End of Life Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the possibly culpability when a health practitioner intentionally causes death of a patient they are caring for?

A

Homicide

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2
Q

What is required to be culpable of homicide in relation to medical law?

A

(1) Homicide - s 158 “the killing of another human being directly or indirectly” = causation (R v Smith says doesn’t have to be only cause of death but must be a substantial cause of death).

(2) Culpable Homicide - s 160 (a) unlawful acts or (b) omission without lawful excuse to perform or observe any legal duty.

(3) Murder - s 167 (a) mean to cause death or (b) mean to cause bodily injury known likely to cause death and reckless if death ensures of not.

If not murder then manslaughter.

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3
Q

What is the defence to homicide in relation to medical law?

A

Necessity

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4
Q

How do we know that necessity is still a valid defence?

A

Section 20 - all common law rules/principles still available as long as not overridden by the Act.

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5
Q

What case first articulated the defence of necessity?

A

R v Dudley and Stevens - boat case where they eat the cabin boy

Articulated the defence but it was not available in the circumstances - boat members were convicted of murder.

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6
Q

What case was the defence of necessity accepted in relation to homicide?

A

Re A - the conjoint twins case.

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7
Q

Why was necessity accepted as a defence to killing Mary in Re A?

A

Because she was destined for death anyway meaning causing Mary’s death was proportionate to saving Jodie’s life.

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8
Q

Is the scope of necessity in relation to medically caused death limited or wide?

A

Limited scope - because of the sanity of life/moral considerations.

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9
Q

Why it is unlikely that practitioner culpable for homicide when death is an incidental effect of provisions of pain relief?

A

(1) Causation very difficult to prove given pain relief given for an underlying condition which is more appropriately the cause of death and (2) unlikely to satisfy it was an unlawful act because giving pain relief in the best interests of the patient (Airedale said that good medical care will not be the basis of an unlawful act).

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10
Q

What section of the crimes act says you cannot consent to the infliction of death?

A

Section 63

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11
Q

What does withdrawal of treatment constitute that opens up liability of homicide?

A

Withdrawal of treatment is an omission

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12
Q

What is the legal duty at play for an omission of treatment?

A

Section 151 - duty to provide the necessities of life.

States that any person who in charge of someone who is sick (e.g., a doctor) is under a legal duty to supply that person with the necessaries of life and criminally responsible for omitting without lawful excise to perform such duty if death ensues from such omission.

Necessaries includes anything that prolongs life.

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13
Q

What is the DOC that doctors owe to patients?

A

To provide treatment that is in the best interest.

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14
Q

What is the caveat to the duty to provide necessities (s 151)?

A

Ordinary omission is not enough - it has to be a major departure which is a high standard.

Section 150A(2) - “a major departure from the standard of care expected of a reasonable”.

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15
Q

What is the test for medical lawful excuse developed by the courts?

A

“Good Medical Practise”

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16
Q

What case set out the current good medical practise test?

A

AAHB v AG 1993 HC NZ

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17
Q

What are the relevant factors to good medical practise set out in AAHB v Ag?

A

(1) Decision in good faith that withdrawal of treatment in patients bets interest

(2) Conformity with prevailing standards and practices commanding approval within the medical profession

(3) Ethics committee approval

(4) Full and informed consent of the family

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18
Q

Why has the Good Medical Practice test from AAHB been criticised?

A

It is a very broad phrase

Relies on an objective test of best interest - not patient centred.

Puts too many obligations on the practitioners

It was created in relation to particular circumstances of the case and cannot/should not be universally applied as a strict test.

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19
Q

What were the facts of the Airedale case and what does it stand for?

A

Anthony bland - crushed at Hillsborough stadium and been in PVS for three years. Not ever going to get better.

Family want hospital to let him die (stop treating).

Doctors have a duty to act in the best interests of their patients but this does not necessarily require them to prolong life - it was lawful to withhold life-extending treatment.

Treatment was not in the best interest of patient because there being no prospect of recovery.

Distinguished between act (administrating a lethal drug) and omission (withholding life prolonging treatment).

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20
Q

What are the facts of Shortland v Northland Health Ltd [1998] COA NZ?

A

Patient was a type 2 diabetic and had mild dementia. Had kidney failure and needed dialysis to live.

Hospital did not accept patient to continue living of dialysis treatment because he could not active cooperate with the guidelines of dialysis (unable to manage it on his own) meaning it was perceived not in his best interest.

