EMT HW Questions Flashcards
Statement that most accurately describes emergency medical services (EMS)
A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation of the sick and injured
The standards for prehospital care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
State office of EMS
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
paramedic
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of a:
paramedic
What statement regarding the NREMT is correct ?
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, and EMT should be able to do what ?
Assist a patient with certain prescribed medications
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training ?
Automated external defibrillator
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe ?
Off-line medical direction
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed
What is an example of a knowledge based failure ?
An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because they did not know the pertinent information about the drug
Obtaining continual medical education is the responsibility of the ?
Individual EMT
The determination that prompts surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on ?
EMS research
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:
recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives
The EMT certification exam is designed to:
Ensure that EMT’s are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills
What scenario would involve administration of ALS?
A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
Maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:
Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?
Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful
Vector borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
animals or insects
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
wash your hands in between patient contacts
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:
offer little or no side protection
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:
allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions
Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?
Immunity
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure?
Syphilis
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
you have been exposed to TB
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
72
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
requests sexual favors in exchange for something else
The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is
substandard or inappropriate patient care
The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called:
resilience
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is:
ensuring your personal safety
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:
carbon dioxide deficiency
The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:
wear at least three layers of clothing
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to
careless handling of sharps
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you
have been infected with hepatitis A in the past
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by:
requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?
Ensure the vehicle is stable
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:
increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
Implied
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?
Protecting patient privacy
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
clearly state the patient’s medical problem
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?
Dependent lividity
Putrefaction is defined as:
decomposition of the body’s tissues
The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
Medical director
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:
Another EMT
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?
A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:
Assault
Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?
Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
inadequate patient care was administered
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient’s emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker’s treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered:
legal but unethical
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?
A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
Attempted suicide
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:
did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?
Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
standard of care
Ethnocentrism is defined as:
considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:
maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?
Calm and confident
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:
elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:
determine the degree of the patient’s impairment
The patient care report (PCR) ensures:
continuity of care
All information recorded on the PCR must be:
considered confidential
A patient’s refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:
an informed refusal
Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities?
Cardiac arrest
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:
base station
A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
repeater
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies?
Scanner
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to “push to talk” and “release to listen” describes which mode of communication?
Simplex
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:
brief and easily understood
You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.
slander
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher’s responsibilities include all of the following, except:
discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient’s privacy by:
not disclosing his or her name
You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate?
“It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow.”
Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct?
Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:
respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm.
distal
A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a:
distal humerus fracture
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:
medial
The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is:
inferior
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
proximal
In relation to the chest, the back is:
posterior
Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word “dorsal”?
Posterior
A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?
Plantar
The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles.
apex
Movement or motion away from the body’s midline is called:
abduction
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:
bilateral
A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:
only one side of his chest rises when he inhales
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body’s position?
Prone
A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position.
Fowler
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she:
is excessively thirsty
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that:
she has excessive vomiting.
The term “supraventricular tachycardia” means:
a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles
The term “pericardiocentesis” means:
the removal of fluid from around the heart.
Enlargement of the liver is called:
hepatomegaly
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient’s leg stops bleeding. This is called:
hemostasis
The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures.
midline
The axial skeleton is composed of the:
skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column
Which of the following is not a facial bone?
Mastoid
The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the:
coccyx
The carpal bones form the:
wrist
The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint.
hinge
Skeletal muscle is also called:
voluntary muscle.
As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:
alveoli
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:
diffusion
Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that:
contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange
The muscle tissue of the heart is called the:
myocardium
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:
pulmonary veins
The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:
sinoatrial node
The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the:
capillaries
White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by:
protecting the body from infection
Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include:
epinephrine and norepinephrine
The central nervous system is composed of the:
brain and spinal cord
All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain?
Brainstem
Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space?
Kidneys
Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body?
Pituitary gland
Which of the following statements regarding an infant’s vital signs is correct?
An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature.
Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue
An infant or small child’s airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
10 to 18 months
Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
19 and 25 years
Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer
Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the:
elasticity of the lungs decreases
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except:
increased surface area available for air exchange
Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed
Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?
Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons
Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs?
