gingival junction, and its width is approximately 0.97 mm.

Answer 14

C. Lucidum Explanation: Ang layer ng skin na wala sa gingiva ay ang stratum lucidum. Ito ay isang transparent na layer na matatagpuan sa pagitan ng stratum corneum at stratum granulosum sa balat, ngunit wala ito sa gingiva. Ang iba pang mga layer ng skin na nabanggit ay mayroon sa gingiva: *Stratum basale - ang pinakamababang layer ng epithelium *Stratum germinativum - ang layer kung saan nangyayari ang paglaki ng mga cell *Stratum granulosum - ang layer kung saan nangyayari ang pagkakaroon ng mga granules sa mga cell

Answer 15

D. Mand 2m Explanation: Ang mandibular second molar (Mand 2m) ay kilala sa pagkakaroon ng C-shaped canal. Ito ay isang uri ng root canal na may C-shaped na hugis, na nagpapahirap sa proseso ng endodontic treatment. Ang ibang mga opsyon ay hindi tama: *Max canine - ang canine teeth sa itaas ay may iisang root canal. *Max 1pm - ang unang premolar sa itaas ay may dalawang root canals. *Mand canine - ang canine teeth sa ibaba ay may iisang root canal.

Answer 16

B. Advocate of health programs Explanation: As advocates, Barangay Health Workers (BHWs) promote health programs, services, and policies to the community, encouraging people to adopt healthy behaviors and practices. They also help raise awareness about health issues, diseases, and prevention strategies, making them a crucial link between the community and the healthcare system.

Answer 17

C. Maxillary canine Explanation: A maxillary canine typically has two antagonists: 1. Mandibular canine (direct antagonist) 2. Mandibular first premolar (indirect antagonist) So, the maxillary canine comes into contact with both the mandibular canine and the mandibular first premolar during occlusion.

Answer 18

C. Canine Explanation: The maxillary canine teeth are typically characterized by a prominent labial ridge, which is a raised area on the front (labial) surface of the tooth. This labial ridge is a distinctive feature of canine teeth.

Answer 19

b. Establish unresponsiveness Explanation: The first step in helping an unconscious victim is to establish unresponsiveness, which means checking if the person is truly unresponsive. If the person is unresponsive, the next step would be to: 1. Call for emergency medical help (if you're alone with the victim) 2. Check the airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) 3. Start CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation) if necessary Option a, opening the airway, is crucial but should be done after establishing unresponsiveness. Options c and d are also important but not the first step.

Answer 20

B. Residual ridge Explanation: The residual ridge is the bony ridge that remains after tooth loss, and it plays a crucial role in supporting dentures or other prosthetic devices. In the upper jaw, the residual ridge is the primary stress-bearing area, as it helps to distribute the forces of chewing and biting. The other options are not correct because: *Median Raphe - is a fibrous structure that connects the two halves of the upper lip. *Rugae - are the irregular ridges and grooves found on the anterior part of the hard palate. *Incisive papilla - is a small bump located on the anterior part of the hard palate, just behind the upper central incisors.

Answer 21

C. Hydrogen Explanation: When polyvinylsiloxane (PVS) is mixed with additional silicone, a byproduct is formed. This byproduct is hydrogen gas.

Answer 22

Mepivacaine is the best answer.

Answer 23

Lidocaine with Epinephrine is preferred – Epinephrine acts as a bronchodilator, which can help with asthma symptoms.

Answer 24

D. 10th week

Answer 25

A. Genetics Explanation: Genetics is the most common cause of Class III malocclusion, particularly when it comes to skeletal Class III cases.

Answer 26

A. Both statements are true Explanation: 1. Aspirin for pain and to prevent heart attack or stroke → TRUE Aspirin (low dose, 81 mg daily) is used as an antiplatelet to prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of heart attack or stroke. It can also be used for pain relief, though other NSAIDs are often preferred for this purpose. 2. Ibuprofen (Advil) can make aspirin less effective in protecting your heart → TRUE Ibuprofen is also an NSAID, but it competes with aspirin at platelet receptors, reducing aspirin’s ability to prevent clot formation.Taking ibuprofen before aspirin blocks aspirin’s antiplatelet effect, which increases cardiovascular risk. 💡 Best Practice: If a patient needs to take both, aspirin should be taken at least 30 minutes before or 8 hours after ibuprofen to maintain its protective effect.

Answer 27

B. Benzocaine and lidocaine Explanation: 1. Benzocaine *An ester-type anesthetic commonly used in topical form (gel, spray, ointment). *Fast onset (30 seconds to 2 minutes) and provides short-term numbing. *Less risk of systemic toxicity but can cause methemoglobinemia in rare cases. 2. Lidocaine *An amide-type anesthetic, available in gel, ointment, or spray form. *Onset: 2–5 minutes with a longer duration than benzocaine. *Can be used as topical and injectable anesthetic. Why not the other choices? ❌ Mepivacaine – Used for injection only, not as a topical anesthetic. ❌ Procaine – An ester-type injectable anesthetic (Novocaine), rarely used in dentistry today.

