EMT HW Questions Flashcards
Statement that most accurately describes emergency medical services (EMS)
A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation of the sick and injured
The standards for prehospital care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:
State office of EMS
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
paramedic
Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of a:
paramedic
What statement regarding the NREMT is correct ?
The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, and EMT should be able to do what ?
Assist a patient with certain prescribed medications
Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training ?
Automated external defibrillator
Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe ?
Off-line medical direction
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed
What is an example of a knowledge based failure ?
An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because they did not know the pertinent information about the drug
Obtaining continual medical education is the responsibility of the ?
Individual EMT
The determination that prompts surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based mostly on ?
EMS research
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:
recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives
The EMT certification exam is designed to:
Ensure that EMT’s are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills
What scenario would involve administration of ALS?
A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
Maintain, update, and expand the EMT’s knowledge and skills
Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?
Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving
EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:
Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society
Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?
Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful
Vector borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
animals or insects
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
wash your hands in between patient contacts
Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:
offer little or no side protection
When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:
allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions
Which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?
Immunity
Which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure?
Syphilis
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
you have been exposed to TB
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
72
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
requests sexual favors in exchange for something else
The most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is
substandard or inappropriate patient care
The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called:
resilience
The most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is:
ensuring your personal safety
Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:
carbon dioxide deficiency
The most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:
wear at least three layers of clothing
The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to
careless handling of sharps
Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you
have been infected with hepatitis A in the past
General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for eight hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by:
requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support
What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?
Ensure the vehicle is stable
Characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:
increased self-image from performing well under a challenging situation
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
Implied
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?
Protecting patient privacy
For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
clearly state the patient’s medical problem
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?
Dependent lividity
Putrefaction is defined as:
decomposition of the body’s tissues
The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
Medical director
As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:
Another EMT
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?
A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:
Assault
Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?
Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence
In the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
inadequate patient care was administered
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient’s emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker’s treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered:
legal but unethical
Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?
A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
Attempted suicide
An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:
did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient
Which of the following most accurately defines negligence?
Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
standard of care
Ethnocentrism is defined as:
considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.
Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:
maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible
In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?
Calm and confident
Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:
elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation
When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:
determine the degree of the patient’s impairment
The patient care report (PCR) ensures:
continuity of care
All information recorded on the PCR must be:
considered confidential
A patient’s refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:
an informed refusal
Which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities?
Cardiac arrest
Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:
base station
A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
repeater
Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies?
Scanner
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to “push to talk” and “release to listen” describes which mode of communication?
Simplex
When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:
brief and easily understood
You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.
slander
During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher’s responsibilities include all of the following, except:
discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives
When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient’s privacy by:
not disclosing his or her name
You are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate?
“It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow.”
Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct?
Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:
respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm.
distal
A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a:
distal humerus fracture
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:
medial
The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is:
inferior
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
proximal
In relation to the chest, the back is:
posterior
Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word “dorsal”?
Posterior
A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?
Plantar
The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles.
apex
Movement or motion away from the body’s midline is called:
abduction
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:
bilateral
A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:
only one side of his chest rises when he inhales
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body’s position?
Prone
A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ___________ position.
Fowler
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she:
is excessively thirsty
A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that:
she has excessive vomiting.
The term “supraventricular tachycardia” means:
a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles
The term “pericardiocentesis” means:
the removal of fluid from around the heart.
Enlargement of the liver is called:
hepatomegaly
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient’s leg stops bleeding. This is called:
hemostasis
The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures.
midline
The axial skeleton is composed of the:
skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column
Which of the following is not a facial bone?
Mastoid
The most distal four spinal vertebrae, which are fused together, form the:
coccyx
The carpal bones form the:
wrist
The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint.
hinge
Skeletal muscle is also called:
voluntary muscle.
As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:
alveoli
Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:
diffusion
Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that:
contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange
The muscle tissue of the heart is called the:
myocardium
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:
pulmonary veins
The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:
sinoatrial node
The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the:
capillaries
White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by:
protecting the body from infection
Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include:
epinephrine and norepinephrine
The central nervous system is composed of the:
brain and spinal cord
All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain?
Brainstem
Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space?
Kidneys
Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body?
Pituitary gland
Which of the following statements regarding an infant’s vital signs is correct?
An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature.
Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue
An infant or small child’s airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
10 to 18 months
Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
19 and 25 years
Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer
Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the:
elasticity of the lungs decreases
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except:
increased surface area available for air exchange
Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed
Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?
Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons
Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs?
Increased weight
The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically:
70 beats/min
Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age
In preconventional reasoning, children:
act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want
Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child
The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:
70 to 120 beats/min
You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she:
responds to her name but is fearful of your presence
The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
sacrum
When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:
shoulder girdle
The first rule of safe lifting is to:
keep your back in a straight, vertical position
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
keep the weight as close to your body as possible
Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique?
One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso
You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.
four
The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
injury to you or your patient
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
from a bed to the ambulance stretcher
Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?
Draw sheet method
The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:
basket stretcher
Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct?
Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
decontaminate
After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:
remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so
When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:
the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible
When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:
kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over
Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?
Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:
with a deformed humerus
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
increased stability from a wider wheelbase
The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:
the continuum of care
Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:
collaboration
When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she
does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task
EMTs and other health care providers function as a true team when they work:
interdependently
When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on:
solving a clinical problem
Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?
Preoxygenation with a BVM
In an independent group, you would have:
your own work area
In an interdependent group, when one person fails:
everyone fails
To be a great EMT, strive for:
foundational knowledge
Which comes first in EMS decision making?
Data gathering
Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred?
Outcome evaluation
While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner, “Why even splint the patient’s leg if they’re only going to remove it in the ED?” This statement indicates that:
the EMT’s focus is not on the common goal
An effective team leader should:
help the team accomplish goals
In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:
works interdependently
The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:
defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received
EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:
the patient had a reported syncopal episode
Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?
Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format
For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:
common language
Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?
Anchoring
If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should:
discuss the problem after the call
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
Headache
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
all the patients have been triaged
Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?
Ability to speak
The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:
94% to 99%
In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery.
radial
In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min
60, 100
Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:
decreased blood oxygen
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:
identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment
As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:
maintain stabilization of the head.
Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?
“Does your mother have diabetes?”
Capnography is used to:
determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled
Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?
Systematic head-to-toe examination
Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?
Systematic head-to-toe examination
The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
locate injuries not found in the primary assessment
The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:
patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients
A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:
falsely high systolic and diastolic reading
A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:
two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow
When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
systolic blood pressure
When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:
repeat the primary assessment
A patient’s short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:
day and event
A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:
13
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
Bronchus
Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:
the epiglottis
The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.
phrenic
Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult?
Shallow breathing
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
Cyanosis
Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:
adequate amounts of surfactant
The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood is called:
hypercarbia
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
The tongue
Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?
Muscle
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
500 psi
The hypoxic drive is influenced by:
low blood oxygen levels
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
nonrebreathing mask
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
44%
High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:
apneic oxygenation
With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen.
90%
Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:
cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood
The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).
2,000
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:
the study of drugs and their actions on the body
A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:
blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them
Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug?
Aspirin
Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?
Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch?
Transcutaneous
The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.
form
Separation is especially an issue with medicine used as a(n):
suspension
Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct?
An MDI delivers the same amount of medication every time it is used
What medication form does oral glucose come in?
Gel
An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:
authorization from medical control has been obtained
In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.
peer-assisted
The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called:
absorption
The medical term for a low blood glucose level is:
hypoglycemia
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells
Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:
prevents the aggregation of platelets
Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain:
relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries
You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control?
Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct?
The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug
With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to _______ oxygen.
44%
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:
cardiovascular disease
Shock is the result of:
hypoperfusion to the cells of the body
Capillary sphincters are:
circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries
One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:
carbon dioxide
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?
Cardiac tamponade
Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?
Wheezing
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:
plasma
Neurogenic shock occurs when:
failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation
In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:
hypothermia
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
absent peripheral pulses
Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?
A 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
Liver laceration
All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:
ischemic stroke
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:
apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist
To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:
the skin
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:
cardiogenic shock
Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
increased preload
Distributive shock occurs when:
widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds
A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:
septic shock
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?
Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?
Decompression of the injured side of the chest
Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?
Cardiac monitoring
Most prehospital cardiac arrests in adults occur as the result of:
a cardiac dysrhythmia
Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient’s airway when a spinal injury is suspected?
Jaw-thrust
A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:
is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately
If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:
reposition the patient’s airway
To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient’s chest at a rate of:
100 to 120 compressions per minute
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
respiratory arrest
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?
15:2
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
with one or two hands
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?
Chest thrusts
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
involves hands-on practice
When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress:
at least 2 inches
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
prone
In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:
30:2
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?
100
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery.
brachial
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
back slaps
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
if you ventilate a patient too quickly
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
gastric distention
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
begin CPR until an AED is available
In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms
An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness
Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:
attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient
When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?
Medical history
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.
neurologic
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
repeating the primary assessment
The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:
addresses the patient’s symptoms more than the actual disease process
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
take standard precautions
In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?
Recent travel
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:
has a greater ability to produce disease.
A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:
meningitis
The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:
get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient’s illness?
Asking questions related to the chief complaint
The secondary assessment of a medical patient:
is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short
Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
Ibuprofen
Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include:
fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?
68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:
cough
Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include:
prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit
Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:
shortness of breath or difficulty breathing
The two processes that occur during respiration are:
inspiration and expiration
Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
Asthma is caused by a response of the:
immune system
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a narcotic overdose
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:
blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing
Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:
stridor
A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental oxygen, you should:
determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler
Albuterol is a generic name for:
Ventolin
In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
Alveoli
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:
adequate air exchange
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?
Severe anxiety
At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:
expiratory wheezing
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
fluid accumulation outside the lung
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
tachypnea and tingling in the extremities
When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:
abnormal breath sounds
When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should:
start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds
Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct?
Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood
When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:
respirations increase in rate and depth
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
right atrium
Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?
Pulmonary veins
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:
sinoatrial node
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:
slows the heart and respiratory rates
The right coronary artery supplies blood to the:
right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle
The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the:
femoral arteries
Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called:
atherosclerosis
Solid abdominal organs include the:
spleen, kidneys, and pancreas
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?
Pancreas