Increased weight
The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically:
70 beats/min
Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age
In preconventional reasoning, children:
act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want
Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child
The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:
70 to 120 beats/min
You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she:
responds to her name but is fearful of your presence
The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
sacrum
When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:
shoulder girdle
The first rule of safe lifting is to:
keep your back in a straight, vertical position
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
keep the weight as close to your body as possible
Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique?
One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso
You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.
four
The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
injury to you or your patient
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher
Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?
Draw sheet method
The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:
basket stretcher
Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct?
Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
decontaminate
After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:
remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so
When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:
the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible
When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:
kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over
Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?
Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:
with a deformed humerus
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
increased stability from a wider wheelbase
The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:
the continuum of care
Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:
collaboration
When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she
does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task
EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work:
interdependently
When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on:
solving a clinical problem
Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?
Preoxygenation with a BVM
In an independent group, you would have:
your own work area
In an interdependent group, when one person fails:
everyone fails
To be a great EMT, strive for:
foundational knowledge
Which comes first in EMS decision making?
Data gathering
Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred?
Outcome evaluation
While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, “Why even splint the patient’s leg if they’re only going to remove it in the ED?” This statement indicates that:
the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal
An effective team leader should:
help the team accomplish goals
In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:
works interdependently
The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:
defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received
EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:
the patient had a reported syncopal episode
Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?
Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format
For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:
common language
Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?
Anchoring
If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should:
discuss the problem after the call
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
Headache
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
all the patients have been triaged
Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?
Ability to speak
The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:
94% to 99%
In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery.
radial
In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min
60, 100
Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:
decreased blood oxygen
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:
identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment
As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:
maintain stabilization of the head.
Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?
“Does your mother have diabetes?”
Capnography is used to:
determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled
Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?
Systematic head-to-toe examination
Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?
Systematic head-to-toe examination
The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
locate injuries not found in the primary assessment
The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:
patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients
A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:
falsely high systolic and diastolic reading
A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:
two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow
When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
systolic blood pressure
When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:
repeat the primary assessment
A patient’s short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:
day and event
A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:
13
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
Bronchus
Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:
the epiglottis
The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.
phrenic
Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult?
Shallow breathing
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
Cyanosis
Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:
adequate amounts of surfactant
The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood is called:
hypercarbia
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
The tongue
Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?
Muscle
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
500 psi
The hypoxic drive is influenced by:
low blood oxygen levels
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
nonrebreathing mask
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
44%
High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:
apneic oxygenation
With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen.
90%
Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:
cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood
The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).
2,000
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:
the study of drugs and their actions on the body
A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:
blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them
Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug?
Aspirin
Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?
Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch?
Transcutaneous
The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.
form
Separation is especially an issue with medicine used as a(n):
suspension
Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct?
An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used
What medication form does oral glucose come in?
Gel
An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:
authorization from medical control has been obtained
In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.
peer-assisted
The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called:
absorption
The medical term for a low blood glucose level is:
hypoglycemia
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
prevents the aggregation of platelets
Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain:
relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries
You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control?
Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct?
The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug
With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to _______ oxygen.
44%
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:
cardiovascular disease
Shock is the result of:
hypoperfusion to the cells of the body
Capillary sphincters are:
circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries
One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:
carbon dioxide
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?
Cardiac tamponade
Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?
Wheezing
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:
plasma
Neurogenic shock occurs when:
failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation
In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:
hypothermia
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
absent peripheral pulses
Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?
A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
Liver laceration
All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:
ischemic stroke
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:
apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist
To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:
the skin
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:
cardiogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
increased preload
Distributive shock occurs when:
widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds
A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:
septic shock
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?
Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?
Decompression of the injured side of the chest
Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?
Cardiac monitoring
Most prehospital cardiac arrests in adults occur as the result of:
a cardiac dysrhythmia
Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient’s airway when a spinal injury is suspected?
Jaw-thrust
A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:
is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately
If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:
reposition the patient’s airway
To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient’s chest at a rate of:
100 to 120 compressions per minute
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
respiratory arrest
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?
15:2
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
with one or two hands
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?
Chest thrusts
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
involves hands-on practice
When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress:
at least 2 inches
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
prone
In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:
30:2
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?
100
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery.
brachial
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
back slaps
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
if you ventilate a patient too quickly
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
gastric distention
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
begin CPR until an AED is available
In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms
An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness
Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:
attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient
When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?
