EMT Info Flashcards

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1
Q

What are emergency medical dispatchers?

A

Within the EMS system, trained to give medical instructions to callers

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2
Q

What are recent drawbacks for 911 calls?

A

Most 911 systems enhanced, dispatcher automatically identifies number and location. Cell phone 911 calls and less use of landlines makes it hard to confirm locations.

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3
Q

What are the 4 levels of training in order?

A

Emergency medical responder (EMR), Emergency medical technician (EMT), Advanced emergency medical technician (AEMT),
Paramedic

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4
Q

What is the most common destination facility?

A

EMTs transport patients to local medical emergency department (ED) based on chief complaint or patient request

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5
Q

What situations may patients be transported to a special facility?

A

Stroke, Cardiac, Trauma, Behavioral, Pediatric, Obstetric and Poison center.

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6
Q

What are EMT roles and responsibilities?

A

Equipment preparedness, emergency vehicle operations, establish and maintain scene safety, patient assessment and treatment, lifting and movement, strong verbal and written communication skills, patient advocacy, professional development, quality improvement, illness and injury prevention, maintain certification/licensure.

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7
Q

What patient-high risk activities do EMTs participate in

A

Transfer of patient care, lifting and moving patients, transporting the patient in an ambulance, spinal precautions, administration of meds.

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8
Q

What are most common errors by EMS providers that cause patient injury

A

Failure to perform skills adequately, lack of knowledge leading to poor decision making, failure to follow establish protocols.

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9
Q

What ways can you prevent potential EMS error?

A

Understand protocols, provide best environment to asses and manage patients, if further assistance is needed, contact partner, advanced life support (ALS), or medical direction.

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10
Q

What are EMT professional attributes?

A

Professional attributes, competent knowledge and skills, physical capability, leadership skills, ethical standards, emotional stability, adaptive thinking skills, good listener, team skills

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11
Q

What is the role of a medical director?

A

Physician responsible for providing medical oversight. Online: phone, radio, offline- guidelines or protocols, oversees quality improvement

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12
Q

What is Continuous quality improvement (CQI)

A

continuous audit and review of all aspects of EMS system to identify areas of improvment

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13
Q

What are examples of how EMS participates in public health?

A

Immunization clinics, prevention education, safety and wellness events, and public CPR training.

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14
Q

What is the EMTs first priority?

A

Own scene safety, then partners, patients and bystanander.

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15
Q

How do you maintain scene safety?

A

scene-specific hazards, appropriate infection control, safe-lifting and moving techniques

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16
Q

What does physical well-being of EMT contain?

A

maintain physical conditioning, get sleep, and healthy diet.

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17
Q

What are types of stress an EMT may face?

A

Acute stress- instant, fight or flight triggered
Delayed stress- develops after event
Cumulative stress- stress over prolonged period time

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18
Q

What are causes of stress?

A

Long hours, low pay, little sleep, danger, challenging interactions, working on events

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19
Q

How can an EMT manage stress?

A

recognize stress/ burnout, address risk factors for heart disease and stroke, find down time, balance,

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20
Q

What is CISM in relation to stress?

A

Critical incident stress management- process to help emergency workers deal w/ stress. Defusing session 4 hours after incident, debriefing 24-72 hours after incident, CISM teams have counselors, can share info (confidential), CISM facilitates dealing with critical incident stress

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21
Q

What are emotional demands of EMS profession?

A

Routine exposure to death and dying, encounters with patients in varying stages of grief, interacting with patient family during death, routine exposure to high stress situations (children, violence, need more)

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22
Q

What are the varying stages of grief?

A

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

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23
Q

What should an EMS do when facing family members of a dead patient?

A

Show respect and empathy, serve as patient advocate, be supportive and keep patient and family informed, do not offer false hope, allow family to be with patient, family may need you after

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24
Q

What are infectious diseases?

