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jlo_21 > EMT Crash Course > Flashcards

EMT Crash Course Flashcards

0
Q

Online Medical Direction

A

-Direct contact between physician and EMT via phone or radio.

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1
Q

Medical Director

A

-Physician oversight of patient care and quality improvement.

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2
Q

Offline Medical Direction

A

-Written guidelines and protocols.

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3
Q

-Continuous Quality Improvement

A

-Continuous audit and review of all aspects of the EMS system to identify areas of improvement.

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4
Q

EMTs first priority is….

A

-Always scene safety, after personal safety then partner, patient, and then bystanders.

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5
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

A

-Oversees regulations concerning workplace safety, including infectious diseases precautions.

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6
Q

Scope of Practice

A

-Outlines the actions a provider is legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level.

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7
Q

Standard of Care

A

-Is the degree of care a reasonable person with similar training would provide in a similar situation.

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8
Q

Informed Consent

A

-Is required from all patients who are alert and competent.

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9
Q

Expressed Consent

A

-Requires that the patient be alert and competent to give expressed consent. Expressed consent can be given verbally or nonverbally.

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10
Q

Implied Consent

A
  • Allows assumption of consent for emergency care from an unresponsive or incompetent patient.
  • Implied consent can be used to treat a patient who initially refused care but later loses consciousness or becomes otherwise incapacitated.
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11
Q

Minor Consent

A
  • Minors are not competent to accept or refuse care.
  • Consent is required from a parent or legal guardian. Implied consent can be used when unable to reach a parent or guardian and treatment is needed.
  • Minor consent is not required for emancipated minors. Criteria for emancipation varies but usually includes minors who are married or pregnant, already a parent, a member of the armed forces, financially independent, or emancipated by the courts.
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12
Q

Involuntary Consent

A

-Used for mentally incompetent adults or those in custody of law enforcement. Consent must be obtained from the entity with the appropriate legal authority.

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13
Q

Advanced Directives

A

-Written instructions, signed by the patient, specifying the patient’s wishes regarding treatment and resuscitative efforts. There are several types of advanced directives.

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14
Q

Do Not Resuscitate (DNR)

A

-DNRs are specific to resuscitation efforts and do not affect treatment prior to the patient entering cardiac arrest.

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15
Q

Living Will

A

-Living wills are broader than DNRs. They address health-care wishes prior to entering cardiac arrest. This may include use of advanced airways, ventilators, feeding tubes, etc.

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16
Q

Samaritan Law

A

-Designed to protect someone who renders care as long as he or she is not being compensated and gross negligence is not committed.

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17
Q

Duty to Act

A

-The EMT had an obligation to respond and provide care.

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18
Q

Breech of Duty

A

-The EMT failed to assess, treat, or transport patient according to the standard of care.

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19
Q

Damage

A

-The plaintiff experienced damage or injury recognized by the legal system as worthy of compensation.

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20
Q

Causation

A

-(also called “proximate cause”). The injury to the plaintiff was, at least in part, directly due to the EMT’s breech of duty.

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21
Q

Gross Negligence

A
  • Gross negligence exceeds simple negligence. Gross negligence involves an indifference to, and violation of, a legal responsibility.
  • Reckless patient care that is clearly dangerous to the patient is grossly negligent.
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22
Q

Abandonment

A

-Once care is initiated, EMS providers cannot terminate care without the patient’s consent. Some patient encounters may also require direct contact with medical direction prior to terminating care. Most EMS agencies have written protocols for terminating care without transporting the patient to a higher level of care.

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23
Q

False Imprisonment

A

-You may be guilty of false imprisonment if you transport a competent patient without consent.

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24
Q

EMTs can release confidential patient information without consent when…

A
  • the information is necessary for continuity of care
  • the information is necessary to facilitate billing for services
  • the EMT has received a valid subpoena
  • reporting possible crimes, abuse, assault, neglect, certain injuries, or communicable disease
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25
Q

Decomposition

A

-Physical decay of the body’s components.

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26
Q

Rigor Mortis

A

-Stiffening of the body after death.

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27
Q

Dependent Lividity

A

-The settling of blood within the body.

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28
Q

Decapitation

A

-The patients head is no longer attached to the body.

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29
Q

Anatomy

A

-The study of the body’s structure.