Medical history
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.
neurologic
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
repeating the primary assessment
The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:
addresses the patient’s symptoms more than the actual disease process
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
take standard precautions
In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?
Recent travel
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:
has a greater ability to produce disease.
A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:
meningitis
The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:
get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient’s illness?
Asking questions related to the chief complaint
The secondary assessment of a medical patient:
is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short
Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
Ibuprofen
Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include:
fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?
68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:
cough
Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include:
prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
shortness of breath or difficulty breathing
The two processes that occur during respiration are:
inspiration and expiration
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
Asthma is caused by a response of the:
immune system
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a narcotic overdose
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:
blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing
Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:
stridor
A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental oxygen, you should:
determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler
Albuterol is a generic name for:
Ventolin
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
Alveoli
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:
adequate air exchange
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?
Severe anxiety
At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:
expiratory wheezing
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
fluid accumulation outside the lung
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
tachypnea and tingling in the extremities
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:
abnormal breath sounds
When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should:
start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds
Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct?
Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood
When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:
respirations increase in rate and depth
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
right atrium
Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?
Pulmonary veins
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:
sinoatrial node
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:
slows the heart and respiratory rates
The right coronary artery supplies blood to the:
right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle
The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the:
femoral arteries
Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called:
atherosclerosis
Angina pectoris occurs when:
myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply
The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they:
are in denial
When documenting a patient’s description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should:
use the patient’s own words
Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?
Dependent edema
A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
the inner layers of the aorta become separated
Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to:
assess the scene for potential hazards
Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger?
Aspirin
Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct?
Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes
Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS.
three
When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the LL and RL electrodes should be placed:
on the thighs or ankles
The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because:
it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation
Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:
dry the chest if it is wet
Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:
decreased pumping force of the heart muscle
The three major parts of the brain are the:
cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem
The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:
brain stem
Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:
cerebellum
The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:
foramen magnum
Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?
Blockage of a cerebral artery
Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?
Sudden, severe headache
Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache?
Neck stiffness or pain
Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?
Normal level of consciousness
Febrile seizures:
are usually benign but should be evaluated
A patient with an altered mental status is:
not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:
liver
A 40-year-old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:
epilepsy
Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:
arm drift, speech, and facial droop
When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:
ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
has bleeding within the brain
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
hypertension
A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:
unable to produce or understand speech
Status epilepticus is characterized by:
prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:
a seizure
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
Solid abdominal organs include the:
spleen, kidneys, and pancreas
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?
Liver
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?
Pancreas
Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?
Spleen
The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:
removing sodium and water from the body
The parietal peritoneum lines the:
walls of the abdominal cavity
The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:
peritonitis
Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:
referred pain
Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?
An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs
Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:
an ulcer
Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?
Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating
Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:
appendicitis
Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who
consume a lot of alcohol.
Your patient’s past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this?
Heart failure
A strangulated hernia is one that:
loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:
aortic aneurysm.
The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:
diarrhea
Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?
Cystitis
Chronic renal failure is a condition that:
is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.
Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
disorder of glucose metabolism.
Type 1 diabetes:
is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body.
Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:
supplemental insulin.
The normal blood glucose level is between:
80 and 120 mg/dL.
Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:
insulin is not available in the body.
A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient’s clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:
is significantly hyperglycemic.
Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?
Weight loss and polyuria
Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:
takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine:
the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.
Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?
Blindness
In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:
has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.
Hemoglobin is:
found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen.
Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?
In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:
acute arterial rupture.
Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:
excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys.
Excessive eating caused by cellular “hunger” is called:
polyphagia
Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.
When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:
rate and depth of breathing.
To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.
Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?
An exaggerated immune system response to any substance
Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:
histamines and leukotrienes.
Urticaria is the medical term for:
hives
The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n):
allergen
A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:
a wheal
The stinger from a honeybee should be:
scraped away from the skin.
Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
drying of the eyes.
Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?
Stridor
Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:
wheezing and hypotension are present.
When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:
lateral portion of the thigh.
When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:
3 seconds.
While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:
narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs.
Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:
properly dispose of the syringe.
The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration
1 minute
what are the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis:
urticaria and angioedema.
Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?
A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin
Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?
Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly.
Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient’s allergic reaction?
The environment in which the patient is found
Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?
Upper airway swelling
A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should:
assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen.
Substance abuse is most accurately defined as:
misusing a substance to produce a desired effect.
An EMT’s primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:
recognize that a poisoning occurred.