Answer 28

Share You said: Px with heart problem lido w/o epi (since walang ganito) Mepi (best answer) Asthmatic px lido w/ epi (bronchodilator) ChatGPT said: ChatGPT It looks like you're reviewing local anesthetic choices for patients with specific conditions. Here's a breakdown: ✅ Patient with a heart problem: Avoid Lidocaine with Epinephrine (Epi can increase heart rate and BP). Mepivacaine (best choice) – No vasoconstrictor, safer for cardiac patients. ✅ Asthmatic patient: Lidocaine with Epinephrine is preferred – Epinephrine acts as a bronchodilator, which can help with asthma symptoms. Let me know if you need further clarification! 🚑💉 You said: In what week does muscle of mastication develops A. 5th week B. 7th week C. 9th week D. 10week ChatGPT said: ChatGPT The muscles of mastication develop from the first pharyngeal (branchial) arch, which begins forming early in embryonic development. ✅ Correct answer: A. 5th week The mesoderm of the first pharyngeal arch differentiates into the muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial & lateral pterygoid muscles). By the 7th week, these muscles begin to migrate and organize. Let me know if you need more details! 😊 You said: In what week does muscle of mastication develops is 10th week ChatGPT said: ChatGPT The muscles of mastication begin to develop from the first pharyngeal arch around the 5th week of embryonic development. However, they complete their differentiation and functional development by the 10th week. So, if the question asks when they start developing, the answer is 5th week. If the question asks when they are fully developed and functional, the 10th week could be considered. Would you like more clarification on embryological muscle development? 😊 You said: Yes ChatGPT said: ChatGPT Sure! Here's a more detailed breakdown of the development of the muscles of mastication: 1st Pharyngeal (Branchial) Arch The muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoid muscles) originate from mesoderm in the first pharyngeal arch. They are innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). Timeline of Development 4th-5th Week: The mesenchymal tissue from the first pharyngeal arch begins to differentiate into muscle primordia. Neural crest cells contribute to connective tissue structures. 7th Week: The muscle primordia start to migrate to their final positions. The developing mandible and maxilla guide the arrangement of these muscles. 10th Week: The muscles of mastication are well-differentiated and begin to function. They start working in coordination with the developing temporomandibular joint (TMJ). Key Takeaway: Initial development begins in the 5th week. Migration and organization occur around the 7th week. Full differentiation and function occur by the 10th week. Let me know if you need more embryology details! 😊 You said: Mga doc ano po most common cause ng class 3 malocclusion? ChatGPT said: ChatGPT Ang pinaka-karaniwang sanhi ng Class III malocclusion ay maaaring skeletal o dental in origin. 1. Skeletal Causes (Most Common) ✅ Mandibular Prognathism – Ang sobrang laki o forward growth ng mandible ang pinaka-madalas na dahilan. ✅ Maxillary Deficiency – Ang underdeveloped o retruded na maxilla ay nagiging dahilan ng Class III bite. ✅ Genetics – Kung may family history ng Class III malocclusion, mataas ang chance na ito ay mamana. 2. Dental Causes ✅ Dental Crossbite – Ang lower incisors ay mas labas kaysa sa upper incisors pero normal You said: most common cause ng class 3 malocclusion is genetics ChatGPT said: ChatGPT Yes! Genetics is the most common cause of Class III malocclusion, particularly when it comes to skeletal Class III cases. 🔹 Mandibular prognathism (large or forward-positioned mandible) and maxillary hypoplasia (small or retruded maxilla) are often inherited traits. 🔹 Studies show that Class III malocclusion frequently runs in families, meaning it has a strong genetic component. However, environmental factors like early loss of primary teeth, mouth breathing, or habits (e.g., thumb sucking) can also contribute but are usually secondary causes. Would you like more details on treatment options for Class III malocclusion? 😊 You said: Aspirin for pain and to prevent heart attack or stroke; Ibuprofen advil make aspirin less effective in protecting your heart. A. Both statements are true B. The first statement is false, the second statement is true C. Both statements are false D. The first statement is true, the second statement is ChatGPT said: ChatGPT The correct answer is: ✅ A. Both statements are true Explanation: 1️⃣ Aspirin for pain and to prevent heart attack or stroke → TRUE Aspirin (low dose, 81 mg daily) is used as an antiplatelet to prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of heart attack or stroke. It can also be used for pain relief, though other NSAIDs are often preferred for this purpose. 2️⃣ Ibuprofen (Advil) can make aspirin less effective in protecting your heart → TRUE Ibuprofen is also an NSAID, but it competes with aspirin at platelet receptors, reducing aspirin’s ability to prevent clot formation. Taking ibuprofen before aspirin blocks aspirin’s antiplatelet effect, which increases cardiovascular risk. 💡 Best Practice: If a patient needs to take both, aspirin should be taken at least 30 minutes before or 8 hours after ibuprofen to maintain its protective effect. Would you like further clarification? 😊 You said: What are the local anesthetics suitable for use in dentistry as topical anesthetic agent? A. Mepivacaine and benzocaine B. Benzocaine and lidocaine C. Procaine and lidocaine D. Benzocaine and procaine ChatGPT said: ChatGPT ✅ Correct answer: B. Benzocaine and Lidocaine Explanation: Topical anesthetics in dentistry are used to numb the mucosa before injections or minor procedures. The most commonly used agents are: 1️⃣ Benzocaine An ester-type anesthetic commonly used in topical form (gel, spray, ointment). Fast onset (30 seconds to 2 minutes) and provides short-term numbing. Less risk of systemic toxicity but can cause methemoglobinemia in rare cases. 2️⃣ Lidocaine An amide-type anesthetic, available in gel, ointment, or spray form. Onset: 2–5 minutes with a longer duration than benzocaine. Can be used as topical and injectable anesthetic. Why not the other choices? ❌ Mepivacaine – Used for injection only, not as a topical anesthetic. ❌ Procaine – An ester-type injectable anesthetic (Novocaine), rarely used in dentistry today. Would you like more details on their concentrations and applications? 😊 B. Dens invaginatus Explanation: Dens in dente (dens invaginatus) is a developmental anomaly where the enamel folds inward into the dentin, creating a tooth-within-a-tooth appearance. It commonly affects the maxillary lateral incisors and increases the risk of caries and pulp exposure. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Enamel Pearl – A small enamel projection usually found near the furcation of molars. ❌ C. Dens Evaginatus – An extra cusp-like projection of enamel, usually on premolars. ❌ D. Taurodontism – Enlarged pulp chamber with apically displaced furcation, common in molars.

Answer 29

D. Convex Explanation: A child with a chronic thumb-sucking habit often develops a Class II malocclusion with: *Proclined maxillary incisors (pushed forward) *Retruded mandibular incisors (pushed backward) *Anterior open bite This results in a convex soft tissue profile, where the maxilla appears more prominent than the mandible due to the imbalance in jaw positioning. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Straight – Seen in a normal, well-aligned occlusion. ❌ B. Concave – More common in Class III malocclusion (mandibular prognathism). ❌ C. Flat – Similar to straight, but more typical in balanced skeletal structures.

Answer 30

C. Class II div 1 Explanation: During the mixed dentition period (ages 6-12 years), Class II Division 1 malocclusion is the most common. This is characterized by: *A retrognathic mandible (or protruded maxilla) *Proclined maxillary incisors *Increased overjet Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Posterior open bite – Rare and usually due to tongue posture or habits. ❌ B. Anterior open bite – Common in thumb-sucking kids, but not the most frequent overall. ❌ D. Class I Type 1 – There is no official "Class I Type 1"; however, Class I malocclusion is common, but Class II Div 1 is more notable in mixed dentition.

Answer 31

B. Acute pulpal degeneration Explanation: Severe throbbing pain occurring at night is a classic symptom of acute pulpitis (acute pulpal degeneration). This happens due to: *Inflammation and increased intrapulpal pressure *Lack of space for expansion within the rigid dentinal walls *Pain worsening when lying down due to increased blood flow to the head Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Chronic pulpal degeneration – Usually presents with mild, dull pain or no symptoms. ❌ C. A vital, exposed pulp – May cause sharp pain, especially to thermal stimuli, but not necessarily throbbing night pain. ❌ D. Acute periodontal degeneration – Would present more as localized pain on biting rather than severe spontaneous throbbing.

Answer 32

B. enamel knot Explanation: The enamel knot is a transient cluster of non-dividing epithelial cells that appears during the cap stage of tooth development. It plays a crucial role in: *Determining cusp formation *Regulating tooth shape and size *Signaling ameloblast and odontoblast differentiation Why not the other choices? ❌ A. REE (Reduced Enamel Epithelium) – This covers the tooth after enamel formation and helps in eruption but does not influence cusp tip formation. ❌ C. Enamel Pearls – Small enamel nodules, usually found near the root furcation, not related to cusp tips. ❌ D. Nasmyth's Membrane – A thin layer covering newly erupted teeth, composed of REE and pellicle, not involved in cusp development.

Answer 33

D. Anterior cranial base Explanation: The anterior cranial base is considered the most stable landmark for assessing craniofacial growth and development because: *It develops early and remains relatively stable after childhood. *It serves as a reference point in cephalometric analysis for orthodontic and surgical planning. *It includes structures like the sella turcica and nasion, which are key in growth assessments. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Pterygomaxillary Fissure – Part of the maxillary region, which is subject to growth changes. ❌ B. Sphenoid Bone – Involved in cranial base growth but undergoes more changes than the anterior cranial base. ❌ C. Cranial Vault – Grows rapidly in early childhood but is not as stable as the anterior cranial base for long-term assessment.

