EMT Chp. 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Symptom

A

Subjective condition that the patient feels and tells you about

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sign:

A

:Objective condition that you can observe or measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define scene size-up:

A

An evaluation of the conditions in which you will be operating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain situational awareness:

A

Paying attention to the conditions and people around you at all times and the potential risks those conditions or people pose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a scene is not safe what should you do?

A

Ask yourself what can you do to make it safe or call for additional resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should you do if you are on a scene and notice a weapon such as a handgun or knife?

A

If not secured make sure you place yourself between the patient and the potential danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the best way to determine if a patient has a medical problem or a trauma MOI?

A

The Chief Complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should you take standard precautions during a call?

A

Before actual patient contact often before you step out of your response vehicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What questions should be asked to determine if you require additional resources?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does the scene pose a threat to you

A

your patient or others?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many patients are there?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Do we have the resources to respond to their conditions?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the goal of the primary assessment? To identify and begin treatment of immediate or imminent life threats.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When approaching a patient with injuries to form a general impression

A

why is it important to make sure the patient sees you coming? (page 351) To avoid surprising the patient or causing the patient to turn to see you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the AVPU scale used for?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

It tests a patient’s responsiveness and LOC.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain each component:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A Awake and Alert (eyes open as your approach

A

follows commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

V Responsive to verbal stimuli (Not alert and awake

A

eyes do not open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

P Responsive to pain (Doesn’t respond to questions but moves or cries out of response to painful stimuli.)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

U Unresponsive (Patient doesn’t respond to verbal or painful stimuli)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some causes of altered mental status? (page 353) Ongoing illness

A

history of stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define altered mental status: Any deviation from alert and oriented to person

A

place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

After determining the level of consciousness in a patient

A

the priorities of care should then focus on (page 354). Identify and correct life threatening issues with ABC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the exceptions to the order of treating airway

A

breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When the patient has a life threatening bleeding.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Be familiar with the information in Table 10-1 on page 354.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Indications for Spinal Immobilization

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Either blunt or penetrating trauma with any of the following:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pain or tenderness on palpation of the neck or spine

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Patient report of pain in neck or back

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Paralysis or neurologic complaint (numbness

A

tingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Blunt trauma with any of the following:

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Altered mental status

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Intoxication (alcohol or drugs)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Difficulty or inability to communicate

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a sign of an airway obstruction in a conscious patient? A patient who cannot speak or cry.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When a patient has secretions

A

vomitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the signs of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Obvious trauma

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Noisy breathing

A

such as snoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Extremely shallow or absent breathing

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the goal for oxygen saturation for most patients? ____94___%

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should positive-pressure ventilations be used on a patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When a patient who is not breathing or whose breathing is too slow or too shallow.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are signs of breathing difficulty in patients? (page 356)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Shallow Respirations

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The presence of retractions

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Use of Accessory Muscles

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Nasal Flaring and seesaw breathing

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Two to three dyspnea

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Labored breathing

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Tripod Position

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Explain tripod position: A patient is sitting and leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head and chin thrust slightly forward.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are some signs of labored breathing in infants and small children?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Nasal flaring and seesaw breathing in pediatric patients indicate inadequate breathing

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Tripod position

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Know the signs of respiratory distress and failure in Table 10-2 on page 357.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Signs of Respiratory Distress and Failure

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Respiratory Distress

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Respiratory Failure

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Agitation

A

Anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Lethargy

A

difficult to rouse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Stridor

A

Wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Tachypnea with periods of bradypnea or agonal respirations

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Accessory muscle use;intercostal retractions

A

neck muscles use (Sternomastoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Inadequate chest rise/poor excursion

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Tachypnea

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Inadequate respiratory rate or effort

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Mild Tachycardia

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Bradycardia

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nasal flaring

A

seesaw breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Diminished muscle tone

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The first step in evaluating any patient is to rapidly scan for

A

identify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Define pulse: The pressure wave that occurs as ach heartbeats causes a surge in the blood circulating through the arteries

