Emetic/Antiemetics/Gastroprotectants Flashcards

1
Q

Apomorphine

A

Stimulates the chemoreceptor trigger zone to induce emesis as a non-selective dopamine agonist

Side effects: Failure to produce emesis, refractory vomiting, nausea, sedation

Adverse sedative effects can be reversed with an opioid agonist such as naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Alpha-2 Adrenergic Agonist

A

Induces emesis
Thought to occur through the stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone at least in part through the area of postrema of the medulla oblongata
Concerns include sedation, hyperglycemia, bradycardia, increased systemic vascular resistance, and increased cardiac afterload. Drug: dexmeditomidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Xylazine

A

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Dexmeditomidine

A

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Peripheral acting emetics

A

most common include hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac, and salt paste

syrup of ipecac no longer used due to potential for abuse and fatal cardiac arrhythmia.

Salt paste no longer clinically used due to risk of hypernatremia and questionable efficacy

Hydrogen peroxides: irritate oral, esophageal and gastric mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Phenothiazine Derivatives

A

Acepromazine, chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine

Reduce emesis through blockade of dopamine receptors in CRTZ and emetic centers

No longer used because of potential side effects and availability of more effective agents
Produce an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist which causes systemic vascular resistance and vasodilation; can result in hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Prokinetic

Dopamine and serotonin antagonist and cholinergic agonist

Increases lower esophageal sphincter tone, facilitates gastric emptying

short half-life, thus usually prescribed as a CRI

contraindication: mechanical obstructions in the GI tract and intussusceptions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ondansetron

A

Serotonin (5-HT3) Antagonist
Block serotonin receptors in the CRTZ and peripherally
Appear to be more effective than phenothiazine and metoclopramide
Side effects are rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maropitant

A

Neurokinin-1 (NK) antagonist
Blocks substance P at vomiting center in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors

A

Omeprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole

Inhibits Na/K ATPase pump activity
Recommended treatment for acid suppression; controls proton deposition in the gastric lumen and hydrochloric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

H2 Histageneric Antagonist

A

Famotidine, ranitidine, cimetidine
H2 blockers
Specific antihistamines that reduce the action of histamine at histamine receptors on gastric parietal cells; reduce stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sucralfate

A

Sucrose sulfate-aluminum complex
Binds to locally injured GI lining and creates a physical barrier
Promotes bicarb production and may increase production of prostaglandin E2
Commonly used to treat GI or duodenal ulcers
Can also be beneficial in esophageal strictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Misoprostol

A

Synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue
It improves gastric blood flow, decreases gastric acid production, increases mucus production and bicarb secretion, and promotes cell turnover.
Specifically used to help prevent NSAID-induced GI injury and ulceration
Also has effects on myometrial contraction
Wear gloves when handling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly