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EMT224 > EMT224(2) > Flashcards

EMT224(2) Flashcards

1
Q

Foreign body airway obstruction is defined as a problem with ___.

A

Ventilation

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2
Q

The process of air moving into and out of the lungs is ___.

A

Ventilation

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3
Q

Chronic bronchitis can be defined as:

A

Inflammatory changes and excessive mucus production in the bronchial tree

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4
Q

Clinical diagnosis of chronic bronchitis is made by the presence of:

A

A cough with sputum production occurring for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years

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5
Q

Emphysema is described as:

A

Permanent abnormal enlargement of the air spaces and destruction of alveoli

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6
Q

An elevated hematocrit level secondary to chronic hypoxia is known as:

A

Polycythemia

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7
Q

Patients with emphysema have increased airway resistance during:

A

Expiration

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8
Q

Drugs like albuterol help asthma patients by:

A

Dilating the bronchi

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9
Q

You are treating a patient who reports that she has COPD. If she has emphysema, you would expect:

A

A thick, barrel-chested appearance

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10
Q

Asthma exacerbation results in:

A

Bronchial smooth muscle contraction

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11
Q

Excessive positive intrathoracic pressure during an asthma attack may lead to:

A

Pulsus paradoxus

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12
Q

The current cornerstone of asthma treatment in the U.S. is:

A

Albuterol

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13
Q

Asthma that doesn’t resolve with repeated doses of bronchodilators is called:

A

Status asthmaticus

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14
Q

Status asthmaticus is commonly triggered by:

A

Viral respiratory infection

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15
Q

A local preschool has closed because of an epidemic of pneumonia among the children. The most common cause of children’s pneumonia is:

A

Influenza A

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16
Q

Days after a seizure and a period of unconsciousness, a patient develops pneumonia. This patient is at high risk for:

A

Aspiration pneumonia

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17
Q

One factor that may help differentiate pneumonia from COPD is the presence of:

A

Fever

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18
Q

A condition that exists when the capillaries in the lung have greater permeability, which leads to rales and stiff alveoli, is known as:

A

ARDS

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19
Q

PEEP is used to:

A

Keep alveoli open

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20
Q

A bleb is a:

A

Weakened area of the lung

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21
Q

What type of patients are predisposed to spontaneous pneumothorax?

A

Tall, thin males with a narrow chest

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22
Q

The resultant respiratory alkalosis associated with hyperventilation syndrome is due to an excessive loss of:

A

CO2

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23
Q

A pt who appears anxious, tachypneic, clear lung sounds, complaining that his fingers are numb and tingling, is most likely suffering from:

A

Hyperventilation syndrome

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24
Q

The most appropriate tx for a pt with hyperventilation syndrome is:

A

Calming the pt and supplying O2 as necessary

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25
Q

If arterial blood gases were drawn on a pt suffering from hyperventilation syndrome, they would most likely reveal:

A

Respiratory alkalosis

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26
Q

Your pt is a 75 y/o woman with a hx of diabetes and atherosclerosis, chief complaint is heartburn. You suspect:

A

This may be a cardiovascular problem because women and pts with diabetes often present with atypical symptoms

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27
Q

The hallmark of atrial fibrillation is:

A

An irregularly irregular rhythm

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28
Q

You have determined that your pt with a-fib is unstable and requires electrical therapy. You will perform ___ countershock with ___ joules.

A

Synchronized; 120

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29
Q

If a-fib presents for more than 48 hours, conversion of this pt’s rhythm may lead to:

A

Release of emboli

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30
Q

Prinzmetal angina occurs when:

A

Coronary arteries spasm

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31
Q

The first medication a paramedic should administer to a pt with angina is:

A

Oxygen

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32
Q

Most MIs are caused by:

A

Acute thrombotic occlusion

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33
Q

The majority of acute MIs involve the:

A

Left ventricle

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34
Q

Chest pain associated with an MI:

A

Is constant

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35
Q

The position of comfort for a patient with left ventricular failure is usually:

A

Sitting with legs dependent

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36
Q

Which of the following is most indicative of right ventricular infarct?