A

Caused by invading pathogens. bacterial (strep) respond to antibiotics. Viral (flu) resistant to antibiotics. Can be passed through direct or indirect contact

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25
Q

What is OSHA?

A

Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) oversees regulations concerning workplace safety, including precautions against infectious diseases. Employers provide necessary equipment and implement policies, provide training on infection control, exposure reporting and blood-borne pathogens. Employees expected to complete mandatory training.

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26
Q

What standard precautions are to be implemented for all patient contacts and based on assumption that all body fluids pose risk of infection? (Aka BSI precautions)

A

immediately report exposers to infection control, hand-washing, PPE (personal protective equipment)

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27
Q

What does PPE include?

A

Equipment and supplies necessary to implement standard precautions for specific patient encounter. PPE can differs for each patient. Min PPE- gloves and eye protection should be used during any patient contact situation. Expanded PPE- use disposable gown and mask for significant contact with body fluid (childbirth), use high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask or N-95 respirator for airborne disease exposure.

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28
Q

What are some additional safety precautions?

A

Place contaminated medical waste in biohazard bags, disposable supplies are single use, reusable equipment should be cleaned well, Sharps should be placed in puncture-proof containers.

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29
Q

What are recommended immunizations and vaccines?

A

TB testing, Hep B vaccination, tetanus shot, Flu vaccine, MMR, varicella vaccine

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30
Q

What should EMT do upon encountering hazardous material (hazmat incident)?

A

Maintain safe distance and attempt to keep others out, call for hazmat responders, look for placards and utilize ERG (emergency response guidebook) to determine evacuation distance, do not enter scene until cleared, don’t start emergency care until patients decontaminated or cleared.

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31
Q

What should EMS do when encountering crime scene?

A

Not enter unless law enforcement has determined it’s safe, ‘staging for pd’ respond to call but maintain safe distance until cleared

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32
Q

What should EMS do when working on accident scenes?

A

Extrication situations- law requires EMTs wear traffic safety vest

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33
Q

What situations require specially trained responders?

A

Downed power lines or fire stations, terrorism incidents, high angle rescue, swift water rescue, confined space rescue

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34
Q

Is lifting and moving high risk for patients or EMS providers?

A

Both

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35
Q

What are safe lifting techniques?

A

Power lift (object close, use legs not back, use power grip with palms), position stretcher to reduce height of lift, preplan lift to reduce distance and avoid problems, get enough help

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36
Q

What are emergency moves and what are some types?

A

Used when scene is dangerous and patient must be moved before able to provide care. E.g. include armpit-forearm drag, shirt drag and blanket drag

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37
Q

What is an urgent move?

A

Used when patient has potentially life-threatening injuries and must be moved quick. Rapid extrication- urgent move used for patients in motor vehicle. Requires many rescuers and long backboard. Patient rotated onto backboard with manual cervical spine precautions and removed from vehicle.

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38
Q

Non-urgent moves?

A

no hazards and no life-threatening conditions. Direct ground lift, extremity lift, direct carry method, draw sheet.

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39
Q

What is the log roll technique?

A

Used to place a patient on backboard or assess the posterior. Can be done while maintaining C spine. need 3 personnel, person controlling C spin directs the log roll.

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40
Q

What are some equipment needed for patient movement?

A

Wheeled stretcher- secures in ambulance for transport & safest
Portable stretcher- lightweight and compact stretcher
Stair Chair- staircases, elevators, doesn’t allow for C spine hold, CPR or ventilation
Backboard- used mainly for C spine immobilization, light, allows for CPR and ventilation, needs 4 people
Scoop stretcher- good for reducing patient discomfort
Neonatal isolette- keeps neonatal patients warm

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41
Q

How do you pack a patient for air medical transport?

A

If hazard materials, decontaminate patient before loading. Notify air medical crew of special circumstances. secure loose equipment. Don’t approach without authorization. Don’t approach from rear.