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Define palpate: Feel the pulse. Hold together your fingertips over a pulse point. Press gently against the artery until you feel intermittent pulsations.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What should you do if you cannot palpate a carotid pulse in an unconscious patient? Begin CPR and an AED.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What should you do if a patient has a pulse but is not breathing? Provide ventilations at a rate of 10 to 12 breaths a minute for adults and 12 to 20 breaths a minute for an infant or child.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What should you do if the patient becomes pulseless? Start CPR and apply an AED.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Circulation is evaluated by assessing:

A
81
Q

1.Skin Condition

A
82
Q
  1. Skin Color
A
83
Q
  1. Skin Temperature
A
84
Q

4.Skin Moisture

A
85
Q

Where should changes in skin color be apparent in patients with deeply pigmented skin? Fingernail beds

A

the mucous membranes in the mouth

86
Q

Define cyanosis: Insufficient air exchange and low levels of oxygen in the blood

A

the blood vessels appear blue.

87
Q

Define diaphoretic: When the skin is bathed in sweat

A

such as after strenuous exercise or when the patient is in shock.

88
Q

How can the condition/moisture of the skin be described? (page 360)

A
89
Q

First describe the color

A

then the temperature

90
Q

Normal skin condition should be described as: Pink

A

Warm

91
Q

How fast should capillary refill be restored to normal pink color in the fingernail beds be restored in infants and children?

A
92
Q

2 seconds

A
93
Q

How should CRT be documented?

A
94
Q

CRT >2 (Delayed)

A
95
Q

What is the simplest way of controlling external bleeding?

A
96
Q

Direct pressure with your gloved hand and soon thereafter a sterile bandage over the wound will control bleeding in most cases.

A
97
Q

What is the purpose of the rapid head-to-toe exam following the primary assessment?

A
98
Q

Be familiar with the steps in Skill Drill 10-1 on page 362-363.

A
99
Q

Head

A
100
Q

Neck

A
101
Q

Chest

A
102
Q

Abdomen

A
103
Q

Pelvis

A
104
Q

All four extremities

A
105
Q

Back and Buttocks

A
106
Q

What conditions are considered examples of high-priority patients requiring immediate transport?

A
107
Q

Unresponsive

A
108
Q

Difficulty breathing

A
109
Q

Uncontrolled bleeding

A
110
Q

Altered LOC

A
111
Q

Severe Chest Pain

A
112
Q

Pale skin or other signs of poor perfusion

A
113
Q

Complicated childbirth

A
114
Q

Severe pain in any area of the body.

A
115
Q

When does the Golden Hour begin and end?

A
116
Q

Time the injury to definitive care

A
117
Q

How often should unstable patients be reassessed?Every 5 minutes

A
118
Q

How often should stable patients be reassessed?

A
119
Q

Every 15 minutes

A
120
Q

Explain history taking: Provides details about the patient’s chief complaint and an account of the patient’s signs and symptoms.

A
121
Q

Date of incident

A
122
Q

Patient’s age

A
123
Q

Patient’s sex

A
124
Q

Patient’s race

A
125
Q

Past medical history any pertinent information.

A
126
Q

Patient’s current health status

A
127
Q

When investigating the chief complaint

A

begin by: making introductions (make patient feel comfortable)

128
Q

How can you gain information about an unconscious patient’s medical history?

A
129
Q

Observable signs

A

and original dispatch. Family members that are present

130
Q

What questions should you ask for each component of SAMPLE history?

A
131
Q

S: Signs and Symptoms (What signs and symptoms happened at onset of incident?)

A
132
Q

A: Allergies (Any food or medications?)

A
133
Q

M: Medications (Prescribed? OTC? Taken the last 12 hours?)

A
134
Q

P: Pertinent past medical history (History of medical

A

surgical

135
Q

L: Last oral intake (What did you last eat

A

and when?)

136
Q

E: Events leading up to the injury or illness (What was the patient doing when the illness started?)

A
137
Q

Explain what each component of OPQRST means:

A
138
Q

O: Onset - what were you doing when symptoms began?

A
139
Q

P: Provocation/Palliation- What makes symptoms better or worse?

A
140
Q

Q: Quality- What does it feel like? Crushing

A

dull

141
Q

R: Region/Radiation- Does it move anywhere?

A
142
Q

S: Severity- On a scale from 1-10

A
143
Q

T: Timing- When did it start?

A
144
Q

Explain what a pertinent negative is:

A
145
Q

Signs and symptoms the patient does not have

A

are important negatives.

146
Q

How do you prioritize a patient’s complaints when they present with multiple symptoms?

A
147
Q

Prioritize the patient’s complaint as you would with triage; start with the most serious and end with the least serious.

A
148
Q

Give an example of a situation where you may not have time to perform a secondary assessment:

A
149
Q

If you have to continually mage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment. Ex: CPR

A
150
Q

What is the purpose of the secondary assessment?

A
151
Q

Perform a systematic physical examination of the patient.

A
152
Q

Explain auscultation (page 378) The sound to the flow of blood against the brachial artery as you release the pressure in the blood pressure cuff.

A
153
Q

What types of patients should a systematic head-to-toe assessment be performed on? (page 378)

A
154
Q

Significant MOI

A

is unconscious

155
Q

What are the ears assessed for in the secondary assessment? Bruising behind the ears (Battle Sign

A
156
Q

Define stridor and what it indicates:

A
157
Q

A brassy crowing sound prominent on inspiration

A

suggests a partially occluded upper airway caused by swelling.

158
Q

High pitched crowing indicates an upper airway obstruction from a foreign body.

A
159
Q

What is the normal resting pulse rate for an adult?

A
160
Q

60-100 beats/minute

A
161
Q

What is the best way to assess the quality of air movement in the lungs? Listen to breath sounds on each side of your patient’s chest.

A
162
Q

Blood pressure by palpation measures the ______systolic______ blood pressure.

A
163
Q

Explain how to accurately measure blood pressure by palpation:

A
164
Q

Inflate the cuff rapidly to 70 mmHg

A

and increase by 10 mm Hg increments while palpating the radial pulse.

165
Q

Be familiar with the Characteristics of Respirations in Table 10-5 on page 387.

A
166
Q

Normal: Breathing is neither shallow nor deep; it appears effortless. Equal chest rise and fall. No use of accessory muscles.

A
167
Q

Shallow: Decreased chest or abdominal wall motion

A
168
Q

Labored:Increased breathing effort. Use of accessory muscles. Possible gasping. Nasal flaring

A

supraclavicular and intercostal retractions in infants and children

169
Q

Noisy: Increase in sound of breathing

A

including snoring

170
Q

What does systolic blood pressure measure?

A
171
Q

The increased pressure that is caused along the artery with each contraction (systole) of the ventricles and the pulse wave that it produces.

A
172
Q

What does diastolic blood pressure measure?

A
173
Q

The residual pressure that remains in the arteries during the relaxing phase of the heart’s cycle. When the left ventricle is at rest.

A
174
Q

Evaluate if the pupils reach in any of the following ways:

A
175
Q

Become fixed (either dilated or constricted)

A
176
Q

Dilate with introduction of bright light and constrict when the light is removed

A
177
Q

React sluggishly instead of briskly

A
178
Q

Become unequal in size

A
179
Q

Become unequal in size when a bright light is introduced into or removed from one eye.

A
180
Q

What are some of the causes of depressed brain function?

A
181
Q

Injury of the brain or brainstem

A
182
Q

Trauma or stroke

A
183
Q

Brain tumor

A
184
Q

Inadequate oxygenation or perfusion

A
185
Q

Drugs or toxins (CNS or depressants)

A
186
Q

What does jugular vein distention indicate? A problem with blood returning to the heart.

A
187
Q

At what angle should the patient be sitting to evaluate the jugular veins? Sitting up

A
188
Q

What does pulse oximetry evaluate? The effectiveness of oxygenation

A
189
Q

What does capnography measure? A patient’s ventilation

A

circulation

190
Q

The effectiveness of breathing treatments.

A
191
Q

What is a way of gaining valuable information in a patient with an altered mental status? (page 402)

A
192
Q

Measuring blood glucose level of a patient.

A
193
Q

What are the steps of patient reassessment?

A
194
Q

Reassess Vital Signs

A
195
Q

Reassess the Chief Complaint

A
196
Q

Recheck Interventions

A
197
Q

Identify and Treat Changes in the Patient’s Condition

A
198
Q

Reassess Patient

A
199
Q
A