A

Peripheral edema

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37
Q

A drug that may improve the symptoms of cardiogenic shock patients in the field is:

A

Dopamine

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38
Q

Signs of cardiac tamponade include:

A

Muffled heart tones

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39
Q

While assessing a pt, you note a pulsatile mass in the abdomen. Suddenly this mass is no longer palpable, and the patient’s blood pressure begins to drop. You suspect:

A

The patient’s aneurysm has ruptured

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40
Q

You are called to the local airport to evaluate a 40 y/o obese woman who is complaining of pain in her lower left leg. She has just completed a 12-hour flight, and the pain developed as she got off the plane. The leg is warm, swollen, and painful. You suspect:

A

Deep-vein thrombosis

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41
Q

The organs most at risk in a hypertensive crisis include the:

A

Kidneys

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42
Q

Pt has a bp of 200/140, initially complained of headache and nausea. During your 3-hour transport, the pt began to seize and is now unresponsive to any stimulus. You suspect the pt has:

A

Hypertensive encephalopathy

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43
Q

Tx for hypertensive encephalopathy includes:

A

Diazepam

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44
Q

When performing CPR on an adult, you would compress the chest to a depth of ___ inche(s).

A

At least 2”

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45
Q

The sound heard when the AV valves close during ventricular systole is:

A

S1

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46
Q

A single elongated projection of a neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body is called a(n):

A

Axon

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47
Q

Afferent neurons transmit impulses:

A

Toward the brain

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48
Q

Nodes of Ranvier occur on myelin sheaths of axons, allowing impulses to:

A

Jump from one node to the next

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49
Q

The spacing between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of another is called a:

A

Synapse

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50
Q

The circle of Willis is a(n):

A

Safeguard to ensure continued blood supply to the brain

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51
Q

If a pt is hyperventilating, you would expect blood flow to the brain to:

A

Decrease

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52
Q

Cushing’s triad consists of:

A

Elevated bp, decreased pulse and respiratory rate

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53
Q

The single best indicator of a serious neurological condition is:

A

Rapidly worsening level of consciousness

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54
Q

A mnemonic device that is helpful for remembering the common causes of coma is:

A

AEIOU TIPS

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55
Q

Administration of thiamine should be considered if the cause of coma is suspected to be:

A

Alcoholic

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56
Q

Why would a comatose patient regain consciousness after the administration of naloxone?

A

It competes with narcotics at the receptor sites

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57
Q

The two major events that occur to cause a stroke are:

A

Occlusion and hemorrhage

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58
Q

Your patient complains of the abrupt onset of the worst headache she has ever felt in her life. This is indicative of:

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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59
Q

A TIA is different from a stroke in that:

A

The signs and symptoms of a TIA resolve within 24 hours

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60
Q

The arm drift in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is abnormal if:

A

One arm drifts down compared to the other

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61
Q

The most important action a paramedic can take in the tx of a stroke patient is to:

A

Rapidly transport the patient to an appropriate facility

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62
Q

Epilepsy is a seizure disorder:

A

With no known correctable or avoidable causes

63
Q

Your partner suddenly falls to the floor and becomes very rigid, with occasional relaxation of the muscles. His temperature is normal. He is apneic and incontinent of urine. This type of seizure activity is best described as:

A

Tonic-clonic

64
Q

Your 4 year-old son stares off into space and doesn’t respond to your repeated questioning about whether he is all right. He displays no movement and remains in a standing position. This type of seizure activity is best described as:

A

Petit mal

65
Q

Your patient reports having an auditory aura. This is a warning sign that she may have a:

A

Seizure

66
Q

You have been on the scene with a patient who is experiencing a grand mal seizure. As soon as the seizure resolves, your priority in her management will be to:

A

Assist her in maintaining her airway and provide high-flow oxygen

67
Q

Status epilepticus is defined as:

A

Repetitive seizures without any period of awakening

68
Q

A Jacksonian seizure is a type of:

A

Partial seizure

69
Q

Diazepam has which of the following significant side effects?

A

Respiratory depression

70
Q

Headaches that are precipitated by constriction and dilation of blood vessels and cause intense throbbing on one side of the head are called:

A

Migraine headaches

71
Q

A brain abscess is a(n):

A

Accumulation of pus

72
Q

An inherited disease that causes slow but progressive degeneration of muscle fibers and usually causes the patient to die by the age of 12 is:

A

Muscular dystrophy

73
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by damage to or degeneration of nerve cells in the:

A

Basal ganglia

74
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is:

A

Usually fatal within 2 to 4 years of diagnosis

75
Q

Spina bifida is a birth defect in which:

A

A portion of the spinal cord is left exposed

76
Q

What type of tissue generates heat?