He issued proceedings for a declaration that this decision was unlawful.

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21
Q

What was the outcome of Shortland v Northland Health Ltd?

A

He was unable to access life prolonging dialysis because it was a matter of what was in his best interest - held that it was not in his best interest.

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22
Q

What is section 8 of NZBORA?

A

“No one shall be deprived of life except on such grounds as are established by law and are consistent with the principles of fundamental justice”.

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23
Q

What were the arguments on appeal in COA for the declaration in Shortland v Northland Health Ltd?

A

Duty to provide necessaries of life

Deprivation of life contrary to s 8 NZBORA

Discontinuing dialysis breached requirements of Good Medical Practice - AAHB v AG

Guidelines said “greatest probable benefit” which is resource based and this was not a resource issue

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24
Q

Why was the declaration declined in Shortland v Northland Health Ltd?

A

Accepted not in patients best interest for life-prolonging treatment to continue because he did not met the dialysis administration guidelines.

Court does not want to interfere with the doctors decision.

Said there was no breach of section 151 and NZBORA section 8 because it was the underlying kidney disease that was causing his death.

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25
Q

How did Shortland v Northland apply the AAHB v AG ‘Good Medical Practise’ test and what is the associated concerns with the Courts application of the test?

A

They said the test is to be applied on a case by case basis and not determinative that all elements are met.

Said “Those responsible for the patient’s care should bear in mind the views expressed but ultimately they must decide what in clinical terms and within the resources available is best for their patient.” –> should be more patient centred.

(1) said no doubt that the decision were made in good faith in the belief they were in the best interests of Mr W –> no discussion of patients best interest - Mr W wanted the treatment - best interest should be subjective.

(2) No evidence before the court of failure to meet second criterion.

(3) Consultation with appropriate medical specialist and recognised ethical body will depend on facts. (pretty much said it wasn’t an ethical issue therefore do not always have to go to committee –> would argue it is ethical because autonomy engaged).

(4) Appropriate to require “reasonable consultation” with the patient and family members, but ultimately clinicians “must decide what in clinical terms and within the resources available is best for their patients”.

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26
Q

What are your critics of the Shortland v Northland Health Ltd judgement?

A

Their application of the ‘Good Medical Practice’ test was not subjective.

They conflated best medical practise with conformity (rules/laws etc) rather than patient centred which is out of step with how we address best interest in the code and in other common law jurisdictions.

They didn’t interrogate the circumstances of this case enough.

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27
Q

What is the significance of UK SC case Aintree University v James?

A

Set out factors to consider when determine what is in the patient best interest:

Need to talk about if treatment is futile = any benefit or value to him at that state of his health

Access if any prospect of recovery (doesn’t mean cure just stable)

Is there any burdensomeness of treatment that would outweigh the benefits gained by patients from treatment (e.g., risk of infection and being in hospital).

Patients wishes (not determinative but must be patient centered)

28
Q

What are the facts of maharaja v Te Whata Ora?

A

Recent 2023 NZ HC decision.

Man had an unexpected cardiac arrest due to tear in part of his heart.

Break down in communication meant family was not certain on hospital saying that they are able to keep him on ECMO life support.

Hospital wouldn’t wait for family to get second opinion - Family went to court for injunction to give them time to get second opinion from overseas.

29
Q

What was the outcome in Maharaja v Te Whata Ora?

A

Family unsuccessful - held that hospital entitled to turn off life support.

30
Q

What was wrong with Maharaj judgement?

A

They did not discuss the patients best interest

Gave no reference to Aintree or other common law approaches of best interest.

There was no external consultation - only with other people in hospital (all biased by needed to free a bed - “inappropriate use of resources”).

Gave inadequate reference to resource issue - if declining on basis of resource needs to be principally based.

Overall = concert hat this case reinforced that it is up to clinicians.

31
Q

What is the history in the development of legalising assisted dying?

A

1995 - Death with Dignity Bill (shut down)
2003 - Death with Dignity Bill (got closer to select committee)
2015 - HC proceedings - Seales v AG
2015 - Petition and SC report
2017 - David Seymour’s End of Life Bill chosen from ballot
2021 - End of Life Choice Act 2019 came into force.

32
Q

What were the facts of Seales v AG?

A

S (a lawyer) dying from brain tumour and receiving palliative care.

She sought a declaration that her doctor could lawfully (not be committing murder or manslaughter or assisting in suicide) administer or provider her with fatal drug if suffering became unbearable.