Answer 34

C. Lateral surface of lateral pterygoid process Explanation: The lateral pterygoid muscle has two heads: 1. Superior head – Originates from the greater wing of the sphenoid bone 2. Inferior head – Originates from the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate (correct answer) Both heads insert into the condylar neck of the mandible and the articular disc of the TMJ, playing a crucial role in jaw movements like protrusion and lateral deviation. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Medial plate of pterygoid process – Related to the medial pterygoid muscle, not the lateral pterygoid. ❌ B. Medial surface of lateral pterygoid process – Incorrect, as the lateral pterygoid attaches to the lateral surface. ❌ D. Greater wing of sphenoid bone – This is only the origin of the superior head, but the question asks about the general attachment

Answer 35

D. Sphincter of Oddi Explanation: The Sphincter of Oddi is a muscular valve that controls the flow of: *Bile from the common bile duct *Pancreatic enzymes from the main pancreatic duct It regulates their release into the duodenum through the Ampulla of Vater. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Wirsung’s Duct – The main pancreatic duct that carries digestive enzymes but doesn’t control flow. ❌ B. Duct of Santorini – The accessory pancreatic duct, which sometimes bypasses the Sphincter of Oddi. ❌ C. Ampulla of Vater – The common chamber where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct merge, but it doesn’t regulate flow.

Answer 36

B. Tubocurarine Explanation: Tubocurarine is the prototype of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers. It works by competitively blocking acetylcholine (ACh) at nicotinic receptors in the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle relaxation and paralysis without initial depolarization. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Succinylcholine – A depolarizing neuromuscular blocker, not non-depolarizing. ❌ C. Pancuronium – A non-depolarizing agent, but not the prototype (it's a later synthetic derivative). ❌ D. Mecamylamine – A ganglionic blocker, not a neuromuscular blocker.

Answer 37

D. Class II cavities with gingival margins extending subgingivally

Answer 38

B. Activities Explanation: The implementation process focuses on carrying out planned activities to achieve specific goals. These activities are the steps or tasks required to execute a project, plan, or program. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Leader – While leadership is crucial, it’s not the direct focus of the implementation process, though the leader helps drive activities. ❌ C. Funds – Funding is important, but it is more of a resource rather than the focus of implementation. ❌ D. Programs – Programs are the broad plans, but activities are what you do to implement the programs.

Answer 39

D. phenylephrine Explanation: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that causes excessive secretion of catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine), leading to hypertension, tachycardia, and other symptoms. The management of pheochromocytoma often includes medications that help to control the hypertensive crisis and symptoms before surgical removal of the tumor. The drugs used for this condition include: *Phentolamine – A non-selective alpha blocker used to block the effects of excessive catecholamines, helping to control blood pressure. *Phenoxybenzamine – An irreversible alpha-adrenergic blocker, also used to manage high blood pressure and other symptoms related to pheochromocytoma. *Metyrosine – A tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor, which reduces the synthesis of catecholamines. Why not Phenylephrine? ❌ Phenylephrine is a selective alpha-1 adrenergic agonist that causes vasoconstriction and would increase blood pressure. It should be avoided in pheochromocytoma, as it would worsen the hypertensive crisis.

Answer 40

B. Junctional epithelium Explanation: The junctional epithelium is the structure responsible for the attachment of the gingiva to the tooth surface. It forms a seal around the tooth, attaching the gingival tissues to the enamel or cementum at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ). Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Attachment epithelium – This term is often used interchangeably with junctional epithelium, but the latter is more specific in its role in tooth attachment. ❌ C. Epithelial attachment – Another term that can refer to the junctional epithelium, but it's not as precise in describing the actual structure. ❌ D. Epithelial pearl – This is a growth of epithelial tissue that can form in certain dental conditions, but it's not involved in gingival attachment to the tooth.

Answer 41

D. PTT Explanation: The best screening test for hemophilia is the PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) because hemophilia primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which includes factors VIII and IX. PTT measures the function of these factors, making it an effective initial screening test. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. CRT (Capillary Refill Time) – This test is used to assess peripheral circulation, not for diagnosing bleeding disorders like hemophilia. ❌ B. BT (Bleeding Time) – This test assesses platelet function, not coagulation factors, and is not specific for hemophilia. ❌ C. PT (Prothrombin Time) – PT measures the extrinsic pathway and is more useful for detecting disorders related to factors such as VII. Hemophilia primarily affects the intrinsic pathway.

Answer 42

B. Lichen Planus Explanation: Civatte bodies (also known as hyaline bodies) are characteristic features found in the epidermis in lichen planus. They are degenerating keratinocytes that appear as homogeneous, eosinophilic (pink) structures in the superficial layers of the epithelium. Lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect the skin and mucous membranes, including the oral cavity. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Leukoedema – A benign condition that causes a whitish appearance in the mucosa, but it is not associated with Civatte bodies. ❌ C. Erythema Multiforme – This is an acute skin condition often triggered by infections, but it does not involve Civatte bodies. ❌ D. Leukoplakia – A white patch in the mouth that may be precancerous but is not related to Civatte bodies.

Answer 43

A. Maxillary first premolar Explanation: In the maxillary first premolar, the marginal ridge on the distal side is located more cervically (closer to the gum line) than the mesial marginal ridge. This is a unique feature of this tooth that distinguishes it from other teeth. Why not the other choices? ❌ B. Mandibular first molar – The marginal ridges in the mandibular first molar are generally aligned at similar heights, and the distal ridge is not more cervical. ❌ C. Maxillary first molar – The marginal ridges of the maxillary first molar are more evenly placed, with the mesial marginal ridge typically at the same level or higher than the distal. ❌ D. Mandibular first molar – Similar to the maxillary first molar, the marginal ridges are aligned or slightly higher on the mesial side.

Answer 44

B. 1:20,000 Note: *Pag 2004 po yung basihan po mga doc, 1:20,000 *Pag wala po yung 2004, nasa 1:59,000 or yung number closest to that po.

Answer 45

A. 4 to 6 Explanation: The basic design for a complete implant-supported fixed prosthesis typically uses 4 to 6 implants. This number provides adequate support and stability for the prosthesis, whether it's for a complete upper or lower arch. These implants are strategically placed to provide a solid foundation and distribute the forces of chewing evenly. Why not the other choices? ❌ B. 6 to 8 – While sometimes used in cases of higher demands or challenging anatomy, 4 to 6 implants are generally sufficient for a standard complete arch. ❌ C. 8 to 10 – Not usually necessary unless there is special need for added stability or support. ❌ D. 10 to 12 – Excessive and typically unnecessary for most patients.

Answer 46

D. it determine population trends

Answer 47

B. Eradicated Explanation: Rinderpest is considered to be an eradicated disease. In 2011, the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) declared that rinderpest had been eradicated worldwide, thanks to extensive vaccination efforts. This is the second animal disease (after smallpox in humans) to be successfully eradicated. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Eliminated – Elimination typically refers to reducing a disease to zero cases in a specific area or region. Rinderpest has been eradicated globally, meaning it no longer exists anywhere in the world. ❌ C. Monitored – Rinderpest is no longer monitored because it no longer exists as a threat. ❌ D. Surveillance – Ongoing surveillance is not required for rinderpest anymore since it has been eradicated.