A

Muscle

77
Q

What are renal calculi?

A

Kidney stones

78
Q

What is the first tx for renal calculi?

A

Hydration

79
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea indicative of?

A

Left-sided heart failure

80
Q

What is the dosage of epinephrine for anaphylaxis?

A

0.3 - 0.5 mg, 1:1000

81
Q

In a pt with PVC’s, how many per minute make it a concern?

A

> 6 per minute

82
Q

For PVC’s, what medication is appopriate?

A

Lidocaine (secondary: amiodarone)

83
Q

What is a late sign of left-sided heart failure?

A

Pulmonary edema

84
Q

What is pylonephritis?

A

UTI, spread into inflammation of the kidneys

85
Q

What is pain in the deep loin on deep percussion over the kidney, even when pressure causes no pain?

A

Lloyd’s sign

86
Q

What is esophageal tearing as a result of chronic vomiting known as?

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

87
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of kidney stones?

A 
Acute, excruciating pain in R/L lower quadrant, groin, testes (in males)
Restlessness
Nausea/vomiting
Urinary urgency/frequency
Sweating
Fever
88
Q

What might help collateral circulation in the heart during ischemia/infarct? How do these form?

A

Anastomoses (collateral circulation)

We get more developed as we age

89
Q

Hepatitis B is most commonly spread how?

A

Through blood and serum

90
Q

What is uremic frost? What does it indicate?

A

Fine white powder on the skin of a pt with kidney failure

91
Q

Tenderness midway between the anterior-superior iliac spine and the umbilicus is what?

A

McBurney’s sign

92
Q

What does McBurney’s sign indicate?

A

Can indicate acute appendicitis

93
Q

How is an MI diagnosed on an ECG?

A

ST segment elevation in 2 or more contiguous leads

94
Q

What is the most common cause of non-traumatic pain in women?

A

UTI

95
Q

A yellow discoloration of the skin, mucous membranes, and sclerae of the eyes caused by a greater than normal amount of bilirubin in the blood is called what?

A

Jaundice

96
Q

What is the cause of esophageal varices?

A

Portal hypertension

97
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder, most often associated with the presence of gallstones

98
Q

What is your priority in multi-system trauma?

A

Tx of life threats

99
Q

Would a 3-lead be of much use in a multi-system trauma situation?

A

No

100
Q

What is cor pulmonale caused by?

A

Increased pulmonary pressure

101
Q

What is hematochezia?

A

Bright red blood in the stools

102
Q

What is melana?

A

Tarry, black stools

103
Q

Cause of hematochezia?

A

Lower GI bleed

104
Q

Cause of melana?

A

Upper GI bleed

105
Q

What type of pt is most at risk for a hypertensive emergency?

A

A pt with a hx of hypertension

106
Q

What would you suspect in a pt who is taking beta blockers and ACE inhibitors?

A

Hx of hypertension

107
Q

A technique used to normalize blood chemistry and remove excess fluid in patients with acute or chronic renal failure is called what?

A

Renal dialysis

108
Q

Pain during menstrual cycle is known as what?

A

Dysmenorrhea

109
Q

An allergic reaction is what?

A

An overly sensitive immune response

110
Q

An allergen can be defined as a(n):

A

Antigen causing an allergic response

111
Q

The primary antibody affecting an anaphylactic reaction is:

A

IgE

112
Q

Anaphylactoid reactions are treated how?

A

In the same way as anaphylactic reactions

113
Q

Localized allergic reactions are best managed with:

A

Antihistamines

114
Q

In sensitized individuals, the risk of anaphylaxis increases most with:

A

Frequency of exposure

115
Q

The chemical released in an anaphylactic reaction that causes rapidly increased vascular permeability and capillary and venule dilation is:

A

Histamine

116
Q

Histamines promote the contraction of nonvascular smooth muscle, especially muscles in the:

A

Bronchial tree

117
Q

The most life-threatening result of an anaphylactic reaction is:

A

Airway compromise

118
Q

During an anaphylactic reaction, urticaria may be noted on the skin, and swelling may be noted in the ___.