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42
Q

Transporting bariatric (obese) patients?

A

Request additional assistance

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43
Q

How to transport patients with skeletal abnormalities?

A

Patients with curvature of spine (kyphosis, lordosis), may not be capable of lying supine without special padding

44
Q

How to transport pregnant patients?

A

Late preg- don’t place supine as this risks supine hypotensive syndrome. Place on left side. If patient has potential cervical spine trauma, tile backboard left 20 degrees.

45
Q

Patients may be restrained if they are an immediate threat as a last resort after planning and requesting law enforcement what are some other guidelines?

A

Get additional help, use minimum force, secure patients supine with backboard (not prone), use soft and padded restraints, monitor consciousness airway and distal circulation (below restraints), thoroughly document what happened, don’t hogtie or leave unsupervised. Use of force must be protective but not punitive.

46
Q

Who do EMS providers operate under the license of?

A

Their Physician medical director. Contact if unsure how to manage a patient

47
Q

What is the scope of practice?

A

Outlines actions a provider legally allowed to perform. National EMS education standard NEMSES attempt to align scope

48
Q

What is the standard of care?

A

Degree of care a reasonable person with similar training would provide in similar situation.

49
Q

What are the types of consent?

A

Informed, expressed, implied, minor, involuntary

50
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Required from all patients alert and competent. Patients must be informed of all info that would impact a persons decision to accept or refuse care and transport.

51
Q

What is expressed consent?

A

Requires patient alert and competent- can be verbal or not. Similar to informed but not as in-depth- used to obtain consent for more basic procedures.

52
Q

What is implied consent?

A

Allows assumption of consent for emergency care from unresponsive or incompetent patient. Incompetent from drugs, injury etc. can be used to treat patient who initially refuses but later loses consciousness.

53
Q

What is minor consent?

A

Minors aren’t competent to accept or refuse care. Required from parent or legal guardian. Implied consent used if unable to reach and treatment is needed. Not required for emancipated minors (e.g. financially independent)

54
Q

What is involuntary consent?

A

Used for mentally incompetent adults or those in custody of law enforcement. Consent must be obtained from entity with appropriate legal authority.

55
Q

What are advanced directives?

A

written instruction signed by patient, specifying patients wishes regarding treatment and resuscitative efforts.

56
Q

What are types of advanced directives?

A

Do Not Resuscitate (DNR)- specific to resuscitations, don’t affect treatment prior to patient entering cardiac arrest.
Living will- broader, address health-care wishes prior to entering cardiac arrest (airways, ventilators)

57
Q

EMT liability includes good Samaritan laws, what are they?

A

designed to protect someone who renders care as long as they aren’t being compensated and gross negligence not committed.

58
Q

What is criminal liability?

A

Involves government entity taking legal action against person. Includes assault- can be guilty if perceived they intended to inflict harm- contact not required. Battery- physically touching without consent.

59
Q

What composes civil liability?

A

In civil law, individual (plaintiff) sues emt (defendant) for wrongful act involving injury or damage. May involve multiple RMS providers, plaintiff seeks monetary compensation.

60
Q

What is negligence?

A

EMS providers accused of unintentional harm to plaintiff.

61
Q

What must the plaintiff prove all four of to prove negligence?

A

Duty to act- EMT has obligation to respond and provide care, Breech of duty- EMT failed to asset to transport patient according to standard of care, Damage- plaintiff experienced damage, causation- injury to plaintiff was due to EMTs breech of duty.

62
Q

What is gross negligence?

A

Exceeds simple, involves indifference and violation of legal responsibility. Includes Reckless patient care that is dangerous to patient. Results in civil or criminal charges

63
Q

What is abandenment?

A

once care initiated, EMS can’t terminate care without patient consent. Termination of care without transferring patient to equal or higher medical authority. Transfer of care must include verbal report to equal or higher medical authority.

64
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

May be guilty if transport competent patient without consent.