Heroin is an example of a(n):
opioid
Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:
oxycodone (Percocet).
Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:
tachycardia
Which of the following questions would be least pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?
Why was the substance ingested?
Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:
avoid contaminating yourself.
Inhaled airborne chemicals should be diluted with:
oxygen.
Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, except:
Fructose
What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?
Alkaline poison.
The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is:
black stools.
After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is most important to:
document the intervention.
A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:
tolerance
A hypnotic drug is one that:
induces sleep.
A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:
aspirin
If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:
try to find the container the substance was in.
The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:
is aware of the substance that is involved.
Most poisonings occur via the __________ route.
ingestion
Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:
aspirin
Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?
The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning.
____________ is what you can see of a person’s response to the environment.
Behavior
The term “behavioral crisis” is MOST accurately defined as:
a situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior.
Organic brain syndrome is defined as:
a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.
The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:
ensure your safety.
General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include:
being prepared to spend extra time with the patient.
A technique used to gain insight into a patient’s thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called:
reflective listening.
Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct?
Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient’s emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and respirations.
Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Alzheimer’s disease.
The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:
depression
Signs of excited delirium include
diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.
In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient?
Supine
Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should:
reassess the patient’s airway and breathing.
Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse?
Alcohol withdrawal
Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after:
exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence.
You may not be able to determine whether a person has a mental illness, but you can predict the person’s likelihood of becoming:
violent
A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a:
functional disorder
Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder?
Schizophrenia
When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should:
be direct and clearly state your intentions.
After ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT’s next priority when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:
assess the patient’s response to his or her environment.
People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT:
married males older than 30 years.
Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:
fallopian tube.
In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:
becomes engorged with blood.
The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are:
between 11 and 16 years of age.
When a female has reached menarche:
she is capable of becoming pregnant.
It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:
experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.
Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?
PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the:
urinary bladder
Potentially life-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include:
ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy.
As a woman approaches menopause:
her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity.
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated?
Chlamydia
In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer:
may be relatively painless.
Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:
given the option of being treated by a female EMT.
When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:
has gathered patient history information.
When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT’s main focus should be to:
maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.
General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina.
Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct?
Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis.
When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:
place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.
The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be:
limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.
When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should:
keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.
EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, “I can’t remember anything, but I know I was raped.” The EMTs should suspect that:
the patient was given a drug prior to the incident.
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the:
mechanism of injury.
Force acting over a distance is the definition of
work.
The energy of a moving object is called:
kinetic energy.
When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:
quadruples
If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should
suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.
Airbags are designed to:
decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to:
identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:
is ejected or partially ejected.
Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT:
the speed of the fall.
When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:
osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:
cavitation
When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should:
avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure.
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?
Rapid transport to a trauma center
In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must:
have general surgeons in-house 24 hours a day.
Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma?
Deployment of the airbag
Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash?
Deformed steering wheel
Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:
the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include:
Hemoptysis (coughing up blood)
According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she:
has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
Which of the following body systems or components is the least critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body?
The filtering of blood cells in the spleen
Capillaries link the arterioles and the
venules
Hypoperfusion is another name for:
shock
Perfusion is most accurately defined as the:
circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body’s metabolic needs.
Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for two to three hours?
Skeletal muscle
An organ or tissue might better resist damage from hypoperfusion if the:
body’s temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C).
Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume.
20%
The ability of a person’s cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is most related to:
how rapidly he or she bleeds.
A fractured femur can result in the loss of ______ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh.
1 L
In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding might be:
weakness or dizziness.
Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with:
hematemesis (vomiting blood)
In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is:
dizziness upon standing.
Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:
applying local direct pressure.
Which of the following splinting devices would be most appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?
Air splint
Bleeding from the nose following head trauma:
is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped.
Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is most often controlled by:
splinting the extremity.
Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
low fluid volume leads to inadequate perfusion.
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, except:
systolic blood pressure.
External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because:
veins are under a lower pressure.
Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:
pain and distention.
Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin?
Ears
What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body?
Epidermis
All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, except for the:
lips
Functions of the skin include all of the following, except:
the production of key antibodies.
A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):
contusion
A hematoma develops when:
large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged.
When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is most important to:
remain alert for more severe underlying injuries.
An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n):
avulsion
An abdominal evisceration:
occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.