Answer 48

B. Family Explanation: The family is often considered the basic unit of society because it is the primary social group where individuals are nurtured, socialized, and taught societal values and norms. Families play a fundamental role in the development of individuals, and they are the first place where children learn about relationships, responsibilities, and societal roles. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Individual – While individuals are important members of society, they do not function as the fundamental unit in the same way the family does. ❌ C. Community – A community is a larger social group made up of many families, and although important, it is not considered the smallest foundational unit of society.

Answer 49

B. Directly observed treatment shortcourse Explanation: For patients with tuberculosis (TB), the treatment regimen is commonly known as Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse (DOTS). This approach ensures that patients take their prescribed medications correctly and consistently under the supervision of a healthcare provider. This is crucial to avoid the development of drug-resistant TB and to ensure the highest success rate of treatment. The DOTS strategy involves: Direct observation of the patient taking their medication. A short-course treatment that typically lasts for 6 months for drug-sensitive TB. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Direct observed therapy shortcourse – This is a close option, but the official terminology is "Directly Observed Treatment Shortcourse", not "therapy." ❌ C. Directly observed therapy shortcourse – This option is technically incorrect because the correct term is treatment instead of therapy.

Answer 50

C. Ulasimang bato Explanation: Ulasimang bato (also known as Giant devils' claw or Sandpaper vine) is commonly used in herbal medicine to treat gout and arthritis. It has anti-inflammatory properties and is often utilized for conditions involving joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, such as gout and arthritis. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Yerba buena – Often used for pain relief and digestive issues, but not specifically for gout or arthritis. ❌ B. Akapulko – Known for its use in treating skin conditions like fungal infections but not typically associated with gout or arthritis. ❌ D. Lagundi – Used mainly for respiratory conditions, such as asthma and cough, rather than for gout or arthritis.

Answer 51

B. Proliferation Explanation: The bud stage and cap stage are part of the process of tooth development, and they fall under the proliferation phase. During these stages, the dental tissues are actively proliferating, which means that cells are dividing and increasing in number. What happens during these stages? Bud stage: The dental lamina forms small buds, which are the precursors to the teeth. Cap stage: The buds expand into a cap-like structure, and the cells begin to differentiate further. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Initiation – This refers to the first stage of tooth development, where the tooth begins to form from the dental lamina, prior to the bud and cap stages. ❌ C. Histodifferentiation – This refers to the differentiation of cells into specialized tissues, which occurs later in development, particularly during the bell stage. ❌ D. Morphodifferentiation – This is the stage where the shape of the tooth is determined, which happens after the proliferation stages.

Answer 52

B. Atherosclerosis Explanation: A Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA), commonly known as a stroke, occurs when there is a disruption in the blood flow to the brain. One of the primary causes of a stroke is atherosclerosis, which is the buildup of fatty deposits (plaques) in the arteries, leading to narrowing and blockage of blood flow. This can result in a stroke if the blood supply to a part of the brain is cut off. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Myocardial Infarction (MI) – Myocardial infarction is a heart attack, which occurs due to a blockage in the coronary arteries, not the arteries in the brain. ❌ C. Arrhythmia – Arrhythmia refers to abnormal heart rhythms, which can increase the risk of a stroke but are not the direct cause of CVA. ❌ D. Angina Pectoris – Angina is chest pain caused by restricted blood flow to the heart, not a stroke in the brain.

Answer 53

D. Ampicillin Explanation: Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are a group of penicillin antibiotics that are resistant to penicillinase, an enzyme produced by some bacteria that can break down regular penicillin. These include: *Oxacillin *Methicillin *Dicloxacillin However, Ampicillin is not penicillinase-resistant. It is a type of aminopenicillin that can be degraded by penicillinase, making it ineffective against penicillinase-producing bacteria. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Oxacillin – This is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin. ❌ B. Methicillin – This is one of the first penicillinase-resistant penicillins. ❌ C. Dicloxacillin – This is also a penicillinase-resistant penicillin.

Answer 54

A. Foramen Spinosum Explanation: The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity through the foramen spinosum. It is a branch of the maxillary artery and supplies the meninges of the brain, as well as parts of the calvaria (skull). Why not the other choices? ❌ B. Foramen Ovale – This foramen transmits the mandibular nerve (V3) and the accessory meningeal artery, not the middle meningeal artery. ❌ C. Foramen Rotundum – This foramen transmits the maxillary nerve (V2). ❌ D. Obturator Foramen – This foramen allows passage of the obturator nerve, blood vessels, and lymphatics, but not the middle meningeal artery.

Answer 55

B. Erection Explanation: The first major component of male sexual activity is erection. During sexual arousal, the penis becomes erect as blood fills the erectile tissues (corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum). This is a crucial step that precedes the other phases of sexual activity, such as emission (movement of sperm and seminal fluid into the urethra) and ejaculation (the expulsion of semen). Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Resolution – Resolution is the phase where the body returns to its normal state after sexual activity, occurring after ejaculation. ❌ C. Emission – Emission is the process of sperm and seminal fluid moving into the urethra, which follows erection. ❌ D. Ejaculation – Ejaculation is the final stage of male sexual activity, following erection and emission.

Answer 56

B. Acetylcholine Explanation: The primary neurotransmitter for the parasympathetic nervous system is acetylcholine. It is released by cholinergic neurons and plays a key role in promoting the "rest and digest" functions of the body, such as lowering heart rate, stimulating digestion, and enhancing relaxation. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Dopamine – Dopamine is a neurotransmitter involved in reward, pleasure, and motor control but not in the parasympathetic nervous system. ❌ C. Epinephrine – Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline) is primarily associated with the sympathetic nervous system, which prepares the body for "fight or flight." ❌ D. Norepinephrine – Norepinephrine is another neurotransmitter used by the sympathetic nervous system, not the parasympathetic system.

Answer 57

D. Medulla Explanation: The medulla oblongata is the primary structure in the brain responsible for regulating breathing. It controls the respiratory centers that automatically regulate the rate and depth of breathing. The medulla also helps in other vital functions such as heart rate and blood pressure. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Thalamus – The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory information but does not directly control breathing. ❌ B. Midbrain – The midbrain is involved in functions such as eye movement and visual/auditory processing, not directly in breathing. ❌ C. Pons – The pons helps in regulating breathing, but the primary control lies in the medulla.

Answer 58

B. Active transport

Answer 59

B. Angiotensin II Explanation: Angiotensin II is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by constricting blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. It is produced from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Angiotensin I – Angiotensin I is a precursor to angiotensin II and is relatively inactive in terms of vasoconstriction. ❌ C. Renin – Renin is an enzyme that initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), but it does not directly cause vasoconstriction. ❌ D. Epinephrine – While epinephrine (adrenaline) is a powerful vasoconstrictor in some blood vessels, angiotensin II is considered the most potent in general.

Answer 60

B. Angiotensin II Explanation: Angiotensin II is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by constricting blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. It is produced from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Angiotensin I – Angiotensin I is a precursor to angiotensin II and is relatively inactive in terms of vasoconstriction. ❌ C. Renin – Renin is an enzyme that initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), but it does not directly cause vasoconstriction. ❌ D. Epinephrine – While epinephrine (adrenaline) is a powerful vasoconstrictor in some blood vessels, angiotensin II is considered the most potent in general.