A

Face and tongue

119
Q

Angioedema results from the swelling of the:

A

Subcutaneous tissue

120
Q

A pt calls 911 because he fears that the cookie he has just eaten may have contained peanuts, which he is highly allergic to. He ate the cookie 1 hour ago. You tell him:

A

Anaphylaxis usually occurs within 30 minutes of the introduction of the antigen

121
Q

Your pt is a 28 y/o female complaining of a rash on her abdomen and tightness in her chest. She ate shellfish 2 hr ago. The symptoms first appeared approx 1 hour ago and have not worsened. Her vitals are normal, lungs clear, with good tidal volume. Pt is without any further complaint. You suspect she is experiencing:

A

A mild allergic reaction

122
Q

Expect that a fluid bolus of up to ___ may be needed to restore BP in anaphylactic patients.

A

4 L

123
Q

Your pt is in cardiac arrest following a severe anaphylactic reaction. The pt’s face and neck are severely swollen. Administration of epi should be:

A

The normal does of 1 mg 1:10,000 IVP

124
Q

The standard subq dose of epi used in treating an adult with severe anaphylaxis is:

A

0.3 - 0.5 mg of 1:1000 solution

125
Q

The primary treatment for hypotension resulting from anaphylaxis is:

A

IV fluids

126
Q

Urticaria is:

A

Caused by increased capillary permeability and the leaking of fluid into the interstitial spaces

127
Q

Your pt is a 28 y/o male, attacked by swarm of bees. Pt is unconscious with swelling and uticaria. Lung sounds = diminished tidal volumes and wheezes, stridor with respirations. BP 70/40. After administering O2 and securing the airway, initial tx should be:

A

IV epinephrine 0.3 - 0.5 mg, 1:10,000 solution

128
Q

SQ or IM epi may not be effective for a pt having severe anaphylaxis because of:

A

Decreased peripheral perfusion

129
Q

H. pylori can cause what?

A

Chronic gastroenteritis

130
Q

Small intestine order?

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

131
Q

Visceral pain assoc. with?

A

Hollow organs

132
Q

Bluish periumbilical color is?

A

Cullen’s sign

133
Q

Cullen’s sign indicates?

A

AAA rupture
Pancreas rupture
Peritoneal hemorrhage

134
Q

Thrill in a fistula is?

A

Indicative of unobstructed circulation

135
Q

Def of cardiogenic shock?

A

Systolic bp of less than 90 for 30 minutes secondary to myocardial dysfunction

136
Q

How to tx hypotension with dialysis?

A

Small fluid bolus 200-300 mL

137
Q

Most common cause of GI bleed in older pts?

A

Diverticulitis

138
Q

Diverticulitis can lead to…?

A

Sepsis

139
Q

Most common cause of upper GI bleed is?

A

Peptic ulcers

140
Q

Syndrome occurring during or after dialysis, symptoms/signs including loss of consciousness, hypotension, neuro deficits, increased ICP, seizures/coma?

A

Disequilibrium syndrome

141
Q

Lloyd’s sign indicates what?

A

Kidney stones

142
Q

What is Kehr’s sign?

A

Left shoulder pain, referred from ruptured spleen or ectopic pregnancy

143
Q

Circulation disorders that affect blood vessels outside of the heart and brain, typically arteries/veins that supply limbs and organs below stomach?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

144
Q

Inflammation of the tube at the back of the testicle that stores and carries sperm is called what?

A

Epididymitis

145
Q

Rohypnol is a drug used in what circumstance?

A

Date rape

146
Q

D/C stands for? Used when?

A

Dilation and curettage

Ectopic pregnancy

147
Q

Endometrial tissue occurring outside of the uterus is called ___?

A

Endometriosis

148
Q

Inflammation of the lining of the uterus is called ___?

A

Entometritis

149
Q

Normal menstruation amount?

A

25-60 mL

150
Q

Right or LLQ pain occurring mid-menstrual-cycle, lasting 24-36 hours with slight bleeding and a low fever?

A

Mittelschmerz

151
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease caused by?

A

STDs

152
Q

What type of substances cross the blood brain barrier?

A

Lipid soluble

153
Q

1 month abdominal pain with dark tarry stools can indicate?

A

Chronic gastritis

154
Q

Gastroenteritis occurs via which route?

A

Oral/fecal

EMT224 (2 decks)

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