Also made a secondary application for declaration of inconsistency with section 8 (deprived of life) and 9 (subject to cruel treatment) of NZBORA.

Her rationale was that a slow and undignified death does not reflect the life that she had led and would be a terrible way for her good life to end. She wants to die with dignity and not suffer unnecessarily at the end.

33
Q

What is palliative care?

A

Care to keep you comfortable but not to cure.

34
Q

Was Seales successful?

A

No.

But S had selflessly provided forum to clarify issues of NZ law that can only be address by Parliament and because Parliament has not been willing to address this does not mean court has the right to overstep their constitutional role in New Zealand –> Catalyst to the End of Life Choice Bill.

35
Q

What was Seales argument in relation to section 63 (cannot consent to death) and the outcome?

A

Argued that this should be interpreted narrowly so only applies to deaths contrary to public policy e.g., death by unwarranted violent acts. Court could read in limitation. Court said no and that they will read section 63 literally. Drew on common law authority in Airedale that state interest in preserving life is greater than individual interest of autonomy.

36
Q

What was Seales argument in relation to section 179 (aiding and abetting another in the commission of suicide) and the outcome?

A

Argued that because suicide is not a crime and this is evidence that the autonomy of a person should be upheld and that you have a right to commit and attempt suicide. Unsuccessful argument because decriminalising attempting suicide because it is inhumane to criminalise - lead to people doing worse things to commit suicide because if they did not succeed then they were punished.

Section 179 is still Parliamentary intent to prioritize sanctity of life over autonomy. As well as section 41 provides justification for using reasonable force to prevent suicide. Law clearly reflected policy adverse to suicide.

37
Q

What was Seales argument for NZBORA section 8 and the outcome?

A

Section 8 argument seems counterintuitive - it is premised on not having access to assisted dying it makes people want to commit suicide/impose increased risk of death. HC accepted the right was engaged but not breached because it is consistent with the principles of fundamental justice - applied Carter Test.

38
Q

What is the Carter Test?

A

Carter Test (Carter v AG 2015 SCC 5).

  1. Is the law arbitrary
  2. Does the law go further than necessary to achieve the objective
  3. Whether the rights restricted is grossly disproportionate to the purpose under scrutiny.
39
Q

What section 9 NZBORA engaged in Seales and if not why?

A

No - court held wasn’t engaged by relying on common law - the suffering was caused by suffering and tumor and not the treatment. The treatment was alleviating the pain and suffering.

40
Q

What are some arguments against euthanasia?

A

Not necessary to legalise because suicide is not a crime so if people want to end their lives they can.

We have palliative care so provides people at the end of their life with pain relief (Hospice does not support euthanasia).

If we legalise it we won’t be able to have enough safeguards (non-compliance and end up with wrongful deaths)/liberal interpretations.

Risk for marginalisation and vulnerable person to be coerced into this option.

Consequential concern - availability will mean more people will take this option

Slippery slope concern - once we start permitting access albeit a narrow application there is bound to be eligibility creep.

41
Q

When did the End of Life Choices Act 2019 come into force?

A

2021

42
Q

What is the purpose of the EOLCA?

A

Purpose of the Act is to give people with a terminal illness and who meet the certain criteria the option of lawfully requesting medical assistance to end their lives.

43
Q

What is an ANP?

A

Attending nurse practitioner

44
Q

What is an AMP?

A

Attending medical practitioner

45
Q

What is the effect of the conscientious objection provision in section 8 of the Act?

A

If gives all practitioners the right to opt out of providing services relating to assisted dying.

46
Q

What are the obligations of an AMP who exercises their right under section 8?

A

They have to tell the patient that they have an a conscientious objection (ensuring they do not give impression that patient is not eligible).

And refer patient to SCENZ (The Support and Consultation for End of Life in New Zealand) to organise new provider.

47
Q

What are the immunities to providers under the Act?

A

Section 37 = no liability for assisting suicide under s 179 of the Crimes Act as long as the provider complies with the processes set out in ss 10 and 11 of the Act.

Section 41 (application of force to prevent suicide) of Crimes Act does no apply for people who have requested and are eligible for AD.

48
Q

What is the effect of the Offences provision in s 39 of the Act?

A

Section 39 sets out that a provider commits an offence if they wilfully fail to comply with the requirements of the Act.

“wilfully” = intention

49
Q

Broadly what are the safeguards under the Act?