Answer 61

B. Angiotensin II Explanation: Angiotensin II is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body. It plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by constricting blood vessels, which increases blood pressure. It is produced from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Angiotensin I – Angiotensin I is a precursor to angiotensin II and is relatively inactive in terms of vasoconstriction. ❌ C. Renin – Renin is an enzyme that initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), but it does not directly cause vasoconstriction. ❌ D. Epinephrine – While epinephrine (adrenaline) is a powerful vasoconstrictor in some blood vessels, angiotensin II is considered the most potent in general.

Answer 62

B. Osteosarcoma Explanation: The "sunburst appearance" is a classic radiographic feature associated with osteosarcoma, a type of bone cancer. It is characterized by spiculated (spike-like) bone formation, often extending outward from the tumor in a radiographic image, resembling the rays of the sun. Why not the other choices? ❌ A. Ewing's Sarcoma – Ewing's sarcoma often presents with a "onion skin" appearance on radiographs, where the layers of new bone form in concentric rings. ❌ C. Osteoblastoma – This typically appears as a well-defined, lytic lesion rather than having a sunburst appearance. ❌ D. Chondrosarcoma – Chondrosarcoma often has chondroid calcification and may present as a radiolucent lesion with some calcification, but it doesn’t typically show the sunburst pattern.

Answer 63

C. Bupivacaine Explanation: Bupivacaine typically provides long-lasting anesthesia, with effects that can last several hours, making it particularly useful for procedures where prolonged pain relief is required, such as in epidurals or nerve blocks. Here's a quick breakdown of the others: A. Etidocaine: Also a long-acting anesthetic, but its duration is typically slightly shorter than bupivacaine. B. Lidocaine: A medium-duration anesthetic, usually lasting 1-2 hours. D. Procaine: A shorter-acting anesthetic, lasting around 30 to 60 minutes. So, in terms of duration, bupivacaine takes the longest.

Answer 64

D. Flumanzenil Explanation: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that acts by competitively inhibiting benzodiazepine binding at the GABA-A receptor, effectively reversing their sedative effects. It is used in cases of benzodiazepine overdose to counteract respiratory depression and sedation. Explanation of Other Options: A. Naloxone → Used for opioid overdose, not benzodiazepines. B. Physostigmine → A cholinesterase inhibitor used for anticholinergic toxicity. C. Neostigmine → Another cholinesterase inhibitor, mainly used to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Thus, Flumazenil is the drug of choice for benzodiazepine overdose.

Answer 65

A. 1st Explanation: Tensor veli palatini is derived from the first branchial (pharyngeal) arch. The first arch gives rise to muscles innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). Tensor veli palatini is innervated by CN V3, confirming its first arch origin. Contrast with the Fourth Arch: The fourth arch contributes to muscles of the pharynx and soft palate (except for those derived from the first and second arches). Most soft palate muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X), except tensor veli palatini, which is an exception from the first arch. Thus, Tensor veli palatini belongs to the first branchial arch.

Answer 66

A. Vasoconstriction Explanation: Epinephrine (adrenaline) has different effects on blood vessels depending on the type of receptors present in the vascular tissue: Vasoconstriction (Narrowing of Blood Vessels): *Epinephrine binds to alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, primarily found in blood vessels of the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and kidneys. This causes vasoconstriction, leading to increased blood pressure and reduced blood flow to these areas. *This is useful in situations like anaphylaxis, where epinephrine is administered to counteract severe hypotension by constricting blood vessels. Vasodilation (Widening of Blood Vessels): *Epinephrine binds to beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are predominant in the skeletal muscles, heart, and liver. This causes vasodilation, increasing blood flow to these areas. *This effect helps supply more oxygen and nutrients during the "fight-or-flight" response, enhancing physical performance and energy availability.

Answer 67

B. Mitochondria Explanation: Initiator of apoptosis: Mitochondria play a key role in apoptosis (programmed cell death) by releasing cytochrome c, which activates the caspase cascade leading to cell death. Double membrane system: Mitochondria have an outer membrane and an inner membrane, making them a double-membrane organelle. Why not the others? A. Peroxisome – Involved in lipid metabolism and detoxification but not apoptosis. C. Centriole – Helps in cell division but lacks a double membrane. D. Centrosome – Organizes microtubules but does not have a membrane.

Answer 68

C. 7305 Explanation: Republic Act No. 7305, also known as the "Magna Carta of Public Health Workers," was enacted to promote and improve the social and economic well-being of public health workers in the Philippines. It provides benefits such as: *Hazard pay *Subsistence and laundry allowances *Retirement benefits *Additional compensation for those in hazardous or difficult areas This law ensures better working conditions and incentives for healthcare workers serving in public institutions.

Answer 69

B. 15 Explanation: For permanent teeth, the recommended etching time with 37% phosphoric acid is typically 15 seconds. This creates a proper enamel surface for bonding by increasing micro-retention. Primary teeth may require a longer etching time (20–30 seconds) due to their less mineralized enamel. Over-etching can lead to weaker bonds, while under-etching may result in poor adhesion.

Answer 70

D. 30 Explanation: For primary teeth, the recommended etching time with 37% phosphoric acid is typically 30 seconds because: *The enamel is less mineralized and has a prismless outer layer, which requires a longer etching time to achieve proper adhesion. *This ensures better retention of resin-based materials. For permanent teeth, the usual etching time is 15 seconds.

Answer 71

A. IgG Explanation: IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in humans, making up about 75–80% of total serum immunoglobulins. It plays a key role in long-term immunity and secondary immune response. It can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to newborns. Why not the others? IgA – Found mainly in mucosal secretions (e.g., saliva, tears, breast milk). IgM – The largest antibody, first to appear in an immune response but less abundant in circulation. IgE – Involved in allergic reactions and parasite defense, but present in very low amounts. IgD – Functions in B cell activation, but is the least understood and least abundant.

Answer 72

C. Cementum Explanation: *Cementum is most similar to bone in structure and composition. It contains collagen fibers and mineralized matrix, much like bone, and it is a living tissue that can repair itself to some degree. *Dentin is similar to bone in some ways, but it is not as mineralized as enamel or cementum. *Enamel is very hard and mineralized but is not similar to bone since it does not contain collagen and cannot repair itself. Note: Based kay doc mics, dentin na daw po ngayon, dati cementum. Pero mas madami naganswer ng cementum so baka ayun padin hahaha.

Answer 73

C. supratrochlear nerve Explanation: The first division of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) is the ophthalmic nerve (V1), and it gives rise to several branches. The supratrochlear nerve is one of the smallest branches of the ophthalmic nerve. It innervates the skin of the forehead and the upper eyelid. Other options are also branches of the ophthalmic nerve (V1), but they are not the smallest: A. Supraorbital nerve: Larger than the supratrochlear, it also arises from the ophthalmic nerve and supplies the forehead and scalp. B. Lacrimal nerve: It is responsible for sensory innervation of the lacrimal gland and also carries parasympathetic fibers for tear production. D. Nasociliary nerve: A large branch that supplies structures in the nose and the eye, including the cornea. The supratrochlear nerve is indeed the smallest branch of the largest branch (ophthalmic) of the first division of the trigeminal nerve. Note: Lacrimal is the smallest branch of ophthalmic. Frontal is the largest branch of ophthalmic. May 2 branches si frontal, supratrochlear (smallest) and supraorbital (largest).