65
Q

What are laws regarding hospital destination and what factors may effect it?

A

Destination factors include patients request or medical direction, closest facility, protocols/triage guidelines, hospital diversion or bypass. Follow local laws and consult medical director. Patient’s ability to pay not a factor. Document why destination was chosen.

66
Q

What are patient refusals?

A

Competent patients can refuse treatment regardless of severity. Present high liability- can request medical director or advanced life support.

67
Q

What does competency require when considering patient refusal?

A

Requires awareness of 4 things- person (know their own name), place, time, event. Additional considerations- patient age, impairment, mental impairment, communication barriers.

68
Q

What should patient be informed about during refusal?

A

Treatment recommended and possible consequences of refusal.

69
Q

How an EMT reduce liability upon patient refusal?

A

Ensure patient competent, provide care and convince of transport, ensure patient is informed, contact medical direction and document well.

70
Q

What should documentation include upon patient refusal?

A

Should reflect initial and second refusal after being fully informed. Document patients awareness of person, place, time, event. Document all info and advice given to patient. Document times, 2 sets of vitals and treatment. Document they are aware that they can change their min. Consultation with medical director. Obtain patient’s signature and witness signature. Use approved refusal of care form.

71
Q

When can EMTs release confidential patient info without consent?

A

Information is necessary for continuity of care, necessary to facilitate billing, received a valid subpoena, reporting crimes, abuse, assault, neglect

72
Q

What is HIPPA?

A

Health insurance portability and accountability act- federal law- improved privacy protection. Gives patients control over health records. EMS must provide privacy practices and receive signature

73
Q

What is COBRA and EMTALA?

A

Consolidate Omnibus Budget reconciliation act and emergency medical treatment and active labor act. guarantee public access to emergency care. stop inappropriate transfer of patients ‘dump’.

74
Q

What should you during an inter-facility transport?

A

Obtain patient report from transferring facility before departing, confirm exact destination, ensure patients condition doesn’t exceed scope of practice, obtain consent from patient

75
Q

Death determination signs

A

Presumptive signs indicate need to start resuscitation and include unresponsiveness, pulselessness and apnea. definitive signs indicate resuscitation shouldn’t be initiated. Definitive signs: decomposition, rigor mortis- stiffening of body after death, dependent lividity- settling of blood within body, decapitation.

76
Q

What situations must law enforcement be contacted?

A

Scene where patient is dead, suicide, assault, child or elder abuse, crime scenes, childbirth

77
Q

What should EMT do during crime scenes?

A

Ensure scene safety, provide patient care, avoid unnecessary disturbance, remember position of patient, report everything touched, cut around holes in clothing, note suspicious activity, discourage SA patients from changing clothes or showering, get same-sex provider for SA, leave once no longer needed

78
Q

What should an EMT do when encountering an organ donor?

A

Proof of intent to donate organs obtained through signed donor card or license, treat patient as normally would, notify medical direction.

79
Q

What are potential ethical conflicts?

A

Triage at mass casualty incidents, coercive refusals, futile resuscitation attempts

80
Q

What are the three types of medical communication?

A

EMS communications (w/ dispatch, medical direction and other emergency), Therapeutic communications (interaction and ability to get medical info), Interpersonal communication (ability to send and receive info between at least 2 people)

81
Q

What are the devices in EMS communication?

A

Portable radios (hand held transmitter w/ limited range unless used w/ repeater), mobile radios (vehicle mounted), repeater- base station receives transmissions and rebroadcasts at higher power, Mobile data computers (MDCs) relay digital info instead of voice

82
Q

What is the FCC?

A

Federal communications commission- regulates all radio operations in US and has allocated specific frequencies for EMS use only

83
Q

What are guidelines for radio communication?