In addition to severe bleeding, the most life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is:
an air embolism.
In contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human:
carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.
A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a:
superficial burn.
A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the:
dermal layer
Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct?
The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the body surface area.
When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should:
brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should:
avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.
Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, except:
immobilization of the injury.
You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should:
assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
In addition to external bleeding, the most significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is:
infection
Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient?
Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest
The upper jawbones are called the:
maxillae
The lower jawbone is called the:
mandible
The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the:
tragus
The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:
just anterior to the tragus.
The mastoid process is located approximately:
1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.
The cricoid cartilage:
is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
The eyeball itself is referred to as the:
globe
The white portion of the eye is called the:
sclera
When a light is shone into the pupil:
it should become smaller in size.
The skin and underlying tissues of the face:
have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely.
Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are most important because:
such injuries can affect the respiratory system.
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is most effectively controlled with:
direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
The term “hyphema” is defined as:
blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the:
conjunctiva
The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the:
lacrimal gland.
Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because:
of the risk for airway problems.
When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient’s injuries because:
they might need to call a specialist to see the patient.
Which of the following findings would be least suggestive of a head injury?
Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light
The Adam’s apple is:
the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
Allows movement of the head
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:
brain and spinal cord.
Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the:
cerebellum
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the:
dura mater.
The _________ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
peripheral
What part of the nervous system controls the body’s voluntary activities?
Somatic
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is:
epinephrine
The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the:
spinal canal.
The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to:
depressed skull fractures.
Signs and symptoms that might be found in a patient who has experienced a concussion include:
nausea and ringing in the ears.
In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion:
involves physical injury to the brain tissue.
When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should use the:
jaw-thrust maneuver.
You should be most suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is:
slow
The most reliable sign of a head injury is:
a decreased level of consciousness.
When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she:
might lose sensation below the level of the injury.
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
the four-person log roll.
A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who:
are in a sitting position and are clinically stable.
Which of the following interventions may be used to help reduce intracranial pressure?
30-degree elevation of the head
When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient’s _________ is in charge of all patient movements.
head
Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless:
it causes a problem managing the airway.
An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm:
might rise as high as the nipple line.
Which of the following organs or structures does not reside within the mediastinum?
Lungs
Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when:
the intercostal muscles contract.
The ________ nerves supply the diaphragm.
phrenic
Hemoptysis is defined as:
coughing up blood.
Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called:
pleurisy
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury:
requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
Pneumothorax is defined as:
accumulation of air in the pleural space.
A simple pneumothorax:
is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.
When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will most likely find
signs and symptoms of shock.
Patients with rib fractures will commonly:
breathe rapidly and shallowly.
A flail chest occurs when:
a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the:
diaphragm
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at:
C3, C4, and C5.
A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is most suggestive of a:
myocardial contusion.
Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that:
air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung.
Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, except:
collapsed jugular veins.
If a person’s tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged:
minute volume will decrease.
If a patient with a chest injury only inhales small amounts of air per breath, he or she:
must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
An open pneumothorax is:
an open chest wound through which air moves during breathing.
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, except the:
spleen
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen after blunt trauma is most suggestive of injury to the:
liver
Peritonitis usually occurs when:
hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.
The mesentery is:
a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will most likely cause:
distention
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of:
intra-abdominal bleeding.
A sign of kidney damage after blunt trauma is:
hematuria
Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of:
a poorly placed lap belt.
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles to ease pain is called:
guarding
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine:
prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as:
red areas of skin.
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen:
peritonitis might not develop for several hours.
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is most indicative of a ruptured:
diaphragm
Which of the following organs is at most risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture?
Urinary bladder
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy:
might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should:
avoid speculation and document only factual data.
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is correct?
The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding.
Which of the following statements regarding rebound tenderness is correct?
It is often discovered when the patient is jarred or moved suddenly.
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:
should be assumed to be a sign of shock.
Which of the following organs would most likely bleed profusely when injured?
Liver
The musculoskeletal system refers to the:
bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct?
It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain?
Skeletal
Atrophy is a condition that occurs when:
muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma.
Bone marrow produces
blood cells
A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments
Sprain
A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture
pathologic
A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child’s bone and might lead to bone growth abnormalities.
epiphyseal
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called:
traction
Traction splints primarily immobilize and secure fractures of the:
femur
The most commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the:
clavicle
Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock?