Answer 74

B. Garre's Osteomyelitis Explanation: Garre's osteomyelitis, also known as chronic sclerosing osteomyelitis, is a condition where a bone infection leads to the formation of new bone around the infected area, often accompanied by periostitis (inflammation of the periosteum). This infection can cause pain, swelling, and the characteristic sclerotic bone changes seen on imaging. Here’s a brief overview of the other options: A. Osteomyelitis: This refers to a general bone infection, which can affect the bone marrow but doesn't always involve periostitis or lead to the sclerotic changes seen in Garre's osteomyelitis. C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta: This is a genetic disorder affecting collagen production, leading to fragile bones, but it’s not related to infection. D. Osteoradionecrosis: This refers to bone death caused by radiation therapy, not an infection. Garre's osteomyelitis is the best match for a bone marrow infection with periostitis.

Answer 75

C. White Sponge Nevus Explanation: White Sponge Nevus is a genetic condition that causes white, spongy lesions on the mucous membranes, such as the buccal mucosa. It is often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, so it’s not uncommon for family members, such as the parent in this case, to also have it. The lesions typically appear in childhood and may persist throughout life. Here’s a brief overview of the other options: A. Lichen Planus: Lichen planus can cause white lesions in the mouth, but these are usually more reticular and not as uniform in appearance as White Sponge Nevus. It also does not typically run in families like White Sponge Nevus does. B. Leukoedema: This is a normal variant seen in the buccal mucosa, especially in individuals with darker skin. The lesion appears as a diffuse, white or grayish patch, but it disappears when the mucosa is stretched. D. Linea Alba: This is a normal, white line that appears on the buccal mucosa along the occlusal plane, usually caused by friction from the teeth. It is not a lesion, and it’s not typically seen as a white patch like White Sponge Nevus.

Answer 76

B. hatchet and spoon excavator Explanation: In Atraumatic Restorative Treatment (ART), the goal is to remove decayed tissue without the use of drills or anesthesia. The primary instruments used are typically a hatchet (for cutting and smoothing enamel) and a spoon excavator (for removing soft, decayed dentin). Here's a breakdown of the options: A. Hatchet and Explorer: The explorer is not used for removing decayed tissue in ART; it’s mainly used for examining the tooth's surface. C. Hatchets only: Hatchets alone aren’t sufficient for removing decayed tissue; spoon excavators are needed to clear the soft decay. D. Spoon Excavator and Explorer: While the spoon excavator is used, the explorer isn't a primary tool for removing decay in ART.

Answer 77

A. cavity is accesible to hand instruments Explanation: Atraumatic Restorative Treatment (ART) is a minimally invasive technique used primarily when a cavity is accessible to hand instruments, allowing for the removal of decayed tissue without the need for rotary instruments (such as drills). It’s most effective in cases of early to moderate caries where the cavity is not too deep, and the focus is on preserving tooth structure while treating decay. Here’s a breakdown of the other options: B. There is presence of abscess: If there is an abscess, the focus would typically be on addressing the infection first, and ART may not be appropriate until the infection is managed. C. There is pulp exposure: In cases where the pulp is exposed, ART is generally not the first choice, as it doesn’t address pulp protection or root canal treatment needs. D. There is long-standing pain symptom: ART is not primarily used for managing pain symptoms; it’s more focused on preventing further decay and restoring damaged teeth without extensive drilling.

Answer 78

A. Le Fort III Explanation: Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) can indeed be a sign of a Le Fort II fracture, but they are more commonly associated with a Le Fort III fracture. Here’s why: *Le Fort II fractures involve the maxilla and the lower part of the face, including the nose and the orbital region, which can lead to periorbital bruising (raccoon eyes). However, since the fracture doesn't always cause significant displacement of the orbit itself, raccoon eyes may not be as prominent. *Le Fort III fractures, on the other hand, typically involve a more extensive disruption of the facial skeleton, including the orbits, and often lead to a more noticeable periorbital hematoma. In this case, since the orbit is commonly involved, raccoon eyes are a more common and distinctive feature. So, while raccoon eyes can start with a Le Fort II fracture, it’s definitely more common with a Le Fort III fracture due to the greater involvement of the orbital area.

Answer 79

A. Inferior alveolar artery Explanation: The inferior alveolar artery branches off from the maxillary artery and enters the mandible through the mandibular foramen, providing blood supply to the lower teeth, including the mandibular incisors. It also gives rise to the incisive artery, which specifically supplies the incisors and canines.

Answer 80

B. Transverse

Answer 81

A. Lidocaine without epinephrine Explanation: For a patient with hypertension, local anesthesia should be chosen carefully to avoid increasing blood pressure due to epinephrine's vasoconstrictive effects. *Lidocaine without epinephrine is the safest choice, as it avoids the potential cardiovascular effects of epinephrine. *Mepivacaine (3% without vasoconstrictor) is also a good alternative because it has mild vasodilatory effects. *Prilocaine (4% without vasoconstrictor) can be considered, but it carries a slight risk of methemoglobinemia, so it's not the first choice in some cases. Best Practice: For controlled hypertension, a small dose of Lidocaine 2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine (max 2 cartridges) may be used cautiously. For severe or uncontrolled hypertension, LA without epinephrine is the safest.

Answer 82

A. Tetracycline Explanation: Tetracycline and its derivatives (doxycycline, minocycline) can cause tooth discoloration in children when taken during tooth development (pregnancy to around 8 years old). Mechanism: Tetracycline binds to calcium in developing teeth, leading to permanent intrinsic staining. The discoloration can range from yellow to brown or gray depending on the dose and duration of exposure. Clinical Implications: *Avoid tetracycline in pregnant women and children under 8 years old to prevent permanent staining. *If an antibiotic is needed for young children, alternatives like penicillins or macrolides (e.g., azithromycin) are preferred.

Answer 83

Parts of a Prescription and Their Meanings: A. Signatura (Sig.) – Directions for the patient Instructions on how to take the medication (dosage, frequency, route of administration). Example: Take 1 tablet by mouth twice daily for 7 days. B. Inscription – The medication prescribed Contains the name of the drug, strength, and dosage form. Example: Amoxicillin 500 mg capsules C. Subscription – Dispensing instructions for the pharmacist Tells the pharmacist how much to dispense (quantity, formulation). Example: Dispense 30 capsules. D. Superscription – Heading of the prescription Usually represented by "Rx", which stands for "recipe" (Latin for "take"). It is the symbol that indicates a prescription is being written.

Answer 84

A. 15:2 Explanation: The CPR ratio for infants (under 1 year old) is 15:2 when two rescuers are performing CPR. CPR Ratios for Infants: *Single Rescuer: 30:2 (30 compressions, 2 breaths) *Two Rescuers: 15:2 (15 compressions, 2 breaths) Why 15:2 for Two Rescuers? With two rescuers, one provides compressions, and the other delivers breaths, improving efficiency and oxygen delivery. This allows for more frequent breaths while maintaining proper circulation.