A

When communicating with dispatch, acknowledge receipt of dispatch and notify when en route, on scene, to hospital and in hospital. Ensure correct frequency, no other radio traffic, depress transmit button and wait one second, identify who you are talking to then yourself, use clear text, use affirmative and negative, use copy, echo order from medical direction for accurate. Don’t use unnecessary verbiage or relay protected info.

84
Q

What should you do when communicating to medical direction?

A

Relay a lot of info objectively, high to low priority. State unit, destination, certification, ETA, patient age, sex and complaint, patient consciousness, history or MOI, symptoms, vitals, physical exam, medications or allergies, treatment provided and response, requests, echo orders provided by medical direction.

85
Q

What does interpersonal communication entail?

A

Sending and receiving verbal communications, messenger encodes and receiver decodes, non-verbal cues and attitude affect this.

86
Q

How do you establish rapport with the patient?

A

introduce yourself, ask patients name, make eye contact, be honest, be aware of special needs and respect cultural differences. Don’t: make promises can’t deliver, lie, give advice beyond scope of practice, use bias, interrupt, be confrontational or overuse medical terms. Hard with special challenges, patients under influence and minors

87
Q

What should therapeutic info include?

A

Compassion, competence, confidence, conscience, and commitment to patient.

88
Q

What should you do when questioning patient?

A

Listen, ask important questions first, open ended questions better, closed questions for specific info, avoid bias questions.

89
Q

What is the PCR?

A

Patient care report

90
Q

What is the importance of the PCR?

A

Continuation of care, legal document (part of patients record, subpoenaed in court, if you did it write it down, document well), Billing, research and quality improvement

91
Q

What is the minimum data set?

A

Identifies the info that should be included in every PCR

92
Q

What times should be recorded in PCR?

A

Dispatch time, time en route to call, time on scene, patient contact time, en route to hospital, arrival, time transfer

93
Q

What should be included in PCR required by minimum data set?

A

Time, patient info, administrative info, narrative

94
Q

What should you include about patient info?

A

Patient age, sex, chief of complaint, consciousness, 2 vital signs, all assessments, treatments and response to treatments

95
Q

What should you include about administrative info?

A

Address of call, date of call, unit designation, name/ identifying number and certification of all EMS providers on call.

96
Q

What should you include about Narrative?

A

EMT paints picture of what happened

97
Q

In documentation guidwlines, what is the FACT acronym?

A

Factual (not opinion based), Accurate, complete (unless special circumstance), Timely (ASAP after transfer)> always document objectively

98
Q

What is the differences of associated symptoms and pertinent negatives?

A

Need to document both. Associated symptoms include chief of complaint but other symptoms. Pertinent negatives- signs or symptoms suspect regardless of patient opinion.

99
Q

What should you do about abbreviations?

A

Only use ones agency approves of, spelling counts

100
Q

What should you do about mistakes in PCR?

A

Draw single line through them

101
Q

What is the difference between error of omission and commission?

A

error of omission- something that should be included but was left out, error of commission- something incorrect include on PCR

102
Q

What should you do about patient refusals?

A

Document appropriately (guidelines above)

103
Q

Pros and cons of E-PCRs?

A

Pros- better data storage and retrieval, can be used for CQI and research. Cons- hard to paint picture, transfer may be difficult

104
Q

What are special reporting situations?

A

Special documentation may be required in addition or in replacement of PCR when there is MCI mass casualty incident, suspected abuse, animal bites.

105
Q

What is the difference between a neonate and an infant?

A

Neonate- newborn- birth to 1 mo

Infant- up to 1 yr

106
Q

What are the vital signs of an infant?

A

Respirations- 30-60 breaths pm for newborns, 25-50 bpm infants
Pulse- normal pulse 140-160 beats pm, newborn 100-140
Blood- newborn 70 systolic, infant 90

107
Q

What is the physiology of newborns and infants?

A

Typical newborn weight 6 to 8 points, double 6 months, triple 1 year. Head- 25% body- heat loss. Neonates first lose weight then gain it back.