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30
Q

Physiology

A

-The study of the body’s function.

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31
Q

Pathophysiology

A

-The study of disease.

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32
Q

Homeostasis

A
  • Is a state of balance or equilibrium within the body.

- Every cell, tissue, organ, and system in the human body functions to maintain homeostasis.

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33
Q

Anatomical Position

A

-The body is in the standing position, arms at the sides, with palms forward (thumbs on the outside).

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34
Q

Anterior

A

-Front

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35
Q

Posterior

A

-Back

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36
Q

Superior

A

-Top

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37
Q

Inferior

A

-Bottom

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38
Q

Proximal

A

-Closer to the point of attachment.

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39
Q

Distal

A

-Farther away from point of attachment.

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40
Q

Medial

A

-Close to the midline.

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41
Q

Lateral

A

-Far from the midline.

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42
Q

Abduction

A

-Movement away from the midline.

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43
Q

Adduction

A

-Movement towards the midline.

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44
Q

Extension

A

-Straightening the joint. (Increasing the angle of the joint)

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45
Q

Flexion

A

-Bending the joint. (Decreasing the angle of the joint)

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46
Q

Supine

A

-Lying on your back, faced up.

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47
Q

Prone

A

-Lying on your stomach, facedown.

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48
Q

Shock/Trendelenburg Position

A

-Supine with the legs elevated

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49
Q

Fowlers Position

A

-Seated with head elevated and knees bent

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50
Q

Skeletal System

A

-Provides shape and allows movement and protects internal organs. 206 bones in the human body.

51
Q

Ligaments

A

-Connect bone to bone

52
Q

Tendons

A

-Connect bone to muscle

53
Q

Cartilage

A

-Connective tissue that allows smooth moment of joints

54
Q

Axial Skeleton

A

-Consist primarily of the skull, spinal column and rib cage(thoracic cavity)

55
Q

Frontal Bone(skull)

A

-The forehead

56
Q

Parietal Bone

A

-Top of the head, between frontal and occipital bone s

57
Q

Occipital Bone

A

-Posterior portion of the skull

58
Q

Temporal Bone

A

-Lateral bones, above the cheekbones

59
Q

Maxillae

A

-Forms the upper jaw, above the upper teeth

60
Q

Mandible

A

-Moveable portion of the lower jaw

61
Q

Zygomatic Bone

A

-Cheekbones

62
Q

Nasal Bones

A

-The nose

63
Q

Foramen Magnum

A

-Opening in the occipital bone where brain connects to spinal column

64
Q

Spinal Column

A

-Consists of 33 vertebrae(9 of them are fused)

65
Q

Cervical Spine

A

-7 vertebrae, C1-C7

66
Q

Thoracic Spine

A

-12 vertebrae, T1-T12

67
Q

Lumbar Spine

A

-5 vertebrae, L1-L5

68
Q

Sacrum

A

-5 fused vertebrae

69
Q

Coccyx

A

-4 fused vertebrae

70
Q

Thoracic Cavity

A

-Houses the heart, lungs, trachea, esophagus and great vessels

71
Q

Sternum

A

-Breastbone

72
Q

Manubrium

A

-Upper portion of the sternum

73
Q

Body

A

-Middle portion of the sternum

74
Q

Xiphoid Process

A

-Inferior tip of the sternum

75
Q

Appendicular Skeleton

A

-Includes the bones of the arms, legs and pelvis

76
Q

Shoulder Girdle

A

-Formed by the clavicle(collarbone), scapula(shoulder blade), humerus(upper arm)

77
Q

Humerus

A

-Upper arm

78
Q

Radius

A

-Lateral bone of forearm(thumb side)

79
Q

Ulna

A

-Medial bone of forearm

80
Q

Carpal Bones

A

-Wrist

81
Q

Metacarpals

A

-Base of the fingers

82
Q

Phalanges

A

-Fingers

83
Q

Pelvis

A

-A ring shaped structure formed by three bones

84
Q

Ilium

A

-Upper portion of the pelvis

85
Q

Ischium

A

-Lower portion of the pelvis

86
Q

Pubis

A

-Anterior portion of the pelvis

87
Q

Femur

A

-Thigh bone(strongest bone of the body)

88
Q

Patella

A

-Kneecap

89
Q

Tibia

A

-Medial bone of the lower leg(shinbone)