Answer 85

B. Class 2 (second order lever) Explanation: A wheelbarrow is an example of a Class 2 lever, where: - Fulcrum is at one end. - Load (resistance) is in the middle. - Effort (force) is applied at the opposite end. Class 2 Lever Examples: - Wheelbarrow - Nutcracker - Standing on tiptoes (in the human body, the ball of the foot is the fulcrum, the body weight is the load, and the calf muscle applies the effort) Comparison with Other Lever Classes: *Class 1 Lever (First Order) → Fulcrum in the middle (e.g., seesaw, scissors) *Class 3 Lever (Third Order) → Effort in the middle (e.g., tweezers, fishing rod, biceps lifting an object)

Answer 86

A. Interpupillary Explanation: Interpupillary Line: - The interpupillary line is the line drawn between the centers of the pupils of the eyes. - In dental prosthetics and occlusion, the interpupillary line is often used as a horizontal reference to align the maxillary teeth. - Ideally, the maxillary anterior teeth should be oriented parallel to this line to ensure a natural and aesthetic alignment, especially for dentures, veneers, or restorations.

Answer 87

A. Christen's phenomenon Explanation: Christensen's Phenomenon refers to the separation of the maxillary and mandibular posterior teeth during protrusive movements of the mandible. This occurs because of the sliding of the mandibular condyles forward and downward in the temporomandibular joint (TMJ). Key Points of Christensen's Phenomenon: - It is a physiological phenomenon observed when the lower jaw moves forward (protrudes). - The posterior teeth on both the upper and lower jaws separate, typically because of the forward and downward movement of the condyles within the glenoid fossa. - The amount of separation depends on the condylar path and the overbite. - It is important in dentures and prosthodontics because it influences the design of complete dentures, ensuring that the prosthetic teeth are aligned in such a way that they allow for smooth, functional movement without causing interference during protrusion - In dentures, managing Christensen's phenomenon is critical to prevent unwanted occlusal contact during functional movements like protrusion.

Answer 88

A. B, P, M Explanation: Bilabial Sounds: - These are produced by bringing both lips together. - The sounds are articulated with the upper and lower lips in contact. Examples: - B as in "bat" - P as in "pat" - M as in "mat" Bilabial Sounds in Phonetics: - B: Voiced bilabial stop - P: Voiceless bilabial stop - M: Bilabial nasal

Answer 89

B. Linguodental Explanation: F, V, and PH are linguodental sounds because they are produced by the tongue (lingua) making contact with the upper teeth (dental). Examples: - F as in "fun" (voiceless) - V as in "van" (voiced) - PH as in "phone" (the "ph" sound is equivalent to an "f" sound in many cases) Other Options Explained: A. Alveolar: Sounds made with the tongue against the alveolar ridge (e.g., T, D, S, Z). C. Sibilants: Sounds with a hissing quality (e.g., S, Z, SH). D. Labial: Sounds made with the lips (e.g., B, P, M).

Answer 90

C. The center part will shrink Explanation: In casting, sprues are used to guide molten metal into the mold. The length and thickness of the sprue have an impact on how the molten metal flows and solidifies. - Short, thick sprue: The molten metal will flow into the mold faster, but it may cool more rapidly as it travels through the thicker sprue. This causes the center of the casting (which cools last) to shrink because the metal around it solidifies first, leaving the center part without enough molten material to fully fill it. - Long, thin sprue: The molten metal moves more slowly and solidifies more evenly, helping to ensure that the outer and center parts solidify more uniformly, reducing the chance of shrinkage at the center. Summary: Using a short, thick sprue can result in the center part of the casting shrinking because it doesn't receive enough molten material as the outer parts solidify first.

Answer 91

1. Pressure Impression Purpose: To record the functional details of the oral tissues, including tissues under pressure. Characteristics: This impression method is taken with pressure applied to the tissues, so the impression captures both the functional position and the active areas where the denture will contact the oral tissues during function. Example: Often used for complete dentures, as it captures how the denture will fit during chewing and speaking. 2. Selective Pressure Impression Purpose: To capture specific areas of the tissues that are under pressure while leaving other areas without pressure. Characteristics: The material selectively records areas where pressure is desired (such as the ridge) and avoids areas that should remain unaffected (such as the soft tissue). This provides a more customized fit for the denture, maintaining the balance between support and comfort. Example: Often used in the denture base and in situations requiring specific anatomical details. 3. Mucostatic Impression Purpose: To record the tissues without applying pressure, capturing the relaxed or static position of the mucosa. Characteristics: The impression material is used in a way that does not distort the soft tissues, ensuring that the impression reflects the uncompressed state of the mucosa. This method is usually used when the goal is to avoid tissue movement, ensuring a more accurate representation of the tissue contours without functional forces applied. Example: Used in cases where preserving the natural, uncompressed contour of the mucosa is important, such as for dentures where comfort is a priority. Summary: Pressure: Impressions taken with pressure to capture functional details. Selective Pressure: Pressure applied selectively to certain areas of the mouth to ensure an accurate fit in specific zones. Mucostatic: Impressions without pressure to preserve the natural, uncompressed position of the tissues.

Answer 92

Pontic design refers to the design of the artificial tooth that replaces a missing tooth in a dental bridge. The pontic is the portion of the bridge that spans the gap and is supported by the abutment teeth. There are various pontic designs, and the choice depends on factors like aesthetics, function, and hygiene. Here are the main types of pontic designs: 1. Modified Ridge Lap Pontic Design: The pontic has a convex shape on the top, which mimics the natural contours of the gum tissue. Advantages: Aesthetically pleasing and provides good support for the surrounding tissues. Disadvantages: Difficult to clean underneath, leading to potential hygiene issues. Use: Typically used in anterior (front) regions for its natural appearance. 2. Ridge Lap Pontic Design: The pontic has a shape that contacts the ridge on both the lingual and labial (or palatal and buccal) sides, designed to resemble the natural tooth. Advantages: Good aesthetic appearance. Disadvantages: Potential for plaque accumulation under the pontic. Use: More commonly used in anterior regions for cosmetic purposes. 3. Conical (Bullet) Pontic Design: The pontic is shaped like a cone or bullet, where it touches the ridge only at the base, and the rest of the tooth is rounded. Advantages: Easy to clean around, promoting good hygiene. Disadvantages: Less aesthetically pleasing because it does not mimic the natural shape of a tooth as closely as other designs. Use: Often used in posterior areas where hygiene is more critical than aesthetics. 4. Hygienic Pontic Design: This pontic is flat on the top and does not touch the ridge, leaving a space underneath it. It provides a clean and open area. Advantages: Excellent hygiene and easy to clean around. Disadvantages: Less natural appearance; not as aesthetically pleasing as other designs. Use: Common in posterior regions or in patients with severe bone loss where maintaining hygiene is critical. 5. Saddle Pontic Design: The pontic spans the ridge in a saddle-like shape, sitting on the ridge but covering a larger area of the edentulous space. Advantages: Provides better support for the soft tissues in the edentulous area. Disadvantages: Difficult to maintain hygiene because of the large contact area with the soft tissues. Use: Used in posterior areas with sufficient ridge height. 6. Ovate Pontic Design: This pontic design is highly aesthetic and involves shaping the tissue under the pontic so it forms an ovate shape, creating a natural, tooth-like contour. Advantages: Excellent aesthetic outcome, with the pontic blending seamlessly with the surrounding gums. Disadvantages: Requires precise tissue management and careful planning. Use: Ideal for anterior teeth where appearance is important. Choosing the Right Pontic Design The choice of pontic design depends on factors like: - Aesthetic requirements (especially in the anterior region) - Hygiene (some designs allow easier cleaning) - Bone and gum health (ridge lap and conical designs are better for compromised tissues) - Patient preference and the location of the missing tooth (posterior vs. anterior).