A

Section 10 - assisted dying must not be initiated by the health practitioner

Section 11 - AMP must provide information

The Eligibility Assessment

Section 6 - Capacity

Section 24 - Pressure

At any point you can change your mind.

50
Q

What are some critics about the drafting of the Act? [expand]

A

Section 10 - controversial

Should be a definition of “terminal illness” because

Should be a clinical definition of “likely” to end he persons life within 6 months.

A justification against age requirement of 18.

51
Q

Has the End of Life Choice Act struck the right balance between enabling autonomy and protecting the sanity of life?

A

52
Q

What was the old definition of death in NZ?

A

Circulatory failure (permanent cessation of respiration and circulation)

53
Q

What lead to circulatory death no longer being an appropriate medical definition of death?

A

Modern technology mean that someone who was circulatory dead could be kept alive (e.g., by ventilators).

54
Q

Why is a legal definition of death important?

A
55
Q

What is New Zealand’s current medical definition of death?

A

A personal is dead when they are brain dead.

What brain dead means in New Zealand is dependant on the ANZIC statement which set out a brain death criteria.

56
Q

What is the brain death criteria set out by ANZIC?

A

Determination of brain death requires patient being in a state of:
(1) unresponsive coma
(2) absent brain stem reflexes
(3) absent respiratory centre function

Must have clinical or neurological-imagaing evidence of the acute brain pathology.

= brain stem death alone is not a sufficient indicatory of death.

Certification of Death indicates the irrevocable point in the dying process - not when the process has ended = Dying is a process rather than an event.

57
Q

How does NZ definition of death compare with the US and UK?

A

US has a broad approach of whole brain death

UK has a narrower approach of brain stem death

Based on the ANZIC statement we sit closer to the US approach.

58
Q

If a case on the determination of death went to the Court what approach are they likely to follow?

A

The ANZIC test (rather than medical approach and the common law approach).

59
Q

What did Justice Thomas of the HC in AAHB v AG say about the definition of death?

A

Confirmed that circulatory death is no longer the definition of dead.

Recognised the UK approach (brain stem) and says that that definition has not formally been accepted in NZ, but is widely accepted throughout the medical profession.

He left the definition in the hands of the medical profession.

60
Q

What does the Human Tissue Act 2008 do?

A

Regulates the procurement and use of organs and tissues from a decreased person.

61
Q

What was the catalyst for the 2008 Human Tissue Act reform?

A

(1) Organ rendition scandal overseas where a hospital obtained organs of about 11,000 people without their consent - including child organs without parents consent.

(2) NZ low rates of organ donations - thought that if we strengthen the informed consent process then it would maybe increase donors.

62
Q

What is not human tissue within the Human Tissue Act?

A

Embryos and gametes

63
Q

What is the dead donor rule set out in section 52?

A

Can only take tissue for therapeutic or education purposes if the person taking the tissue is satisfied the person actually is dead.

64
Q

What makes the standard of informed consent in the HTA high?

A

Act requires express consent for organ donation.

Express consent can be oral or in writing.

It must be informed meaning it is freely given (autonomy) and in light of all information.

What all information entails is unclear but we know that the information provided for a drivers license is not enough information to constituted being “informed” and therefore not express consent = drivers license is merely indicative of your wishes.

Would probably want information of when your tissues are taken (unable to do so because we do not have a clear definition of death and would want to know the tissues you are willing to donate.

65
Q

If the informed consent of deceased absolute?

A

No - ss 16, 17 and 18.

16 = Nothing in this act requires any person to collect or use human tissue

17 = Gives clinician discretion to act against the deceased informed consent - they do not have to use deceased organs if not satisfied on all available information that the informed consent should not be acted on.

18 = Person collecting or using tissue (clinician) must take into account the cultural and spiritual needs, values, and beliefs of the immediate family of the individual whose tissue is collected or used.

66
Q

How does the black letter law of the HTA and practice in relation to family Vito rights differ?

A

The Act does not give family Vito rights to override the deceased prior express consent, however due to s 18 clinicians have scope to take into account their objections. If family members object clinician will not go against it. Therefore in practice family members kinda do have Vito rights.

67
Q

What is the concern with giving too much weight to family members objection to organ donation?

A

Disrespects the autonomy of the deceased.

Suggest we value someone’s autonomy when dead less than alive - could creates issues with Tikanga - mana continues after death (Ellis v R).