90
Q

Fibula

A

-Lateral bone of the lower leg

91
Q

Tarsal Bones

A

-Ankles

92
Q

Metatarsals

A

-Base of the toes

93
Q

Phalanges

A

-Toes

94
Q

Joints

A

-A joint exist where two long bones come together

95
Q

Symphysis

A

-A joint with limited motion

96
Q

Ball and Socket joint

A

-A joint where the distal end is capable of free motion, such as the shoulder

97
Q

Hinge Joint

A

-A joint where the bone me can move only uniaxially, such as the knees

98
Q

Smooth Muscle

A

-Involuntary muscle located within the blood vessels and the digestive tract

99
Q

Skeletal

A

-Voluntary muscle that attaches to the skeleton

100
Q

Biceps

A

-Anterior humerus

101
Q

Triceps

A

-Posterior humerus

102
Q

Pectoralis

A

-Anterior chest

103
Q

Latissimus Dorsi

A

-Posterior chest

104
Q

Rectus Abdominis

A

-Abdominal muscles

105
Q

Quadriceps (4 muscles)

A

-Anterior femur

106
Q

Biceps Femoris

A

-Posterior femur; part of hamstring muscle

107
Q

Gluteus (3 muscles)

A

-Buttocks

108
Q

Cardiac

A

-Heart muscle

109
Q

Respiratory System

A

-Provides the body with adequate oxygen and eliminates waste product such as carbon dioxide(CO2). The respiratory system helps regulate pH levels to assist in maintaining homeostasis.

110
Q

Upper Airway Components

A
  • Nose
  • Mouth
  • Nasopharynx(upper part of the throat behind the nose)
  • Oropharynx(area of the throat behind the mouth)
  • Larynx(voice box)
  • Epiglottis(valve that protects the opening of the trachea)
111
Q

Most common cause of upper airway obstruction?

A

-Tongue

112
Q

Components of lower airway include…

A
  • Trachea
  • Carina(where the trachea branches into left and right mainstem bronchi)
  • Left and Right mainstem bronchi(primary branches of the trachea leading to left and right lungs)
  • Bronchioles(smaller branches of the bronchi)
  • Alveoli
113
Q

Alveoli

A
  • Location of carbon dioxide and oxygen exchange
  • All airway structure above the alveoli serve to get air to this point in the respiratory system
  • Alveoli are in contact with pulmonary capillaries
  • Pulmonary capillaries diffuse carbon dioxide from the body to the alveoli
  • Alveoli diffuse oxygen from the respiratory system to the body
  • Surfactant is a substance that helps keep the alveoli from collapsing
114
Q

Pleura

A

-Two thin, smooth layers of tissue with thin film of fluid in between to allow frictionless movement across one another.

115
Q

Visceral Pleura

A

-Lines the outer surface of the lungs.

116
Q

Parietal Pleura

A

-Lines the inside surface of the chest cavity.

117
Q

Diaphragm

A
  • Primary muscle of respirations.
  • It separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.
  • Usually under involuntary control but can be controlled.
  • Esophagus and great vessels pass through the diaphragm.
  • Dome shaped until during inhalation it moves down and expands the size of the thoracic cavity.
118
Q

Intercostal Muscles

A

-Located between the ribs, the intercostal muscles contract during inhalation and expand the thoracic cage.

119
Q

Inhalation

A
  • Done through negative pressure breathing.
  • Pressure in the chest cavity decreases and air rushes in.
  • Active process and require breathing.
120
Q

Exhalation

A
  • The diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the thoracic cage contracts, pressure in the chest cavity rises, and air is expelled.
  • Normally passive and does not require energy.
  • 16% Oxygen expelled.
121
Q

External Respirations

A

-The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries.

122
Q

Internal Respirations

A

-Gas exchanged between the body’s cells and the systemic capillaries.

123
Q

Cellular Respiration(aerobic metabolism)

A

-Uses oxygen to break down glucose to create energy.

124
Q

Carbon Dioxide Drive

A
  • Primary mechanism for breathing control for most people.

- High CO2 levels will stimulate an increase in respiratory rate and tidal volume.

125
Q

Hypoxic Drive

A
  • Back up system to the CO2 drive.
  • Low oxygen levels will stimulate breathing.
  • Less effective than CO2 Drive.

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