Answer 93

A. Sublingual Explanation: The sublingual gland is the smallest of the major salivary glands and is mostly composed of mucous acini. Key Features of the Sublingual Gland: - Smallest salivary gland: While it is small in size, it plays a key role in salivation. - Mostly mucous acini: The sublingual gland produces mucous secretion, which helps in lubricating and moistening the mouth. This mucous secretion is thicker than the serous secretion produced by other glands like the parotid. - Location: Located beneath the tongue in the floor of the mouth. - Ducts: The sublingual gland has numerous small ducts (known as ducts of Rivinus) that open into the floor of the mouth, along with a larger duct called the Bartholin duct, which drains into the submandibular duct. Function: It produces mucous saliva that helps in lubrication, swallowing, and protecting the oral mucosa. The sublingual gland is unique in that it provides the majority of the mucous component of saliva, which is important for the consistency of the saliva in the mouth.

Answer 94

A. Styloglossus Explanation: Styloglossus is the muscle responsible for elevating the tongue. Styloglossus Muscle: - Origin: It originates from the styloid process of the temporal bone. - Insertion: It inserts into the lateral aspect of the tongue. Function: - The styloglossus muscle primarily elevates the posterior part of the tongue. - It also assists in retracting the tongue and pulling it upwards and backwards. Additional Info: The styloglossus works in coordination with other tongue muscles, like the genioglossus and hyoglossus, to help in various tongue movements such as speech, swallowing, and food manipulation.

Answer 95

A. 8th week Explanation: Oo, sa 8th week ng pagbubuntis, ang mga pangunahing organo ng embryo ay halos kumpleto na at nagsimula nang magkaroon ng itsura ang mga pangunahing bahagi ng katawan. Sa yugtong ito ng embryonic stage, ang mga organo tulad ng puso, utak, at mga sistema ng katawan (respiratory, digestive, at urinary) ay nagsisimula nang mag-develop at gumana, ngunit hindi pa ito ganap na functional at patuloy pa itong magde-develop sa fetal stage (9th week onward). Sa 8th week, may mga prominenteng feature na tulad ng mga kamay at paa, pati na rin ang mga facial features. Bagama't ang mga organo ay maagang nabuo, ito ay nangangailangan pa ng maraming oras upang maging fully functional at mature.

Answer 96

B. 4th week Explanation: Ang maxillary tuberosity ay isang anatomical structure na matatagpuan sa likod ng maxilla (upper jaw). Ito ay nagsisimulang mag-develop sa 4th week ng pagbubuntis, kasabay ng pagbuo ng mga pangunahing bahagi ng panga. Sa panahong ito, ang mga panga ay nagsisimulang mag-form, at ang maxillary tuberosity ay makikita bilang isang maliit na protrusion sa likod ng maxilla, na magsisilbing base para sa mga molar ng bata sa hinaharap.

Answer 97

A. 4th week Explanation: Ang development ng tongue ay nagsisimula sa 4th week ng embryonic development. Sa mga unang linggo ng pagbuo, ang tongue ay nagsisimula bilang isang simple na structure. Sa 7th-8th week, ang tongue ay may mga primary muscle at nagsisimula nang magkaroon ng movements. Sa 16-20 weeks, mas nagiging complex ang muscle pattern ng tongue, na nagpapahintulot ng normal na functions tulad ng paglunok at pagkain. Habang ang fundamental structure ng tongue ay nabubuo sa mga unang linggo ng pag-develop, patuloy itong nag-de-develop hanggang sa early childhood.

Answer 98

Enamel Hypoplasia and Enamel Hypocalcification are both defects in the development of tooth enamel but occur at different stages: 1. Enamel Hypoplasia (Secretory Stage): This occurs during the secretory stage of amelogenesis when enamel is being formed. Ameloblasts (cells responsible for enamel production) fail to produce enough enamel, resulting in defective enamel formation. The enamel is usually thin, underdeveloped, and may appear pitted or grooved. Factors that can cause hypoplasia include malnutrition, systemic illness, genetic disorders, or trauma during tooth development. 2. Enamel Hypocalcification (Maturation Stage): This occurs during the maturation stage of amelogenesis, which is when enamel undergoes mineralization and hardening. In hypocalcification, the enamel does not properly mineralize, meaning it does not reach its full hardness and strength. The enamel may appear discolored (usually white or yellowish), softer, and more susceptible to wear and decay. Factors like a deficiency of calcium or other minerals during enamel maturation can cause hypocalcification. Both conditions affect the integrity of enamel, but they occur at different points in the enamel development process, leading to distinct types of defects.

Answer 99

A. Nucleus Explanation: The nucleus is the genetic center of eukaryotic cells. It houses the cell's DNA, which is organized into chromosomes. The nucleus is surrounded by a nuclear membrane that protects the genetic material and regulates the flow of genetic information between the nucleus and the rest of the cell.

Answer 100

These terms refer to different structures and remnants found in the development and formation of teeth. Here’s a breakdown of each: 1. Lines of Retzius (Remnants of Enamel Deposition): Lines of Retzius are incremental lines or bands visible in the enamel under a microscope. They represent the rhythmic pattern of enamel deposition during amelogenesis (enamel formation). These lines are similar to growth rings in a tree and are caused by periodic variations in the rate of enamel secretion by ameloblasts. They can be used to study the age and development of teeth. 2. Epithelial Rests of Serres (Remnants of the Disintegration of the Dental Lamina): The epithelial rests of Serres are clusters of residual cells from the dental lamina, which is the structure that initiates tooth development. After tooth development, parts of the dental lamina disintegrate, and the remaining epithelial cells form these epithelial rests. These rests are generally found in the periodontal ligament area and can sometimes form cysts, such as in the case of dentigerous cysts. 3. Epithelial Rests of Malassez (Remnants of Hertwig’s Epithelial Root Sheath): The epithelial rests of Malassez are remnants of the Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS), which plays a crucial role in tooth root formation. HERS is involved in shaping the root and inducing the differentiation of cells in the dental papilla into odontoblasts, which produce dentin. After root formation is completed, the remnants of HERS remain as epithelial rests of Malassez, located in the periodontal ligament. These cells can be involved in pathological processes, such as cyst formation, if they proliferate abnormally.

Answer 101

A. liver Explanation: The hypochondriac region of the body refers to the upper part of the abdomen, specifically the areas to the left and right of the epigastric region. These regions are just below the ribs. Here are the options in relation to the hypochondriac regions: a. Liver: The liver is primarily located in the right hypochondriac region. b. Cecum: The cecum is located in the right iliac region, not the hypochondriac region. c. Spleen: The spleen is located in the left hypochondriac region. d. Stomach: The stomach is located in the epigastric region, but part of it can extend into the left hypochondriac region. Note: The hypochondriac part of the body would be either the liver (right hypochondriac region) or the spleen (left hypochondriac region).