Pelvis
When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is most important for the EMT to:
leave the toes exposed.
In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity?
If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is the least severe?
Nondisplaced pelvic fracture
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle.
striated
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called:
tendons
Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle?
Blood vessels
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, except:
deformity
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct?
Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in:
barometric pressure.
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called:
conduction
The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body’s surface, is called:
convection
Covering a patient’s _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss.
head
Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, except:
hot, dry skin.
To obtain the most accurate reading of a patient’s core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer:
into the patient’s rectum.
The two most efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are:
sweating and vasodilation.
High humidity reduces the body’s ability to lose heat through:
evaporation
Drowning is most accurately defined as:
death from suffocation after submersion in water.
The diving reflex might allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to:
bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate.
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when:
the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
The most prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:
abdominal or joint pain.
Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically:
superficial
Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is correct?
Lightning strikes might cause cardiac dysrhythmias that spontaneously resolve.
Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation?
Local swelling and ecchymosis
The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:
nervous system.
High air temperature reduces the body’s ability to lose heat by:
radiation
Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they:
exhibit poor thermoregulation.
Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rap¬idly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia.
Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when:
a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
The umbilical cord:
carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein.
The amniotic fluid serves to:
insulate and protect the fetus.
By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother’s:
belly button.
Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because:
pregnancy causes an increased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.
The term primigravida refers to a woman who:
is pregnant for the first time.
Which of the following occurs during true labor?
Uterine contractions become more regular.
Eclampsia is most accurately defined as:
seizures that result from severe hypertension.
A pregnant trauma patient might lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because:
pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.
Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?
Crowning of the baby’s head
A precipitous labor and delivery is most common in women who:
have delivered a baby before.
When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the:
start of one to the start of the next.
After a baby is born, it is important to:
ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed.
Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, except:
positive-pressure ventilations.
Which of the following is not a component of the Apgar score?
Body size
Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, except:
profound tachycardia.
An infant is premature if it:
weighs less than 5 pounds or is born before 36 weeks’ gestation.
In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant:
has an even proportionately larger head.
In contrast to abruptio placenta, placenta previa:
might present without significant abdominal pain.
Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is correct?
A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.
A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth.
15 to 30
The first month of life after birth is referred to as the:
neonatal period.
Which of the following statements regarding a 3-month-old infant is correct?
A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger.
When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should:
talk to the child, not just the caregiver.
The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to:
allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.
A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by:
age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.
Before positioning an infant or child’s airway, you should:
place him or her on a firm surface.
Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she:
has a history compatible with a serious illness.
Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, except:
wheezing.
Febrile seizures are most common in children between:
6 months and 6 years.
Children with N. meningitides would most likely present with:
cherry-red spots or a purplish rash.
The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children:
vary widely, depending on the child’s age and weight.
An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with:
absent urine output.
Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are most commonly associated with:
alcohol
When a child experiences a blunt chest injury:
the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking.
Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include:
positioning, ice packs, and extremity elevation.
Bruising to the _________ is least suggestive of child abuse.
shins
Which of the following is true regarding the legal implications of child abuse?
EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse.
The EMT should be most concerned when a child presents with fever and:
a rash.
When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be most appropriate to:
place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup.
Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate only if:
his or her tidal volume is adequate.
To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should:
have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time.
Good general communication techniques with the elderly include:
frequently asking the patient if he or she understands.
When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the most effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to:
transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with.
An elderly patient might understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because:
he or she fears hospitalization.
The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to:
help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients.
Which of the following observations or statements represents the “E” in the GEMS diamond?
The patient’s residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.
A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you most suspicious for:
pneumonia
The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with:
tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
The reduction in brain weight and volume increases an older person’s risk for:
head trauma
Syncope in the older patient is:
caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm:
is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis.
Osteoporosis is defined as:
a decrease in bone mass and density.
The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called:
polypharmacy
Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of:
osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.
Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they:
are taking blood-thinning medications.
When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient’s wishes cannot be located, the EMT should:
attempt to resuscitate the patient.
Many older victims of physical abuse might make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because:
they fear retribution from the abuser.
Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse.
physical
Which of the following is the most common mechanism of injury in older patients?
Falls
Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, except:
an acute onset of dementia.
Which of the following statements regarding patients with intellectual disabilities is correct?
Patients with intellectual disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients.
Autism is defined as a:
pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.
Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include:
a round head with a flat occiput.
A service dog is easily identified by its:
harness
Which of the following would be the most practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located?
Using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions
Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement.
body
Spina bifida is defined as:
a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column.
A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a:
shunt
An obese person is ________ over ideal weight.
30% or more
If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should:
attempt to use the patient’s suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.
Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used?
As a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located
Vagus nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with:
chronic seizure disorders.
A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n):
colostomy.
When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should:
establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.
In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker:
regulates the patient’s heart rate if it falls below a preset value.
The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to:
prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.
When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to:
tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.
When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to:
report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary.
Which of the following conditions would most likely be encountered in a patient with cerebral palsy?
Seizure disorder
Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct?
Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration.
A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed.
Type 1
Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, except:
emergency care provided at the scene.
Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance?
Bleeding control supplies
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped.
300
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.
Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, except:
hazardous materials gear.
Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes:
at least one EMT.
During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is most important to:
converse with the patient and provide reassurance.
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called:
cleaning.
When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should:
remain in the extreme left-hand lane.
Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would most likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph.
30
While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:
stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at:
intersections
Typically, medevac helicopters fly at speeds between:
130 and 150 mph.
The purpose of a jump kit is to:
contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should:
position the ambulance upwind.
Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include:
a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:
slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct?
If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except:
giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.
Extrication is defined as:
removal from a dangerous situation or position.
Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is:
surveying the area for hazards.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident:
is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
Situational awareness is most accurately defined as:
the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact.
Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team?
Providing safe entry and access to patients
When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, except:
the make and model of the vehicle.
Which of the following is the best example of gaining simple access to a patient?
Entering a vehicle through an open window
In contrast to simple access, complex access:
involves forcible entry into a vehicle.
Disentanglement involves:
removing a patient from a dangerous position.
When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should:
protect the cervical spine during the entire process.
Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team?
A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
. If a technical rescue team is required at the scene but is not present when you arrive, you should:
check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route.
The EMT’s role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to:
stand by at the command post until the person is located.
Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot.
100 lbs
Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then:
report to the incident commander for instructions.
The reasons for rescue failure can be recalled by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the “U” stands for:
underestimating the logistics of the incident.
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should:
ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should:
perform a primary assessment.
Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct?
Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.
A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilateral closed femur deformities. You should:
direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of:
agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.
The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to:
ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.
Command functions under the incident command system include all of the following, except:
triage officer.
During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the incident commander would most likely:
designate a safety officer but retain other command functions.
Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been:
communication
Which of the following duties or responsibilities does not fall within the realm of the medical branch of the incident command system?
Extrication
When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:
secondary triage is performed, and the appropriate treatment is rendered.
A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident.
yellow
According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing?
Open the airway and reassess breathing status.
According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should:
immediately check for a pulse.
A carboy is a container that would most likely be used to store and transport:
corrosives
Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs?
Water-reactive solids
Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone?
Command
The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are:
the Emergency Response Guidebook.
The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident.
staging
The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities.
transportation
The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called:
freelancing
Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category?
22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis
Unlike a multiple-casualty incident, a natural disaster:
often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.
Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct?
Some substances are not hazardous by themselves but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.
The 1996 Summer Olympics bombing is an example of:
domestic terrorism.
The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n):
violent religious group.
An attack on an abortion clinic would most likely be carried out by a(n):
single-issue group.
The process performed to artificially maximize the target population’s exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired result, is called:
weaponization
Most terrorist attacks are:
covert
Cross-contamination occurs when:
an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.
If the incident command system is already established at the scene of a terrorist attack, the EMT should:
locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the:
skin
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent?
Soman
Which of the following agents blocks the body’s ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds?
Hydrogen cyanide
A disease vector is defined as:
any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.
The skin lesions associated with smallpox:
are identical in their development.
Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct?
Pulmonary anthrax is the deadliest form.
When introduced into the body, ricin causes:
pulmonary edema and circulatory failure.
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where:
antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.
The least harmful form of ionizing radiation is:
alpha
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the:
patient’s distance from the epicenter of the explosion.
Which of the following statements regarding a “dirty bomb” is correct?
Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins:
are not contagious.
Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to:
seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.
